Block 2 Flashcards
What is Bernoulli’s Principle?
Pressure decreases at points where speed increases
Helps achieve lift
Speed /^\
Pressure \v/
Think of placing thumb over a hose
On a wing, the low pressure system is located where?
Above the wing
What is Newton’s 3rd Law?
Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
How does Newton’s 3rd Law assist with lift?
Acts as a secondary source as an upward force is generated by air striking the underside of an airfoil and being deflected downward.
The primary source of lift on an airfoil is created by a differential in _____.
Pressure
Relative wind for an aircraft flows in which direction?
Opposite to the direction of flight
What is an airfoil?
Anything that helps to produce lift
What are the 3 principle airfoils?
Wing
Horizontal Tail Surface
Propeller
What is the Chord Line?
A straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge
Define Angle of Attack
The acute angle formed between the chord line and the relative wind
Define Camber
The curvature of the airfoil
Name the 3 primary wing platforms
Straight/Tapered
Delta
Sweptback
Name the 4 forces of flight
Lift
Weight
Thrust
Drag
What are the 3 key properties of the atmosphere?
Temperature
Altitude
Water Vapor
As _____ increasese, the temperature decreases on average by ____ degrees F every _____ ft.
3.5 degrees Fahrenheit every 1,000ft
What is Lapse Rate?
A decrease of temperature with height
Which air is denser? Warm or cold?
Cold air is denser than warm air.
As altitude increases, pressure ______.
Decreases
Lower pressure results in (less or more) dense air.
Less Dense Air
for lower pressure
The _____ (higher/lower) the temperature, the greater amount of water vapor the air can hold.
HIGHER
Water vapor replaces air so more speed is necessary in high temperatures due to less air molecules in the air b/c of the water vapor replacing it.
An increase in water vapor causes what?
a decrease in air density.
Water Vapor UP
Air Density DOWN
define Density Altitude
The altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to a particular value of air density
define Density
The mass of air per unit volume
What is an Adjustable Pitch propeller?
A prop that can only be adjusted by hand on the ground
What is a Fixed Pitch propeller?
A prop that never changes
What is a Controllable Pitch propeller?
A prop that can be adjusted in flight
What is Adverse Yaw?
The tendency of the nose of the aircraft to yaw in the opposite direction of the turn. Caused by the drag of the “down” aileron.
In a helicopter, what does the Collective control?
The pitch of the rotor blades
In a helicopter, what does the Cyclic control?
The tilt of the rotor
A stall occurs when the airfoil reaches what?
The Critical Angle of Attack (15-20 degrees)
The three primary causes of stalls are:
Insufficient Airspeed
Violent Flight Maneuvers
Wind Shear
What are the three primary types of icing?
Structural Icing
Pitot Tube Icing
Carburetor Icing
What is Structural Icing?
Icing on the airfoil that changes the shape.
What is Carburetor Icing?
Icing that reduces the fuel/air flow to the engine.
What temperatures is Carburetor Icing likely to occur at?
20-70 degrees F
The greatest vortex strength is generated when the aircraft is in what configuration?
Heavy
Clean
Slow
What is Wing Loading?
Amount of pounds per square foot the wing that the wing needs to support the aircraft
A dirty configuration _______ (increases or decreases) wing loading.
Decreases
because of less pounds per square foot are required to maintain lift due to the increased wing surface from the flaps.
Wingtip Vortices spin in which direction?
Over the top, inwards toward the aircraft
What rate per minute do vortices sink?
300-500 feet per minute
About what altitude do vortices normally level off?
500-1,000ft below the flight path
With zero wind close to the ground, how quickly will vortices move outward?
2-3 knots
What is induced roll?
The force a wake vortex has on an aircraft. Could roll the aircraft completely spinning it on its longitudinal axis.
The ability of an aircraft to counteract the effects of roll are based on two things:
- Wingspan
2. Counter control capability
Counter control is most effective and roll is minimal when the vortices extend beyond _______
The outer edges of the vortex
Hazardous conditions occur when the induced roll exceeds the level of ______
counter control
A hovering helicopter creates a downwash from its main rotors that can travel up to how far?
3 times the diameter of the rotors
In order to generate wingtip vortices, a helicopter must be _______.
In forward flight
How high does Class C airspace extend up to?
4,000ft above airport elevation
How wide is the one circle of a class C airspace?
5 miles
The class C’s uncharted outer area extends ___ Miles in radius, and extends no lower than _______.
10 miles
1,200ft
Class D airspace extends from the surface up to _______ ft.
2,500 ft above airport elevation
Victor and Tango Airways are located in which type of airspace?
Class E
What are the vertical ranges of Victor and Tango Airways?
Between 1,200ft - Up To but Not Including FL180
When should aircraft in class G airspace be vectored?
Only upon request as an additional service.
How are TFRs published?
Via an FDC NOTAM
Due to their regulatory nature
What is the vertical base/top of Class E airspace?
1,200 AGL - the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
Can extend down to 700 AGL or the surface in some areas
What are the vertical limits of Class A Airspace?
18,000 - up to AND including FL600
Special Use Airspace (SUA) is designed to accommodate who?
National Defense
Security
Welfare
Military
What is the controlling agency?
The ATC facility that controls the airspace when Special Use Airspace (SUA) is not active.
Either Military or FAA ATC can act as the controlling agency
What is the using agency?
The military unit or other organization using the Special Use Airspace (SUA)
What is a prohibited area?
Aircraft not permitted without approval from using agency
What letter is used to name a prohibited area?
P
What is a restricted area, and when is it used?
Flight is not totally prohibited, but is subject to restrictions.
Used when occurring activities are considered hazardous to non-participating aircraft
What letter is used to name a restricted area?
R
Weaponry, shooting or dropping would be classified as a _________ area.
Restricted
Hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft
What is a warning area?
Airspace that extends 3 Miles outward over water from the coast line.
What is the purpose of a warning area?
To warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger from activities being conducted.
What is the letter used to identify a Warning Area?
W
What is an Alert Area?
Airspace where a high volume of pilot training or unusual types of activity is conducted.
What is the purpose of an Alert area?
To alert pilots of optional dangers. Pilots may fly through at their own risk.
What letter is used to identify an alert area?
A
When would a controller vector am aircraft in uncontrolled airspace?
Only upon pilot request
The special use airspace (SUA) necessary to confine activities considered hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft is called a ________ area.
Restricted Area
What type of Special Use Airspace (SUA) is found over international waters?
Warning Area
What is the purpose of a Controlled Firing Area (CFA)?
Contains activities that, if not conducted in a controlled environment, would be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.
What kinds of activities are appropriate for a CFA?
Activities that can be immediately suspended on notice from the spotter that an aircraft is approaching.
What is a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
Vertical and lateral limits established outside Class A airspace.
Separates military training from IFR traffic
How do you identify a MOA?
The name of the MOA followed by “MOA”
i.e. HOLLIS MOA
MOAs will never exceed _______ ft.
18,000 ft
What is a National Security Area (NSA)?
An area where there is a requirement for increased security
What are the pilot restrictions for a National Security Area (NSA)?
Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid the NSA.
Overhead flight is permitted as long as it is not lingering in nature.
Prohibited Area vertical separation begins at what altitude?
The surface
In what type of airspace would a high volume of pilot flight training or other unusual activities occur?
Alert Area
Federal VOR airways are in what airspace?
Class E
What type of airspace is found over international waters?
Warning Area
What type of special use airspace is over a gunnary range over land?
CFA (Controlled Firing Area)
By which authority is the Code of Federal Regulations (CFRs) issued?
The FAA Administrator
CFR title 14 is arranged in what 3 sections
Part
Subpart
Section
CFRs 91.1 through 91.25 govern water and airspace hoe far from the US Coast?
Water: 3nm
Airspace: 12nm
What are the two restrictions for formation flight?
All pilots must agree to it
No paying pax on board
What is the right-of-way order from this list?
Balloon Glider Airship Towing/refueling All other aircraft
Balloon Glider Airship Towing/refueling All other aircraft
In terms of having right of way, aside from emergencies, who always has the general right of way at an airport?
A landing aircraft on final
Which aircraft operating within the US are subject to CFR Part 91?
All aircraft
Aircraft at or below 2500 AGL within 4nm of the primary airport of a class C or D airspace must operate at a speed no more than ______
200 knots
By which authority is the Code of Federal Regulations (CFRs) issued?
The FAA Administrator
CFR title 14 is arranged in what 3 sections
Part
Subpart
Section
CFRs 91.1 through 91.25 govern water and airspace hoe far from the US Coast?
Water: 3nm
Airspace: 12nm
What are the two restrictions for formation flight?
All pilots must agree to it
No paying pax on board
What is the right-of-way order from this list?
Balloon Glider Airship Towing/refueling All other aircraft
Balloon Glider Airship Towing/refueling All other aircraft
In terms of having right of way, aside from emergencies, who always has the general right of way at an airport?
A landing aircraft on final
Which aircraft operating within the US are subject to CFR Part 91?
All aircraft
Aircraft at or below 2500 AGL within 4nm of the primary airport of a class C or D airspace must operate at a speed no more than ______
200 knots
What is the speed limit below class B airspace?
200 knots
What is the speed limit in a VFR Class B corridor?
200 kts
What is considered a minimum safe VFR altitude?
An altitude that allows for an emergency landing without injury or damage, should a power unit fail.
What are the minimum altitude restrictions above a contested area?
1000 ft above the highest obstacle and 2000ft horizontal distance from any obstacles
What are the altitude requirements for non-congested areas?
Must remain 500ft above the surface except over open water or sparsely populated areas
What are the VFR altitude restrictions for aircraft above water or sparsely populated areas?
500ft away from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.
What are the VFR helicopter restrictions?
Helicopters may operate at any altitude as long as there is no hazard
Also, they must comply with any applicable helicopter routes.
What is the standard traffic pattern direction at a class G airport?
Left Traffic
At a Class G airport with an operating control tower, pilots must contact the tower ___ Mike’s from the airport if ______ft or less AGL
4nm
2,500ft AGL
What is the pattern altitude for large or turbine-powered jets flying in Class C or D airspace?
1,500ft Above airport elevation
Must maintain 1,500ft until further descent is required to landing
CFRs govern aircraft operating in the airspace within how many Miles of the US coast?
12 NM
CFRs govern aircraft operating in the waters within how many Miles of the US coast?
3 NM
For controllers age 40 or older, how often must they renew their medical?
Every 1 year
For controllers 39 or younger, how often must they renew their medical?
Every 2 years
What are the 3 types of flight plans?
IFR
VFR
DVFR
When is it mandatory to file a VFR flight plan?
When filing a DVFR flight plan, operating in an ADIZ or a DEWIZ
What is the primary reason for filing a VFR flight plan?
For search and rescue
At a Class G airport with an operating control tower, pilots must contact the tower ___ Mike’s from the airport if ______ft or less AGL
4nm
2,500ft AGL
CFRs govern aircraft operating in the airspace within how many Miles of the US coast?
12 NM
What is the standard traffic pattern direction at a class G airport?
Left Traffic
What is the pattern altitude for large or turbine-powered jets flying in Class C or D airspace?
1,500ft Above airport elevation
Must maintain 1,500ft until further descent is required to landing
CFRs govern aircraft operating in the airspace within how many Miles of the US coast?
12 NM
CFRs govern aircraft operating in the waters within how many Miles of the US coast?
3 NM
For controllers age 40 or older, how often must they renew their medical?
Every 1 year
For controllers 39 or younger, how often must they renew their medical?
Every 2 years
When is it mandatory to file a VFR flight plan?
When filing a DVFR flight plan, operating in an ADIZ or a DEWIZ
What is the primary reason for filing a VFR flight plan?
For search and rescue
Who is responsible for closing a DVFR flight plan?
The pilot
How is a SVFR clearance cancelled?
When the pilot lands or leaves the surface area
SVFR may only be conducted below what altitude?
10,000ft MSL
Even Cruise Altitudes are for cruise headings of ___ - ____ degrees.
180-359
EVEN Altitudes
Odd Cruise Altitudes are for cruise headings of ____ - ____ degrees
360-179
ODD Altitudes
True/False: VFR-On-Top is an IFR clearance
True
Standard takeoff minimums for revenue flights for aircraft with two engines or less are:
1 SM visibility
Standard takeoff minimums for revenue flights for aircraft with more than 2 engines are:
1/2 SM Visibility
What are the altitude restrictions for areas with mountainous terrain?
2,000ft above the highest obstacle
What is the lateral restriction for areas with mountainous terrain?
4 miles horizontal from the highest obstacle.
What are the altitude restrictions for areas with non-mountainous terrain?
1,000 ft above the highest obstacle
What is the lateral restriction for areas with non-mountainous terrain?
4 miles
What is the minimum visibility for an IFR departure when the takeoff minimum at a civil airport is NOT prescribed for a twin-engine aircraft?
1 mile
If an IFR aircraft loses comms in IMC, what should they do upon reaching the clearance limit?
If given an EFC, leave the clearance limit at the EFC.
If not given an EFC, begin the approach from an IAF at the aircraft’s ETA.
What are the oxygen requirements for flights above 12,500 - 14,000ft?
Pilots need oxygen if the flight will remain above 12,500 - 14,000 for more than 30 min.
What are the oxygen requirements for flights above 14,000ft?
Pilots need oxygen for the entire flight.
What are the oxygen requirements for flights above 15,000ft?
Pilots and pax need oxygen for the entire flight
