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Key ALS facts > Block 12 > Flashcards

Block 12 Flashcards

1
Q

myotomes + dermatomes arise from

A

somites

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2
Q

myotomes

A

group of skeletal muscles innervated by a single spinal nerve

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3
Q

Ankle strategy produces mostly

A

torque

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4
Q

the ankle strategy is used on

A

surfaces with low resistance to shear forces

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5
Q

which postural strategy shifts COG abt hip joint by flexion/extension?

A

Hip strategy

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6
Q

Postural strategy used when ankle + hip strategies are inadequate

A

Stepping strategy

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7
Q

Which muscle in the posterior compartment of the lower leg is important for proprioception?

A

Plantaris

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8
Q

which position is the talocrural joint most stable in?

A

dorsiflexion - anterior talus in mortise

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9
Q

Osteopathy is based on the principle tht

A

the wellbeing of an individual depends on their bones, muscles, ligaments and connective tissue functioning smoothly together

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10
Q

largest neurons within the body

A

alpha motor neurons (type of LMN)

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11
Q

Increasing plantorflexor activity moves COP

A

anteriorly

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12
Q

Increasing inverter activity moves COP

A

laterally

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13
Q

Medial superior olivary nuclei detects differences in

A

the time tht sounds reach each ears

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14
Q

Lateral superior olivary nuclei detects differences in

A

sound intensity reaching each ear

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15
Q

Area that the optic nerve enters the retina

A

Optic disc

has no light detecting cells

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16
Q

Function of the vitreous humour

A
  • hold the layers of the retina in place
  • support the lens
  • improve vision clarity
  • shock absorption
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17
Q

Fibrous layer of eyeball is made up of:

A
  • cornea

- sclera (85%)

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18
Q

Controls the shape of the lens and contributes to aqueous humour formation

A

Ciliary body

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19
Q

Vascular layer of eyeball is made up of:

A
  • Choroid
  • Ciliary body
  • Iris
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20
Q

Function of fovea centralis

A

high vision acuity

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21
Q

Depression on macula

A

Fovea centralis

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22
Q

Found at centre of retina

A

Macula

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23
Q

3 main layers of the eye

A

Fibrous

  • cornea
  • sclera

Vascular

  • iris
  • ciliary body
  • choroid

Neural
- retina

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24
Q

Conjugate eye movements

A

eyes moves in the same directions

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25
Q

Disconjugate eye movements

A

eyes move in opposite directions

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26
Q

Purpose of meridonial fibres in ciliary body

A

hold lens in place and help it change shape

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27
Q

Structure producing aqueous humour

A

ciliary body

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28
Q

Appearance of lens when object far away

A

ciliary muscles are relaxed allowing lens to flatten + appear elongated

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29
Q

Appearance of lens when object close by

A

ciliary muscles are contracted so lens more rounded

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30
Q

Define cataracts

A

opacification of the lens due to protein deposition + compaction

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31
Q

Extra-axial lesion

A

injury occurring within skull but outside of brain

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32
Q

olfactory nerve is derived from

A

olfactory placode - thickening of ectoderm

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33
Q

passageway in sphenoid bone that allows optic nerve to leave the bony orbit

A

optic foramen

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34
Q

Fibres forming left optic tract

A

fibres from L temporal and R nasal retina

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35
Q

Fibres forming R optic tract

A

fibres from R temporal + L nasal retina

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36
Q

Lateral geniculate nucleus

A

relay system located in thalamus

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37
Q

Clinical features of oculomotor nerve damage

A
  • Ptosis - drooping of upper eyelid
  • Down + out position of eyeball
  • Dilated pupil
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38
Q

The only cranial nerve to exit from posterior midbrain

A

CN IV - trochlear nerve

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39
Q

Largest cranial nerve

A

CN V- Trigeminal

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40
Q

Ganglion

A

collection of the neurone cell bodies outside the central nervous system

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41
Q

Nucleus

A

collection of neurone cell bodies within the central nervous system.

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42
Q

Triad of anaesthesia

A

Analgesia - pain free
Hypnosis - sleep
Areflexia - loss of reflexes

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43
Q

Axillary nerve damage presents w

A
  • inability to abduct shoulder
  • loss of sensation over the deltoid muscle on the upper-arm
    e. g. due to shldr dislocation
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44
Q

3 cords of the brachial plexus are named according to

A

their relationship to the axillary artery

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45
Q

Signs of proximal injury to radial nerve

A
  • inability to extend at the elbow, wrist or fingers
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46
Q

Nerve compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Median nerve

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47
Q

Signs of ulnar nerve damage

A
  • inability to flex the wrist + little+ring fingers
  • atrophy of hypothenar eminence
  • claw hand
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48
Q

Most frequently injured nerve of upper limb

A

ulnar nerve

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49
Q

Name of the muscle that runs between the 2 gemelli muscles

A

obturator internus

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50
Q

Which nerve innervates the gluteus medius + gluteus minimus?

A

Superior gluteal nerve

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51
Q

Which nerve innervates the gluteus maximus?

A

Inferior gluteal nerve

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52
Q

Which nerve innervates the semimembranosus, semitendinosus and long head of the biceps femoris?

A

Tibial division of sciatic nerve

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53
Q

Which muscles make up the hamstrings?

A

Semimembranosus

Semitendinosus

Biceps femoris long head

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54
Q

4 individual muscles that make up the quadriceps femoris

A

Rectus femoris

Vastus medialis

Vastus lateralis

Vastus intermedius

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55
Q

Nerve that innervates the 4 quadriceps muscles

A

femoral nerve

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56
Q

Action of the quadriceps muscles

A

extend the knee joint AND stabilise the patella

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57
Q

Longest muscle in body

A

Sartorius

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58
Q

muscles that make up the rotator cufff

A

Subscapularis - aDDuct & rotates arm medially

Supraspinatus - aBDucts arm before deltoid
Most commonly injured

Infrapinatus - Rotates arm laterally

Teres minor - aDDucts & rotates arm laterally

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59
Q

hemiarthroplasty

A

femoral head replaced with prosthesis

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60
Q

Extracapsular hip fracture

A

can either be trochanteric or subtrochanteric (the lesser trochanter is the dividing line)

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61
Q

Intracapsular hip fracture

A

from edge of femoral head to insertion of the capsule of the hip joint

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62
Q

structures passing through the internal acoustic meatus

A

vestibulocochlear nerve, facial nerve and labyrinthine artery

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63
Q

nerve that innervates the deep flexors of the forearm

A

Anterior interosseous nerve - branch of median nerve

Specifically:
Flexor pollicis longus
Pronator quadratus
The radial half of flexor digitorum profundus (the lateral two out of the four tendons).

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64
Q

ulnar nerve roots

A

C8, T1

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65
Q

Hip adductors are found in

A

medial compartment of thigh:
adductors longus, brevis + magnus
pectineus
gracilis

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66
Q

Most muscles in the medial compartment of the thigh are innervated by

A

obturator nerve

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67
Q

2 nerves supplying the adductor magnus

A

adductor part -> obturator nerve

hamstring part -> tibial division of sciatic nerve

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68
Q

Hip abductors

A

gluteus medius
gluteus minimus
piriformis
tensor fascia latae

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69
Q

Only intracapsular ligament of hip joint

A

ligament of the head of femur

IMPORTANT - artery to femoral head runs in this ligament

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70
Q

Strongest extracapsular ligament of the hip

A

iliofemoral ligament

limits hyperextension +lateral rotation

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71
Q

Sensory innervation by the musculocutaneous nerve is to the

A

lateral half of the anterior forearm, and a small lateral portion of the posterior forearm

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72
Q

Medial rotators of hip

A

anterior fibres of gluteus medius + minimus

tensor fascia latae

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73
Q

Ligaments attaching the spinal cord to the dura

A

Denticulate ligaments

74
Q

Principal nerve supply to flexors of forearm

A

median nerve

75
Q

Principal nerve supply to flexors of forearm

A

median nerve

76
Q

Borders of the antecubital fossa

A

medial border - pronator teres

lateral border - brachioradialis

floor - brachialis

77
Q

Common flexor origin

A

Medial epicondyle - common flexor origin, all flexor muscles of forearm originate here

78
Q

Flexor muscle in forearm absent in 10% of ppl

A

Palmaris longus

79
Q

Muscles in the superficial layer of the anterior forearm (4)

A
  • pronator teres
  • flexor carpi radialis ( inserts on carpals on radial side)
  • palmaris longus
  • flexor carpi ulnaris
80
Q

Only flexor found in the intermediate layer of the anterior compartment of the forearm

A

flexor digitorum superficialis

81
Q

3 muscles found in the deep compartment of the anterior forearm

A

Flexor digitorum profundus

Flexor pollicis longus

Pronator quadratus - pulls radius over ulna

82
Q

2 nerves innervating the flexor digitorum profundus

A

lateral part - median nerve

medial part - ulnar nerve

83
Q

Muscles innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve

A

coracobrachialis

biceps brachii

brachialis

84
Q

Define posture

A

relative position of various parts of the body w respect to one another, the environment and gravity

85
Q

2 key features of postural systems

A
  • automatic

- help stabilise and maintain body position

86
Q

2 goals for postural control depending on circumstances:

A

prepare for a voluntary movement

maintain balance

87
Q

4 descending tracts controlling posture

A

vestibulospinal tract

tectospinal tract

pontine reticulospinal

medullary reticulospinal tract

88
Q

Origin of vestibulospinal tract

A

vestibular nuclei of medulla

89
Q

Sensory input of vestibulospinal tract

A

vestibular labyrinth

90
Q

Ventromedial tract that helps maintain upright posture

A

vestibulospinal tract

91
Q

Origin of tectospinal tract

A

superior colliculi

92
Q

Sensory input to tectospinal tract

93
Q

Function of tectospinal tract

A

directs head + eyes to move to a particular location in space AND controls posture of head+neck

94
Q

Function of pontine reticulospinal tract

A
  • enhances antigravity reflexes

- maintains standing posture against gravity

95
Q

Function of medullary reticulospinal tract

A

liberates antigravity muscles

96
Q

Features of decerebrate rigidity

A

plantarflexion

extension at knee

flexion of fingers

pronation

extension at elbow

adduction of arms

97
Q

What is decerebrate rigidity/response?

A

cerebral cortex damaged due to disease or injury can’t send normal tonic inhibition to brainstem ⇒ disinhibition of brainstem significant extensor tone e.g. cerebral malaria

98
Q

3 structures making up the outer ear:

A

Pinna/auricle

External acoustic meatus

Tympanic membrane

99
Q

Functions of pinna

A

funnels sound into ear canal

aids in vertical localisation of sound

filters sounds - preferentially selects sound in freq. range of human speech

100
Q

Function of earwax/cerumen

A

sticks to dust + particles prevents them entering inner ear

101
Q

Functions of external acoustic meatus

A

focuses sound energy onto the eardrum

amplifies sound

102
Q

Collagenous membrane separating the outer ear from the middle ear

A

Tympanic membrane

103
Q

Ossicle firmly attached to medial tympanic surface

104
Q

Most depressed part of the tympanic membrane concavity

105
Q

Function of tympanic membrane

A
  • vibrates in resp. to sound pressure waves

- helps transmit sound energy from ear canal to middle ear bones

106
Q

3 bones of middle ear

A

malleus
stapes
incus

107
Q

Function of middle ear

A

converts kinetic energy of tympanic membrane to hydraulic energy in inner ear via oscillations of the ossicles

108
Q

How does the stapes help amplify sound?

A

footplate of stapes 17x smaller than that of eardrum, sound vibrations concentrated onto much smaller area, pressure gain of 20 or more

109
Q

Function of eustachian tube

A

connects middle ear cavity to nasopharyx

110
Q

Function of eustachian tube

A
  • allows pressure equalisation btwn. middle ear + external ear
  • prevents damage to tympanic membrane due to lrge external pressure changes
111
Q

2 main middle ear muscles

A

Tensor tympani - attaches to malleus

Stapedius - attaches to stapes

112
Q

How can middle ear muscles dampen sound reaching the inner ear?

A

contract - reduce ability of ossicles to vibrate

113
Q

Middle ear muscles contract in response to:

A

high intensity sounds OR when speaking

114
Q

Branches of facial nerve entering the middle ear cavity

A

stapedial nerve - innervates stapedius muscle

chorda tympani - taste sensation to anterior 2/3 of tongue

115
Q

Innervation to tensor tympani

A

mandibular part of the trigeminal nerve

116
Q

Membranous labyrinth is filled with

A

Endolymph - fluid w a high potassium concentration

117
Q

2 main parts of labyrinth

A

Vesitbular system

Cochlea

118
Q

Location of labyrinth

A

deep within petrous part of temporal bone

119
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

disorder/damage to the tympanic membrane and/or middle ear ossicles

120
Q

Examples of causes of sensorineural hearing loss

A

infection

exposure to loud noises

tumours

ototoxic drugs -> aminoglycosides

121
Q

Scala media

A

cochlear duct filled w endolymph

122
Q

3 sections of the cochlea

A

scala media
scala vestibuli
scala tympani

123
Q

Separates scala vestibuli from scala media

A

Reissner’s membrane

124
Q

Separates scala media + scala tympani

A

Basilar membrane

125
Q

Organ of corti

A

sensory epithelium on basilar membrane

126
Q

Function of Otolith organs

A

detect force of gravity + tilts of the head e.g. linear acceleration

127
Q

Function of Semicircular canals

A

sensitive to head rotation e.g. rotational motion AND angular acceleration

128
Q

Superficial muscles of thenar eminence

A

Opposens pollicis
Abductor pollicis brevis
Flexor pollicis brevis

129
Q

Superficial muscles of thenar eminence are innervated by

A

median nerve

130
Q

Deep muscle of thenar eminence

A

Adductor pollicis

131
Q

Nerve innervating the adductor pollicis

A

ulnar nerve

132
Q

Frozen shoulder

A

inflamed shoulder capsule

133
Q

Clinical signs of frozen shoulder

A

reduced range of both active and passive movement due to pain

pain on palpation of shoulder

134
Q

Joint aspiration in gout would show

A

monosodium urate crystals

135
Q

Commonly affected joints in Gout

A

big toe joint
ankle
wrist
knee

136
Q

Crystals found in Pseudogout

A

calcium pyrophosphate crystals

137
Q

Structures running in the spiral groove of the humerus

A
  • radial nerve

- profunda brachii artery

138
Q

MoA of Pilocarpine

A

muscarinic receptor agonist

promotes pupil constriction

139
Q

Signs of LMN disease

A

decreased tone

decreased reflexes

fasiculations

140
Q

which gland does the facial nerve run through?

141
Q

Wallerian degeneration

A

axonal degeneration distal to the site of injury

Typically begins 24-36 hours following injury

142
Q

Artery supplying dura mater that runs foramen spinosum

A

middle meningeal artery

143
Q

Muscles inserting on greater trochanter

A 
POGO:
Piriformis
Obturator internus
Gemelli
Obturator externus
144
Q

Damage to the superior gluteal nerve will cause

A

Trendelenburg gait

paralysis of gluteus medius + minimus

145
Q

Cutaneous innervation to the lateral foot

A

Sural nerve

146
Q

Innervation to the medial aspect of the leg

A

Saphenous nerve which arises from femoral nerve

147
Q

Structure attaching periosteum to bone

A

Sharpey’s fibres

148
Q

the subclavian vein lies behind…

A

the medial part of the clavicle

149
Q

Longest strap muscle in the body

150
Q

Which structure separates the ulnar artery from the median nerve?

A

Pronator teres

151
Q

ACL receives blood supply:

A

middle genicular artery

152
Q

Innervation to the short head of the biceps femoris

A

common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve

153
Q

What type of joint is the wrist joint?

A

synovial condyloid joint

154
Q

Most common type of glaucoma

A

Primary open-angle glaucoma

155
Q

Why do symptoms in open-angle glaucoma appear overtime?

A

because the trabecular meshwork draining system gets clogged slowly time

==> SLOW increase in intraocular P

==> slow damage to optic nerve

(outer rim of nerve damaged first -> loss of peripheral vision, then as it progressively gets worse loss of central vision)

156
Q

Type of glaucoma where you get sudden build up of pressure due to reduced aqueous humour

A

CLOSED-ANGLE GLAUCOMA

157
Q

functions of CSF

A

protection - cushions brain

buyonancy - reduces net weight of brain; prevents XS pressure on base of brain

chemical stability

158
Q

cells lining ventricles

A

Ependymal cells

159
Q

How many ventricles are there in total?

A

FOUR:
R+L lateral ventricles

3rd ventricle

4th ventricle

160
Q

Which ventricles have horns that project into the frontal, temporal + occipital lobes?

A

R+L lateral ventricles

161
Q

Foramen/structure that connects lateral ventricles to 3rd ventricle

A

INTERVENTRICULAR FORAMEN

Foramen of Monro

162
Q

Ventricles surrounded by the R+L thalamus

A

THIRD VENTRICLE

163
Q

Connects the 3rd + 4th ventricles

A

CEREBRAL Aqueduct

164
Q

Structure that sits below supraoptic recess

A

optic chiasm

165
Q

Structure that sits below the infundibular recess

A

optic stalk

166
Q

Relates to CSF absorption

What happens at the subarachnoid cisterns?

A

CSF bathes brain btwn arachnoid + pia mater

CSF REABSORBED HERE!

167
Q

Which structure allows CSF fluid to drain into the dural venous sinuses?

A

Arachnoid granulations which project into the dura mater

168
Q

How is CSF produced?

A

choroid plexus surrounded by cuboidal epithelial cells which filter plasma out of the blood to make CSF

169
Q

Where does the trochlear nerve emerge from?

A

POSTERIOR SURFACE of brainstem

emerges inferior to the inferior colliculus

170
Q

Structures making up the bony labyrinth

A
  • cochlea
  • vestibule
  • 3 semicircular canals
171
Q

Structures making up the membranous labyrinth

A
  • cochlear ducts
  • semicircular ducts
  • utricle
  • saccule
172
Q

Central part of bony labyrinth

173
Q

structure separating the vestibule from the middle ear

A

OVAL WINDOW

174
Q

The utricle and saccule are located within

A

the VESTIBULE - central part of bony labyrinth

175
Q

Modiolus

A

bony column that the cochlea twists around

176
Q

What is contained within the semicircular canals?

A

semi-circular ducts

177
Q

Effect of excessively loud noise on hair cells of organ corti

A

can damage them => Sensorineural hearing loss

178
Q

Structure that holds cochlear duct in place

A

SPIRAL LAMINA

179
Q

the joints between ossicles are

180
Q

Common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhages

A

BERRY ANEURYSM - aneurysm tht often occurs in Circle of Willis region

181
Q

Nucleus of the facial nerve

A

GENICULATE NUCLEUS

Key ALS facts (6 decks)

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