Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine 1 > Block 3 > Flashcards

Block 3 Flashcards

1
Q

often is referred to as the “master gland”
because, together with the hypothalamus, it orchestrates the complex
regulatory functions of many other endocrine glands.

A

anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The anterior

pituitary gland produces six major hormones:

A

(1) prolactin (PRL),
(2) growth hormone (GH),
(3) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH),
(4) luteinizing hormone (LH),
(5) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH),
and
(6) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The pituitary gland weighs ?

A

~600 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The pituitary gland is located ?

A

within the sella turcica ventral to the diaphragma sella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The bony sella is contiguous

to vascular and neurologic structures, including the ?

A

cavernous sinuses, cranial nerves, and optic chiasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hypothalamic neural cells synthesize specific releasing and inhibiting
hormones that are secreted to?

A

directly into the portal vessels of the

pituitary stalk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Blood supply of the pituitary gland comes from the?

A

superior and inferior hypophyseal arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

provides the major blood source for
the anterior pituitary, allowing reliable transmission of hypothalamic
peptide pulses without significant systemic dilution

A

The hypothalamic-

pituitary portal plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The posterior pituitary is supplied by the?

A

inferior hypophyseal arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is directly innervated by hypothalamic neurons (supraopticohypophyseal and
tuberohypophyseal nerve tracts) via the pituitary stalk

A

posterior lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This transcription factor induces pituitary development of Pit-1-specific lineages as well as gonadotropes.

A

transcription factor Prop-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This transcription factor determines
cell-specific expression of GH, PRL, and TSH in somatotropes, lactotropes,
and thyrotropes.

A

transcription factor Pit-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Expression of high levels of estrogen receptors in cells that contain Pit-1 favors expression of what hormone?

A

PRL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

thyrotrope embryonic factor (TEF) induces expression of what horrmone?

A

TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Gonadotrope cell development is further defined by the cell-specific expression of what nuclear receptors?

A
  1. steroidogenic factor (SF-1)

2. dosage-sensitive sex reversal, adrenal hypoplasia critical region, on chromosome X, gene 1 (DAX-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Development of corticotrope cells, which express the proopiomelanocortin
(POMC) gene, requires what transcription factor.

A

T-Pit transcription factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Corticotrope cells express what gene?

A

proopiomelanocortin (POMC) gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

it is weakly homologous to GH and human placental lactogen (hPL)

A

PROLACTIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

PRL is synthesized in?

A

lactotropes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Marked lactotrope cell hyperplasia develops during ?

A

pregnancy and the first few months of

lactation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Marked lactotrope cell hyperplasia which develops during pregnancy and the first few months of lactation is induced by?

A

estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Normal adult serum PRL levels in men and women

A

10–25 μg/L in women and 10–20 μg/L in men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

PRL secretion is pulsatile, with the highest secretory peaks occurring during ?

A

rapid eye movement sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Peak serum PRL levels (up to 30 μg/L) occur between what time?

A

4:00 and 6:00 a.m.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The circulating half-life of PRL is about ?

A

50 min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

the predominant central control mechanism of prolactin is ?

A

inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

receptors that mediate inhibition of PRL synthesis and secretion.

A

Pituitary dopamine type 2 (D2)

receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

a hypothalamic tripeptide that elicits PRL release within 15–30 min after intravenous injection

A

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

TRH primarily regulates what hormone?

A

TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

also induces PRL release

A

Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

weakly suppress PRL secretion

A

glucocorticoids and thyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Serum PRL levels rise transiently after what activities or situation?

A

Serum PRL levels rise transiently after exercise, meals, sexual intercourse, minor surgical procedures, general anesthesia, chest wall injury, acute myocardial infarction, and other forms of acute stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

increase markedly (about tenfold) during pregnancy and decline rapidly within 2 weeks of parturition.

A

Prolactin

34
Q

In the breast, the lobuloalveolar epithelium proliferates in response to ?

A

PRL, placental lactogens, estrogen, progesterone, and local paracrine growth factors, including insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I).

35
Q

PRL inhibits reproductive function by ?

A
  1. suppressing hypothalamic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and pituitary gonadotropin secretion
  2. and by impairing gonadal steroidogenesis in both women and men.
36
Q

In the ovary, PRL ?

A

blocks folliculogenesis and inhibits granulosa cell aromatase activity, leading to hypoestrogenism and anovulation.

37
Q

the most abundant anterior pituitary hormone

A

GROWTH HORMONE

38
Q

a 44-amino-acid hypothalamic peptide that stimulates GH synthesis and release.

A

GH-releasing hormone (GHRH)

39
Q

an octanoylated gastric-derived peptide, and synthetic agonists of the GHS-R induce GHRH and also directly stimulate GH release.

A

Ghrelin

40
Q

is synthesized in the medial preoptic area of the hypothalamus and inhibits GH secretion.

A

Somatostatin (somatotropin-release inhibiting factor [SRIF])

41
Q

_______, the peripheral target hormone for GH, feeds back to inhibit GH

A

IGF-I

42
Q

Induces GH release

A

estrogen

43
Q

Suppresses GH release

A

chronic glucocorticoid excess

44
Q

preferentially suppress GH (and TSH) secretion

A

SST2 and SST5 subtypes

45
Q

signals to suppress ACTH secretion

A

SST5

46
Q

GH secretion is pulsatile, with highest peak levels occurring at?

A

at night

47
Q

Elevated GH levels occur with what situations?

A

Elevated GH levels occur within an hour of deep sleep onset as well as after exercise, physical stress, and trauma and during sepsis.

48
Q

Increased GH pulse frequency and peak amplitudes occur with ?

A

chronic malnutrition or prolonged fasting.

49
Q

GH is stimulated by?

A

intravenous l-arginine, dopamine, and apomorphine (a dopamine receptor agonist), as well as by α-adrenergic pathways.

50
Q

Effect of β-Adrenergic blockade to basal GH and GHRH- and insulin-evoked
GH release?

A

β-Adrenergic
blockade induces basal GH and enhances GHRH- and insulin-evoked
GH release.

51
Q

express the greatest number of GH receptors

A

The liver and

cartilage

52
Q

A GH receptor antagonist (pegvisomant) is approved for treatment of ?

A

acromegaly

53
Q

the major source of circulating IGF-I

A

liver

54
Q 
These are the diseases that present
hypertension except
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Cushings
C. Addisons
D. Hyperaldosterolism
A

C. Addisons

55
Q 
Not a dermatologic manifestation of DM
A. Acanthosis nigricans
B. Granuloma annulare
C. Abdominal stria
D. Pigmented pre tibial papule
A

C. Abdominal stria

56
Q

ophthalmic manifestation of DM

A

Answer: retinal neovascularization

57
Q 
With regards to body fat, which is not a clinical
manifestation of Cushings
A. Buffalo hump
B. Central obesity
C. Weight gain
D. Lipoatrophy
A

D. Lipoatrophy

58
Q 
Torssueau and chvostiks sign is a clinical
manifestation of what blood abnormality?
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Hypokalemia
A

b. Hypocalcemia

59
Q 
Acanthosis nigricans
A. Exclusive DM
B. Insulin resistance
C. Dyslipidemia
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE.
A

B. Insulin resistance

60
Q 
Joint manifestation in DM?
A. Prayer sign
B. Charcot sign
C. Mallet toe
D. AOTA
A

D. AOTA

61
Q

eye presentation of DM

A

retinal vascularization

62
Q 
Breathing pattern in diabetic ketoacidosis
A. Kussmal
B. Cheyne - stokes
C. Hyperventilation
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

63
Q 
neuroglycopenic symptoms of hypoglycemia
A. paresthesia
B. shaking
C. sweating
D. confusion
A

D. confusion

64
Q 
Neurogenic symptom of hypoglycemia
A. irritability
B. nervousness
C. seizure
D. ataxia
A

C. seizure

65
Q

Used to test for protective sensation for

diabetic patients

A

*Monofilament Test

66
Q 
Positive chovsteks sign
A. Twitching of the palm
B. Twitching of the forearm
C. Pouting of the lips
D. Twitching of the lips
A

D. Twitching of the lips

67
Q 
True of galactorrhea
A. May be unilateral
B. May be bloody
C. May need nipple pressure to be
demonstrated
D. AOTA
A

D. AOTA

68
Q

Best diagnostic tool for endocrine

abnormality-

A

Immunoassays

69
Q 
Epinephrine is produced in?
A. Medulla
B. Zona glomerulosa
C. Zona Fasciculata
D. Zona Reticularis
A

A. Medulla

70
Q 
Aldosterone produced in?
A. Medulla
B. Zona glomerulosa
C. Zona Fasciculata
D. Zona Reticularis
A

B. Zona glomerulosa

71
Q 
What produces androgen?
A. Medulla
B. Zona glomerulosa
C. Zona Fasciculata
D. Zona Reticularis
A

D. Zona Reticularis

72
Q 
Cortisol is found in what layer?
A. Medulla
B. Zona glomerulosa
C. Zona Fasciculata
D. Zona Reticularis
A

C. Zona Fasciculata

73
Q 
Indicative of grave's in 90% of the patient?
A. Tachycardia
B. Edema
C. High Blood Pressure
D. Exolpthamia
A

D. Exolpthamia

74
Q

Most common cause of Cushing Disease-

A

ACTH-producing pituitary tumor

75
Q

Efficacy in Cushing Syndrome except:

A

Steroid

76
Q 
It is a disease with a presence of increased
catecholamines:
A. Cushing's disease
B. Addison's disease
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Congenital Hyperplasia
A

C. Pheochromocytoma

77
Q 
Dexamethasone Suppression is a work up
test for:
a. Addison's
b. Conn's
c. Pheochromocytoma
d. Cushing's
A

a. Addison’s

78
Q 
Most common cause of mineralocorticoid
excess is:
A. Bilateral multinodular adrenal hyperplasia
B. Cushing's disease
C. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
D. Adrenocortical adenoma
A

A. Bilateral multinodular adrenal hyperplasia

79
Q

Treatment for adrenal insufficiency

a. steroids
b. mitotane
c. metyrapone
d. ketoconazole

A

a. steroids

80
Q 
The great masquerader
A. Addison's
B. Conn's
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Cushing
A

C. Pheochromocytoma

Medicine 1 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions