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Pathology > Block 12 > Flashcards

Block 12 Flashcards

1
Q

Largest internal organ

A

Liver

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2
Q

High LFTs and jaundice ar most commonly seen in which type of viral hepatitis

A

Acute viral hepatitis

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3
Q

LFTs found in hepatocytes

A

ALT and AST

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4
Q

LFTs found in bile duct lining cells

A

ALP and GGT

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5
Q

Best, most specific liver test

A

ALT

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6
Q

Rbc degredation product that is cleared by the liver

A

Bilirubin

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7
Q

Which is more liver specific, ALT or AST

A

ALT

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8
Q

Levels of ALT/AST in viral hepatitis

A

Very high bc of hepatocyte damage

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9
Q

Levels of GGT/ALP/Bilirubin in viral hepatitis

A

Mildly elevated

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10
Q

Levels of GGT/ALP/Bilirubin in pts with gallstones

A

Very high

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11
Q

Levels of ALT/AST in pts with gallstones

A

Mildly elevated

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12
Q

3 types of hepatitis that are blood borne

A

B C D

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13
Q

95% of pigs/boars are infected with

A

HEV

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14
Q

Which types of hepatitis are fecal/orally transmitted

A

HAV and HEV

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15
Q

Is there a vaccine for HAV

A

Yes

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16
Q

Most easily transmitted type of hepatitis

A

HBV

- via any body fluid

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17
Q

Coinfects with HBV

A

HDV

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18
Q

Can you vaccinate against HBV and HDV

A

Yes

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19
Q

Worst type of hepatitis

A

HCV

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20
Q

If a patient is infected with HBV, what will show up

A

HBsAg and Anti-HBcAg (core)

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21
Q

If a patient is in recovery of HBV, what will show up

A

Anti-HBsAg (anti surface) and Anti-HBcAg (core)

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22
Q

If a patient is immunized for HBV, what will show up

A

Anti-HBsAg (antisurface)

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23
Q

Number one cause of chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis and liver cancer

A

HCV

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24
Q

Which type of hepatitis cannot be prevented with vaccine

A

HCV and HEV

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25
Q

Haptocellular Carcinoma (HCC) is related to which types of hepatitis

A

HBV globally and HCV US

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26
Q

Occurs at the end of chronic liver disease

A

Cirrhosis

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27
Q

Jaundice is first seen where

A

Eye

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28
Q

What give urine a yellow color and feces a brown color

A

Urobilinogen

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29
Q

Deals with a copper transportation problem

A

Wilson’s disease

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30
Q

New onset neuropsychiatric manifestations can be related to

A

Wilson’s disease

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31
Q

Ocular manifestations in Wilson’s disease

A

Kaiser-fleischer ring

Sunflower cataracts

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32
Q

Where/what is the Kaiser-fleischer ring

A

Copper in Descemet’s membrane

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33
Q

Where/what is sunflower cataract

A

Copper in ant and post capsule of the lens

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34
Q

What percent of patients with neurological Wilson’s disease will have kayser fleischer rings

A

Almost all

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35
Q

What percent of patients with hepatic Wilson’s disease will have kayser fleischer rings

A

50%

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36
Q

2 ways to treat Wilson’s disease

A
  • Chelating agents

- Blocking intestinal copper absorption with zinc salts

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37
Q

Example of a chelating agent to lower copper levels

A

Penicillamine

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38
Q

Example of a zinc salt used in treatment of Wilson’s disease

A

Zinc acetate

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39
Q

Iron overload

A

Hemochromatosis

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40
Q

What is hemochromatosis sometimes confused with

A

Polycythemia Vera (PCV)

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41
Q

Common sign of hemochromatosis

A

Bronzed skin hyperpigmentation

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42
Q

Lab results in hemochromatosis

A

High serum iron and ferritin

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43
Q

What is cholelithiasis

A

Gall stones

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44
Q

What is cholecystitis

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder

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45
Q

Where is pain in cholecystitis

A

right upper quadrant

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46
Q

Pain is worsened by what in cholecystitis

A

Fatty foots

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47
Q

Pain and belching after fatty meal

A

Cholecystitis

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48
Q

Lab results for cholecystitis

A

Bilirubin/GGT/ALP are very high

AST/ALT are mildly elevated

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49
Q

Pancreatitis will spill what into the blood

A

Amylase and lipases

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50
Q

Commonly occurs secondary to alcohol abuse or gallstones

A

Pancreatitis

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51
Q

What is the 20% viral hepatitis rule of thumb

A

20% of chronic hepatitis progress to cirrhosis

20% of cirrhosis progresses to hepatocarcinoma

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52
Q

HBV carriers do not develop

A

Anti-HBsAg

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53
Q

Sever, liver destructive hepatitis caused by HBV

A

Fulminant hepatitis

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54
Q

Is it hard to treat HCV

A

No, but if not treated there is a 99% chance you will be a carrier

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55
Q

Which is more likely to be cured, HBV or HCV

A

HCV (90-98% cured, while only about 25% of HBV are cured)

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56
Q

Most likely complication of pancreatitis

A

Pancreatic cancer

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57
Q

Copper transport protein that may be low in Wilson’s disease

A

Ceruloplasmin

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58
Q

Levels in Wilson’s disease

A

Serum ceruloplasmin - low

Serum free copper - high

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59
Q

What causes PCV

A

RBC overproduction

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60
Q

No urine production

A

Anuria

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61
Q

Painful urination

A

Dysuria

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62
Q

Amount of plasm filtered per unit of time

A

GFR

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63
Q

Toxic waste in the blood

A

Uremia

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64
Q

How many nephrons in each kidney

A

1 million

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65
Q

How much urine is produced per minute

A

1.2 mL

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66
Q

How much urine is produced per day?

A

1-2 L

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67
Q

Function of the glomerulus

A

Filters

- produces cell/protein free ultrafiltrate

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68
Q

The 3 segments of the tubule in the nephron

A

Proximal to loop to distal

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69
Q

The tubule absorbs

A

H20, Na and glucose

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70
Q

The tubule secretes

A

K, H, HCO3

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71
Q

What do the collecting ducts do

A

Concentrate the urine under control of ADH

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72
Q

How does the kidney maintain the acid/base balance

A

HCO3- Can be regenerated/conserved

H+ is secreted

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73
Q

The kidney regulates what 3 things

A

BP
RBC production (erythropoietin)
Calcium/phosphorus metabolism (vitD)

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74
Q

When do signs and symptoms first appear in kidney failure

A

After 75% of the nephrons fail

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75
Q

The GFR reflects what of the kidney

A

Kidney function

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76
Q

2 main uremia indicators

A

Creatinine and BUN

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77
Q

Urine in the blood

A

Uremia (renal impairment)

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78
Q

When the kidney function is lost, what happens to the blood levels of creatinine and BUN

A

Both increase

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79
Q

Rule of thumb for renal function

A

100/serum creatinine = renal function

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80
Q

How are BUN and creatinine levels typically related

A

Creatinine X 10 = BUN

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81
Q

Most common test for evaluating renal function

A

Serum creatinine blood test

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82
Q

The gold standard for determining GFR

A

Inulin Clearance

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83
Q

Most common GFR measure

A

Creatinine clearance

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84
Q

What will be present when you have a UTI

A

Leukocyte esterase
Protein
Blood
Nitrite

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85
Q

Significance of bilirubin in urine

A

Indicates liver problems

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86
Q

Starvation indicator

- may be present if person is on a low carb diet

A

Ketones

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87
Q

Earliest indicator of kidney damage in diabetes

A

Microalbuminuria

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88
Q

What closely reflects GFR

A

Creatinine

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89
Q

Often overestimates renal function

A

Creatinine

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90
Q

Are creatinine levels impacted by diet

A

No

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91
Q

What is creatinine concentration proportional to

A

Muscle mass

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92
Q

Often underestimates renal function

A

BUN

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93
Q

Are BUN levels impacted by diet

A

Yes

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94
Q

Normal creatinine clearance

A

115-125 mL/min

- think of CL as a percentage

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95
Q

2 types of cystic disorders

A

Adult polycystic disease

Child polycystic disease

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96
Q

When are symptoms of adult polycystic disease produces

A

4th decade

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97
Q

Where are the cysts formed in adult polycystic disease

A

Liver or pancreas

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98
Q

Most common cause of upper urinary tract obstruction

A

Kidney stones (nephrolithiasis)

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99
Q

3 types of kidney stones

A

Calcium (calcium oxalate)
Magnesium ammonium phosphate
Amino acids

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100
Q

Signs/symptoms of kidney stones

A

Dull, deep, achy pain in back
Or
Severe flank pain

Clammy skin, nausea, heamturia

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101
Q

Second most common type of bacterial infection (behind respiratory tract)

A

UTI

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102
Q

1 cause of UTI

A

E. coli

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103
Q

Type of bacteria: E. coli

A

Gram - rod

Lactose ferminter

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104
Q

Type of UTI: lower abdominal or back discomfort; burning and pain when urinating

A

Lower UTI

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105
Q

If lower UTI is not treated, what will form

A

Upper UTI

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106
Q

Type of UTI: shaking chills, moderate to high fever, look and feel sick

A

Upper UTI

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107
Q

How to diagnose a UTI

A

Urinalysis

- leukocyte esterase, nitrites, blood and protein

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108
Q

If someone with a UTI has WBC casts, what type if UTI do they have

A

Upper UTI

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109
Q

Caused by diseases that produce proliferative inflammatory responses that allow loss of BLOOD into urine

A

Nephritic syndromes

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110
Q

Caused by disorders that increase the permeability of the glomerular capillary membrane, causing massive loss of PROTEIN in the urine

A

Nephrotic syndrome

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111
Q

Leading cause of chronic renal failure in the US

A

Glomerulonephritis

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112
Q

Characteristics include RBC casts, low GFR and oliguria

A

Glomerulonephritis

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113
Q

What will be in the urine in pts with nephritic syndrome

A

RBCs and RBC casts

Limited proteinuria

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114
Q

Most common form of acute glomerulonephritis

A

Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

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115
Q

When do symptoms usually begin with acute glomerulonephritis

A

1-3 weeks after infection (usually upper respiratory tract infection or pharyngitis)

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116
Q

Signs and symptoms of acute glomerulonephritis

A

Proteinuria (limited)
Heamturia (cola colored urine)
Hypertension
Edema

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117
Q

What percentage of children recover completely from acute glomerulonephritis

A

95%

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118
Q

What percentage of adults recover completely from acute glomerulonephritis

A

60%

- the rest have permanent kidney damage

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119
Q

Disorder that leaks large amounts of protein

A

Nephrotic syndrome

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120
Q

What are levels of certain substances in nephrotic syndrome

A 
Massive proteinuria
Hypoalbuminemia
Hypogammagloulinemia
Hypercoagulable (loss of AT3, so high risk of throwing a clot)
Hyperlipidemia
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121
Q

Diabetic glomerulosclerosis is also known as

A

Diabetic nephropathy

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122
Q

Nephropathy affects how many t1d patients

A

30%

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123
Q

What is an important predictor of future diabetic nephropathies

A

Microalbuminuria

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124
Q

What is pyelonephritis

A

Inflammation of kidney

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125
Q

Acute pyelonephritis is caused by

A

UTIs with gram - rods

- #1 cause is E. Coli

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126
Q

If pt has WBC casts

A

Pyelonephritis

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127
Q

If pt has RBC casts

A

Glomerulonephritis

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128
Q

What can drugs and toxic substances do to the kidneys

A

Obstruct urine flow

Produce hypersensitivity reactions

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129
Q

3 causes of acute renal failure

A
  • dec blood to the kidney (prerenal)
  • disrupt the structures in the kidney (intrarenal)
  • interfere with elimination of urine (postrenal)
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130
Q

What is a very common nephrotoxic drug

A

Aminoclycosides (gentamicin)

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131
Q

Number 1 cause of chronic renal failure

A

Diabetes

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132
Q

4 stages of chronic renal failure in order

A

Diminished renal reserve
Renal insufficiency
Renal failure
End stage renal disease

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133
Q

GFR is reduced to what in renal insufficiency

A

20-50% of normal

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134
Q

GFR is reduced to what in renal failure

A

5-15% of normal

135
Q

GFR is reduced to what in end stage renal disease

A

<5% of normal

136
Q

When do uremia, anemia and HTN begin to appear in chronic renal failure

A

Renal insufficiency

137
Q

Most common type of kidney stone

A

Calcium oxalate

138
Q

Earliest indicator of kidney damage in diabetes

A

Microalbuminuria

139
Q

Leading cause of fetal complications

A

Preeclampsia

140
Q

Leading cause of maternal mortality in the 1st trimester

A

Ectopic pregnancy

141
Q

2nd leading cause of maternal death

A

Eclampsia

142
Q

Characterized as a pregnant woman with HTN and protein in the urine

A

Preeclampsia

143
Q

Characterized by a pregnant woman with HTN, protein in the urine and having seizures

A

Eclampsia

144
Q

What must the pregnant pts blood pressure be to be considered high

A

140/90 or higher

145
Q

An pregnancy when the fertilized ovum implants outside of the intrauterine cavity

A

Ectopic pregnancy

146
Q

Where does implantation normally occur with ectopic pregnancies

A

95% int he Fallopian tubes

147
Q

How often should beta-hCG double during a normal pregnancy

A

Every 2 days

148
Q

What does a lack of doubling of beta-hCG during pregnancy mean

A

It is an abnormal pregnancy

149
Q

An intrauterine gestational sac should be visible via TRANSVAGINA ultrasound when beta-hCG goes above what concentration

A

> 1,500

150
Q

An intrauterine gestational sac should be visible via ABDOMINAL ultrasound when beta-hCG goes above what concentration

A

> 6,500

151
Q

Most common risk factor for ectopic pregnancy

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease

152
Q

What is gestational diabetes

A

HTN during pregnancy

- high blood sugar affects pregnancy and the baby’s health

153
Q

4 complications to the baby in regards to gestational diabetes

A
  • increased size/birthweight (can wedge in birth canal and cause injuries or require C section)
  • early birth because of respiratory distress syndrome
  • low blood sugar because insulin production is high (can provoke seizures)
  • T2D later in life
154
Q

2 risks of gestational diabetes to the mother

A
  • HTN + preeclampsia

- future T2D

155
Q

How does BPH cause problems

A

Bigger prostate with pinch the urethra and the bladder wall will thicken
Bladder weakens and cannot empty as well —> leads to increase in urination frequency (>8 x a day) and incontinence

156
Q

Blood tests used to screen for BPH

A

-PSA blood test
-creatinine
-BUN
-HGB
(Also a urinalysis)

157
Q

6 complications of BPH

A
  • acute or chronic urinary retention
  • blood in urine
  • UTIs
  • bladder damage
  • kidney damage
  • bladder stones
158
Q

2 CNs in the pupillary light reflex

A

In on 2

Out on 3

159
Q

What is the pathway in the pupillary light reflex

A
  • Shining light into 1 eye activates the sensory arc through optic tracts bilaterally to pretectal nucleus
  • each pretectal nucleus sens bilateral projects to left and right EW nucleus
  • parasym in left and right ciliary ganglion activate constrictor in both eyes
160
Q

If there is a lesion to the right optic nerve, what will the deficit with pupil testing

A

When the light is shined into left eye, there will be a consensual response in the right

When the light is shined into the right eye, there will be no response in either eye

**sensory arc is damaged so neither eye will react when shined into the ipsilateral eye

161
Q

If there is a lesion to the right optic tract, what will the deficit with pupil testing

A

There will still be a normal direct and consensual response because you haven’t completely knocked out the sensory arc

162
Q

If there is a lesion to the right oculomotor nerve (CN3), what will the deficit with pupil testing

A

It is now a motor issue, so the right eye will never constrict (in direct or consensual), however, it does sense the light, so the left will consensually response when shined into the affected eye

163
Q

Abnormally asymmetrically sized pupils

A

Anisocoria

164
Q

What can opiate drugs do to they eye

A

Directly inhibiting the dilator muscle —> pinpoint pupils bilaterally

165
Q

What is a Marcus-Gunn pupil

A
  • afferent pupillary defect (APD)
  • Impaired sensory arc
  • ipsilateral impairment of both direct and consensual (when shined on affected side, neither eye dilates, but when shined on unaffected side, both eyes constrict)
166
Q

Where is damage if a pt has an APD (Marcus-Gunn pupil)

A

ON or retina

167
Q

Impaired constriction to light and accommodation

A

Acute adie’s pupil

168
Q

Due to partial degeneration of ciliary ganglion or post-gang parasym fibers, possibly due to inflammatory damage

A

Acute adies pupil

169
Q

Impaired constriction to light, but still constricts with accommodation

A

Chronic adie’s pupil

170
Q

Involved ectopic reinnervation of iris by parasym projections that normal target the ciliary body

A

Chronic adie’s pupil

171
Q

Impairment in light reflex but with preserved accommodation response is known as

A

Light-near dissociation

172
Q

Conditions where light-near dissociation occurs

A
  • Adie’s pupil
  • neurosyphillis, accompanied by irregular shaped pupils (argyll-Robertson pupil)
  • some diabetics
  • parinaud’s syndrome
173
Q

Damage to any part of the motor pathway involved in pupillary dilation will result in

A

Horner’s syndrome

174
Q

How to test for horner’s syndrome

A

Local application of cocaine drops

- dilate the intact side, but fail to dilate the ipsilateral/affected side bc no NE is being released

175
Q

2 major lesion sites that may cause horner’s syndrome

A
  • Lateral pons infarct

- lateral medulla infarct

176
Q

Ischemia of the anterior ON (part in the orbit)

A

Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (AION)

177
Q

A common cause of sudden vision loss

A

AION

178
Q

Does a pt have pain in AION

A

No

179
Q

What will be seen on an ophthalmic exam in a pt with AION

A

Small C/D ration

180
Q

A common precursor to MS

A

Optic neuritis

181
Q

Inflammatory de-myelination of ON

A

Optic neuritis

182
Q

3 possible etiological of Optic neuritis

A
  • Inflammatory process from viral infection
  • pro-inflammatory chemical exposure
  • vit B12 deficiency
183
Q

Presentation of Optic neuritis

A

Monocular vision loss with eye pain

184
Q

Visual loss in Optic neuritis

A

Central scotoma, reduced acutiy, impaired color detection

185
Q

What will be seen in ophthalmic exam of a pt with Optic neuritis

A

Swollen and inflamed
OR
Normal

APD

186
Q

EEG recording in a pt with Optic neuritis

A

Long latency with normal amplitude because of the demyelination

187
Q

Temporal profile of Optic neuritis

A
  • variable onset (age 30-45)
  • acute, subacute, chronic
  • duration <2wks with partial/full recovery (may take 6 weeks to months)
  • 1/3 of pts have more than 1 recurrence
188
Q

Reasons to suspect a differential diagnosis from Optic neuritis

A
  • over 45
  • no pain
  • bilateral vision loss
  • 1st episode lasting >2 weeks
189
Q

Tx of Optic neuritis

A

Glucocorticoids

190
Q

Autoimmune de-myelinating disorder of the CNS

A

MS

191
Q

Autoimmune attack against oligodendrocytes by T-lymphocytes

A

MS

192
Q

Presentation of MS

A
  • multi focal

- 2+ attached separated in time (>1 month apart)

193
Q

Epidemiology of MS

A
  • 20-40 yo
  • females
  • Caucasian’s in higher latitude regions
194
Q

Diagnostic criteria and confirmation of MS

A
  • MRI with contrast showing 2+ white matter plaques (fingers extending from periventricular zones)
  • CSF analysis: oligoclonal bands (have elevated lymphocytes and high levels of IgG)
195
Q

Why is there oculomotor deficits seen in pts with MS

A

Lesion of MLF

  • MR of ipsilateral eye doesn’t work
  • nystagmus on contralateral side with LR is used
196
Q

Short term treatment of MS

A

Glucocorticoids

197
Q

Long term treatment of MS

A

Selective immunodulatory agents

  • 1st line: interferons
  • 2nd line: monoclonal Abs or chemotherapeutics
198
Q

Factors that can trigger or intensify an attack in MS

A
  • infection
  • heat
  • dehydration
  • sleep deprivation
199
Q

De-myelination of ON and spinal cord

A

Neuromyelitis optica (NMO)

200
Q

Presentation of NMO

A

Bilateral vision loss, level down sensory and motor deficits

201
Q

Auto-immune attach involving Abs to aquaporin-4

A

NMO

202
Q

Viral infection of oligodendrocytes

- rarely symptomatic, but can lead to this

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

203
Q

Temporal profile of Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

A
  • subacute and progressive
  • can be fatal
  • visual deficits, aphasia, unilateral weakness
  • can lead to dementia
  • no pain
204
Q

Myelination formation is impaired or the myelin is structurally and functionally defective

A

Leukodystrophies

205
Q

Inflammatory de-myelination of CNS, often with gray matter damage and usually happens after an infection or vaccination

A

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM)

206
Q

ADEM can mimic what

A

Stroke or MS

207
Q

Temporal profile for ADEM

A
  • acute to subacute onset of chief complaint (similar to stroke)
208
Q

Tx of ADEM

A

Glucocorticoids

209
Q

Do most patients recover from ADEM

A

Yes

210
Q

HA that is of urgent/emergency likely

A

Acute onset

211
Q

Are subacute onset HA emergent

A

No

212
Q

3 common forms of chronic onset HA

A

Tension
Cluster
Migraine

213
Q

If a tension HA persists it can become

A

Chronic and stable

214
Q

Pattern of a migraine

A

Irregular with variable remission periods

215
Q

Pattern of cluster HA

A

Several daily bouts with long remission periods

216
Q

Patter of brain tumors

A

Chronic/insidious onset with steady progression

- can be asymptomatic until reaching threshold

217
Q

Pain in cluster headaches

A

Unilateral

218
Q

Ocular or retro-orbital HA are suggestive of

A

Ocular or nuerophthalmic causes

219
Q

A focal HA can gisngal

A

Intracranial mass

220
Q

Distribution of a tension HA

A

Band like or diffuse (bilateral)

221
Q

Brain regions that tension HA are usually located

A

Frontal or occipital

222
Q

Localization of cluster HA

A

Peri-orbital region

223
Q

Localization of migraine HA

A

Hemi-cranial

224
Q

More common, primary or secondary tumors

A

Secondary

225
Q

Primary tumors come from

A

Glia, meninges, pituitary

226
Q

Secondary tumors come from

A

Lung, breast, melanoma, prostate

227
Q

Do post-natal CNS neurons go through mitosis

A

No

228
Q

Tumors develop from cells that what

A

Undergo mitosis

229
Q

Tumor type from pre natal neural stem cells

A

Neuroblastoma

230
Q

Tumor type from developing cerebellum

A

Medulloblastoma

231
Q

Tumor type from cerebral white matter

A

Oligodendroglioma

232
Q

Tumor type from astrocytes

A

Astrocytoma or glioblastoma

233
Q

Tumor type from ependymal cells

A

Ependymomas

234
Q

Abs generated agains nicotinic ACh receptor

A

MG

235
Q

What muscles are typically weak in MG

A

EOMs and levator palpebra

- diplopia and ptosis

236
Q

Ab-mediated autoimmune attack against Ca channels coupled to ACh

A

Lambert-Easton syndome

237
Q

Are AChase Inhibitors useful in MG

A

Yes

238
Q

Are AChase Inhibitors useful in lamber-Eaton syndrome

A

No, bc the problem is ACh release

239
Q

Mutation in duchesse muscular dystrophy

A

Dystrophin

240
Q

What muscles are most affected in duchesse muscular dystrophy

A

Proximal limb muscles

241
Q

Period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood and abnormally and perisistely increased activity or energy

A

Bipolar disorder

242
Q

Pts must have 3+ of the following 7 symptoms during their mood disturbance

A
  • inflated self esteem
  • decreased need for sleep
  • more talkative
  • racing thoughts
  • distractibility
  • increase in goal-directed activity
  • excessive involvement in activities with a potential for painful consequences
243
Q

Main treatment for bipolar disorder

A

Lithium

244
Q

An alternative treatment for bipolar disorder

A

Anti-psychotics or anti-depressants

245
Q

Weight for height index used to classify weight status

A

BMI

246
Q

What amounts of adults are overweight/obese

A

2/3

247
Q

What amount of adults are obese

A

1/3

248
Q

What amount of adults are extremely obese

A

1/20

249
Q

What amount of children are overweight or obese

A

1/3

250
Q

BMI range for healthy

A

18.5 -24.9

251
Q

BMI range for obese

A

30-39.9

252
Q

BMI range of overweight

A

25-29.9

253
Q

BMI of extremely obese

A

> /= 40

254
Q

2 Top health risks that are greatly increased by obesity

A

Diabetes
Gall bladder disease

(And Dyslipidemia)

255
Q

Top health risk that is moderately increased by obesity

A

Coronary heart disease

256
Q

Why are monounsaturated fats considered more healthy than polyunsaturated fats

A

Because they have a higher HDL value

Both have low chol and low LDL, but polyunsaturated has low HDL and monounsaturated has high HDL

257
Q

Loss of control over eating and eating large amounts of food discreetly at least 1x a week

A

Binge eating

258
Q

Diagnostic criteria for anorexia

A
  • significantly low body weight
  • intense fear of gaining weigh or becoming fat
  • amenorrhea (a sense of menstration)
  • bad self perception
259
Q

Type of anorexia: starving

A

Restricting

260
Q

Type of anorexia: blends with bulimia

A

Purging

261
Q

Personality traits that contribute to anorexia

A
  • extreme perfectionist
  • OCD
  • low self esteem
  • high achiever
  • anxiety
  • depression
  • cognitive impairment
262
Q

2 major complications of anorexia

A

Bradycardia and cardiac dysrhythmias

263
Q

Female athlete triad

A

Eating disorder
Amenstrual
Osteoporosis

264
Q

Diagnostic criteria of bulimia

A
  • recurrent episodes of bing eating (lack of control)

- recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors (vomiting, laxative/diuretic abuse, fasting or excessive exercise)

265
Q

Type of bulimia: vomiting and misuse of laxatives/diuretics

A

Purging

266
Q

2 major complications from vomiting-related bulimia

A
  • Low of enamel and dentin

- fluid and electrolyte disorders

267
Q

Which eating disorder is most likely associated with a Mallory-Weiss tear

A

Bulimia

268
Q

Which eating disorder has the highest mortality rate

A

Anorexia nervosa

269
Q

Inadequate intake of both protein and calories

A

Marasmus

270
Q

Dietary deficiency of protein only

A

Kwashiokor

271
Q

Age of onset of kwashiorkor

A

Pre school (1-5 yo)

272
Q

Age of onset of marasmus

A

Weaned infants (<1 yo)

273
Q

What is ascites

A

Abdominal swelling

274
Q

Which malnutrition disorder will have ascites

A

Kwashiorkor

275
Q

What type of genetic disorder is: marfans

A

Autosomal dominant

276
Q

What type of genetic disorder is: neurofibromatosis

A

Autosomal dominant

277
Q

What type of genetic disorder is: familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

A

Autosomal dominant

278
Q

What type of genetic disorder is: hemophilia a

A

Mothers are carriers and pass to their son

279
Q

What is CHRPE

A

Congenital hypertrophy of theretinal pigment epithelium

280
Q

What are bear tracks

A

Multiple areas of grouped retinal pigment epithelium hypertrophy

281
Q

Ocular hallmark of familial adednomatous polyposis (FAP)

A

4+ bear tracks in multiple areas

282
Q

What mutation causes bear tracks to be autosomal dominant and not recessive

A

Mutation of APC hydroxylase gene

283
Q

Inheritance of a single mutation results in a given condition

A

Autosomal dominant

284
Q

Inheritance of 2 mutations results in a given condition

A

Autosomal recessive

285
Q

Inheritance limited to the inheritance of the affected X chromosome

A

X linked (sex linked)

286
Q

Disorders often involve structural proteins and usually appears later in life

A

Autosomal dominant disorders

287
Q

Chance of inheritance of autosomal dominant disorders

A

50%

288
Q

Chance of inheritance of autosomal recessive

A

25%

289
Q

Autosomal recessive disorders often involve disorders of

A

Enzymes

290
Q

What mutation causes bear tracks to be autosomal recessive and not dominant

A

MYH glycosylase gene

291
Q

Are females usually affected by x linked disorders

A

No

292
Q

Color blind and hemophilia a are examples of

A

X linked disorders

293
Q

Factor 8 clotting factor deficiency

A

Hemophilia a

294
Q

Monosomy

A

A missing chromosome

295
Q

Trisomy

A

An extra chromosome

296
Q

Triploidy

A

And extra copy of all chromosomes

297
Q

Chromosomes break and swap pieces

A

Translocations

298
Q

Loss of genetic material

A

Deletions

299
Q

Chromosome breaks and piece reattached in opposite orientation

A

Inversions

300
Q

Agents associated with causing abnormalities during embryonic/fetal development (harmful to fetus)

A

Teratogens

301
Q

Period of embryonic development when teratogens are most likely to cause major congenital anomalies

A

1st trimester

302
Q

What is karnofsky’s law

A

Anything at the right time of pregnancy, at the right dosage, in the right species can be teratogenic

303
Q

Maternal infections that can be teratogenic (TORCH)

A 
Toxoplasmosis
Other
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes
304
Q

Primary risk of a deficiency of folic acid during pregnancy

A

Teratogenicity
- neural tube defects

(Affect both mom and fetus)

305
Q
  • uses fluid
  • performed after 1st trimester
  • less invasive than CVS
A

Amniocentesis

306
Q
  • uses tissues
  • performed during first trimester
  • invasive
A

Chorionic villi sampling (CVS)

307
Q

Characterized by disfiguring neurofibromas and 6+ areas of dark pigment

A

Neurofibromatosis 1

308
Q

Criteria of fetal alcohol syndrome

A
  • growth retardation
  • CNS involvement
  • dysmorphic facial features (short palpebral fissures, thin upper lip, elongated and flattened midface)
309
Q

Top 3 methods used for fetal diagnosis

A

Ultrasound
Amniocentesis
CVS

310
Q

Age related hearing loss

A

Presbycusis

311
Q

Most common condition that affects both vision and hearing

A

Usher syndrome

312
Q

Toddlers do this to a line and preschoolers do it to a circle

A

Draw

313
Q

Locomotion of a toddler

A

Walk

314
Q

An eye problem observed in usher’s syndrome

A

Retinitis pigmentosa

315
Q

Out of sight, out of mind observed in infants <9mo

A

Permanence

316
Q

An infant can do this to ID an object of interest

A

Point

317
Q

What sounds are you less able to detect/discriminate when presbycusis

A

Sounds in the higher frequency range

318
Q

The perception of motion caused by a dysfunction of the vestibular system

A

Vertigo

319
Q

Pt feels like the world is spinning

A

Objective vertigo

320
Q

Pt feels that they are moving

A

Subjective vertigo

321
Q

The perception of a sound in your ears in the absence of an externally applied stimulus (ringing in the ear)

A

Tinnitus

322
Q

Is the cause of 10% of hereditary deafness

A

Usher’s syndrome

323
Q

Infection of inflammation of the ear (ear infection)

A

Otitis media

324
Q

Age range: first stand

A

Infant

325
Q

Age range: points to objects

A

Infant

326
Q

Age range: object permanence

A

Infant

327
Q

Age range: take first steps

A

Toddler

328
Q

Age range: kicks ball

A

Toddler

329
Q

Age range: feeds itself

A

Toddler

330
Q

Age range: drive tricycle

A

Preschool

331
Q

Age range: draw stick figures

A

Preschool

332
Q

Age range: have friends and can play with them

A

Preschool

333
Q

Age range: can tell detailed stories (legends)

A

Preschool

Pathology (5 decks)

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