Block 11 Flashcards

1
Q

Study of the relationship between the physical stimuli and perceptual responses

A

Psychophysics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The minimum quantity of a stimulus that can be detected

A

Threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Percentage of stimuli detected is plotted as a function of stimuli intensity to produce

A

FOS curve (frequency of seeing) or (psychometric function)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Type of observer that’s manifests an unambiguous threshold (never seen below threshold, above threshold is always seen)

A

Ideal observer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Type of observer: As the intensity of stimulus in creased, the probability of seeing it increases

A

Real observer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Type of observer: no clearly defined intensity below which the stimulus is never seen and above which it is always seen

A

Real observer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A diseased visual system in _______ than a healthy one

A

Noises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A noiser visual system makes the FOS curve

A

Less steep (more flat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

6 mothers to measure the threshold

A
Ascending limits
Descending limits
Staircase
Constant stimuli
Adjustment
Forced choice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How the the method for finding threshold determined

A

By the nature of the experiment or procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Stimulus is initially not visible, intensity increased until visible, done several times and averaged to determine threshold

A

Method of ascending limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Advantage of method of ascending limits

A

Dark adaptometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Disadvantage of method of ascending limits

A
Observer anticipation
(Begin each trial at a different intensity)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Reverse method of ascending limits (stimulus clearly visible and decreased until no longer seen)

A

Method of descending limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Advantage of method of descending limits

A

Determination of VA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Disadvantage of method of descending limits

A

Observer anticipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Combo of ascending and descending limits

A

Staircase method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Advantages of staircase method

A

Quick and reliable
Psychophysical experimentation
Automated visual field testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A “yes/no” procedure where the stimulus is varied randomly and the curve is plotted based on response
- involved blank trials, false positive and false negatives

A

Method of constant stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Advantage of method of constant stimuli

A

Maintains observers expectation at same level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Diadvantage of method of constant stimuli

A

Time consuming

False pos/neg affect curve and must be adjusted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When no stimulus is presented, even though the observer is asked

A

Blank trials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Observer reports seeing the stimulus during a blank trial

A

False positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Stimulus is above threshold and the subject reports the stimulus is not seen

A

False negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The subject adjusts the stimulus intensity until it is barely visible/invisible

A

Method of adjustment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Advantage of method of adjustment

A

Pretty quick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Disadvantage of method of adjustment

A

Repeatability is not as high as other methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the 3 observer’s criterion involved in forced choice method

A

1- not all use the ‘same criteria’
2- threshold criteria may vary trial to trial for same observer
3- observer Amy use one set of criteria for one type of stimulus and another set for a different stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Criterion: do not report seeing a stimulus until absolutely certain (give high threshold)

A

Strict threshold criterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Criterion: do report seeing a stimulus even though they may have a great deal of uncertainly (give low threshold)

A

Lax threshold criterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Effects of observer’s criteria are minimized by forcing a choice

A

Forced choice method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Example of a 2 forced choice method

A

Vector vision CSV chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Threshold for a 2AFC (2 alternative forced choice)

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Threshold is assumed to be the point midway between what

A

Chance performance and perfect performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How to determine chance performance

A

The chance that they will get it correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Threshold for 4AFC

A

62.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The steeper the curve, the more or less confident?

A

More

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Advantages of forced choice method

A
  • lower thresholds
  • used effectively to determine the VA and other visual capabilities of infants
  • when forced to guess, they do well despite claiming they cannot see the stimulus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

4 things that influence the determination of threshold

A

Decision criteria
Attention
Motivation
Internal neural noise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does signal detection theory provide

A

A useful model to predict the effects of certain factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How are the neural signal produced by the stimulus and neural noise related

A

Superimposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the task of the observer

A

To differentiate the signal and noise combo FROM background noise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Present in the absence of a stimulus

A

Neural noise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Randomly distributed over time and randomly fluctuates over time

A

Neural noise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Stimulus causes a constant level of neural activation to be added to the noise

A

Noise + signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

As the signal becomes larger, what happens to the noise and noise+signal

A

Get further apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

As the signal becomes larger, what happens to detectability

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

It is easer for observer to determine noise+signal if the signal is: large or small

A

Larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When there is a large detectability (d), how does a viewer see it

A

No uncertainty regarding whether it was presented or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How strong is the signal when there is overlap of the N and N+S

A

Weak stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If the stimulus is delivered what the noise is low, what is the resulting level of neural activation

A

Ambiguous

- no way to be certain if the stimulus is absent or present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

If the stimulus is delivered when the noise is high, what is the resulting level of neural activation

A

Unambiguous

- neural noise only occurs when stimulus is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When the level of neural activation is above the criterion line, will the subject see the stimulus?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When the level of neural activation is below the criterion line, will the subject see the stimulus?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The subjects response is determined by what

A

The level of neural activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Is the subjects response determined by whether the stimulus is presented or not?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When the stimulus results in a neural activity that exceeds the threshold criterion

A

Hit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When the activity does no exceed the criterion

A

Miss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When the neural activity exceeds the threshold criterion in the absence of a stimuli

A

False positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When the activity is below the criterion during a blank trial

A

Correct reject

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Large number of hits, few misses, but lots of false positive

A

Lax threshold criterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Few hits, more misses, but few false positives

A

Strict threshold criterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Curve showing the probability of a hit as a function of the probability of a false positive

A

ROC curve (receiver operating characteristic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Probability of a high is high, so the probability of a false positive is high

A

Lax criterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Probability of a hit is low, so the probability of a false positive is low

A

Strict criterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Weber’s law deals with

A

Contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which system is more sensitive when it comes to contrast

A

Photopic (.015…….scotopic is .14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Discriminate between the combination of stimulus+background and background alone

A

Weber’s law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Can be understood using an increment threshold experiment

A

Weber’s law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The threshold increment is referred to as

A

JND (just noticeable difference)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

As the background intensity increases, what happens to the JND

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What happens to the ratio of JND to background intensity as the background intensity increases

A

The JND increases as well, so the ratio remains constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The ratio of the optotypes to the background luminance (contrast) is the same, no matter the illumination

A

Lightness constancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Why is the appearance of the E the same under both dim and bright lights

A

Because of lightness constancy (visual system detects contrast, no absolute luminance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the appearance of a stimulus of constant luminance when viewed against backgrounds of various luminance

A

Brightness depends on background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The phenomenon regarding the brightness something appears when viewed against backgrounds of various luminances

A

Simultaneous contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Key factor in predicting the brightness of a stimulus (its appearance)

A

The contrast of the stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When no stimulus is presented, even though the observer is asked if they saw

A

Blank trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

during a VF test, pt is reluctant to signal that she sees stimulus even when she may see it. The threshold criteria used by patient is

A

Strict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

When determining a clinical threshold, which psychophysical method most minimizes the importance of the patients criterion

A

Forced choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Common used during automated VF testing

A

Staircase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which forced choice clinical procedure is expected to result in least steep (flatter)

A

2AFC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Response in which subject reports not seeing a clearly visible, Supra-threshold stimulus is referred to as

A

False negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

If sub threshold and they see

A

False positive e

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

If sub threshold and they dont see

A

Correct reject

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The JCC test for measuring astigmatism is an example of which method

A

Forced choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

If the chance performance of 4AFC is 25%, what is threshold

A

62.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When a patient adopts a strict criterion during clinical tests, the result is

A

Few false positives and few hits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Ocular disease is expected to cause the slop of function to

A

Decrease (get flatter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Weber’s law predicts as background intensity increases, contrast threshold

A

Remains constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

When measuring VA with snellen, which method will provide most reliable results

A

Descending with forced choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

As the intensity of background increases, the brightness of a patch inside the background

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

According to signal selection theory, a stimulus produces a normal activity that is

A

Constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Ass the probability of a hit increases, the probability of FP

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The method of constant stimuli is designed to keep what constant from trial to trial

A

Stimulus intensity

Subject’s expectations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

As stimulus size increased, the detectability

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The retinal analyzes data and encodes it into what

A

A neural signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What cells in the retina produce action potentials

A

Ganglion and amacrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Small light on center of ganglion receptive field does what to the AP firing

A

Increases firing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Small light on surround of receptive field of ganglion cell does what to AP firing

A

Decrease firing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Large light that covers the entire center of the ganglion cells receptive field does what to AP firing

A

Increases firing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Why is there an increase in AP firing with the light covers the entire center of the ganglion cells receptive field

A

Due to spatial summation in the field’s center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Stimulus that covers the entire receptive field of the ganglion cells will do what to AP

A

Nothing, acts the same as if there were no stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What type of ganglion cells do not respond well to diffuse illumination

A

Spatially antagonistic GCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is an example of a strong stimulus for ganglion cells

A

Sine wave grating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

The the bright bar of the sine wave grating falls on the center and the dark bars fall on the surround, what does that do to APs

A

Increase firing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Spatial grating does what to a ganglion cell

A

Vigorously excites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

When do you reach max firing of AP in a ganglion cell

A

When the entire center of the receptive field is covered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

When the stimulus covers the entire receptive field of a GC plus some more area, does this have an affect on the cell’s response

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

First cell to respond with an action potential in phototransduction

A

Amacrine cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the order than info is sent in the phototransduction path

A
PR
Horizontal 
Bipolar
Amacrine
Ganglion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Which cells convert light quanta into electrical activity

A

PRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Resting membrane potential of PR

A

-50 mV

114
Q

When exposed to light, what happens to PRs

A

They hyperpolarize and go to -70 mV

115
Q

Which cells produce graded potentials

A

PR, horizontal, bipolar

116
Q

What does graded potential mean

A

The more intense the stimulus, the greater the hyperpolarization

117
Q

What does action potential mean

A

No matter the intensity of the stimulus, the hyperpolarization is the same

118
Q

Steps of phototransduction cascade

A

1) light converts 11 cis retinal to 11 trans retinal (all-trans retinal)
2) activates transducin
3) activates PDE
4) cGMP to GMP
5) Na+ pores close (no more Na comes in)
6) rod hyperpolarizes

119
Q

Visually inert chain of amino acids

A

Opsin

120
Q

Rhodopsin consists of 2 portions

A

Opsin and chromosphere

121
Q

What part of rhodopsin determines the absorption profile of the photopigment

A

Opsin

122
Q

T or F: rod outer segment sodium channel quantity is limited

A

True

123
Q

When even a small amount of a rod’s rhodopsin in bleached, what happens to the Na channels

A

They close

124
Q

Widely dispersed dendritic tree synapses with many PRs

A

Horizontal cells

125
Q

Type of cell with substantial spatial summation

A

Horizontal

126
Q

H1 cells have input from which PRs

A

M and L cones

127
Q

H2 cells have input from which PRs

A

S cones

128
Q

Type of cell displaying spatial antagonism

A

Bipolar cells

129
Q

Bipolar cell: Invaginating synapse

A

On center bipolar

130
Q

Bipolar cell: flat synapse

A

Off center bipolar

131
Q

Bipolar cell: in the inner sublayer of the IPL

A

On center bipolar

132
Q

Bipolar cell: in the outer sublayer of the IPL

A

Off center bipolar

133
Q

Bipolar cell: glutamate is inhibitory

A

On center bipolar

134
Q

Bipolar cell: glutamate is excitatory

A

Off center bipolar

135
Q

Bipolar cell: smaller soma, dendritic tree and receptive field

A

Midget bipolar cell

136
Q

Bipolar cell: center formed by 5-10 M/L cones and center spectral sensitivity is similar to the surround

A

Diffuse bipolar cells

137
Q

Midget ganglion cells are also called

A

Parvo cells

138
Q

Diffuse bipolar cells synapse with

A

Parasol GCs

139
Q

Parasol GCs are also called

A

Magno cells

140
Q

Are there more parasol GCs in the central 20 degrees or the periphery

A

Periphery

141
Q

8% of GC, on center formed only by S cones

A

Small bistratified cells

142
Q

3 places GCs project to

A

LGN
Superior colliculus
Pulvinar

143
Q

Where to MOST GC projections go to

A

LGN

144
Q

The superior colliculus controls

A

Eye movements

145
Q

The pulvinar controls

A

Visual attention
Motion processing
Visually guided movement

146
Q

Damages choriocapillaris and Bruch’s membrane

A

ARMD

147
Q

A leading case of blindness

A

ARMD

148
Q

What type of drugs may help wet ARMD

A

Angiogenesis blocking drugs

149
Q

Photopigment containing GCS

A

Melanopsin containing GCs

150
Q

Where to melanopsin GCs project and what are they responsible for

A
Suprachiasmic nucleus (SCN
Circadian rhythm
151
Q

Seasonal affective disorder is often treated with

A

Bright light therapy

152
Q

Extracellular recording techniques may be used to record the activity of which cells

A

Ganglion and amacrine

- need an AP to do this

153
Q

LGN: magno cells

A

2 most ventral layers

154
Q

LGN: parvo cells

A

4 most dorsal layers

155
Q

LGN: Konio cells

A

Interlaminar regions

156
Q

Smallest of the LGN cells

A

Konio cells

157
Q

Where does the LGN primarily project to

A

Visual cortex

158
Q

Cells sensitive to r/g color contras

A

Parvo cells

159
Q

Cells making up 70% of the retinogeniculate path

A

Parvo cells

160
Q

Cells sensitive to rapid movement

A

Magno cells

161
Q

Cells making up 10% of the retinogeniculate path

A

Magno cells

162
Q

Which PR primarily feeds into the Magno path

A

Rods

163
Q

Cells responding to b/y color contrast

A

Konio cells

164
Q

Which neuron(s) are characterized by color opponency

A

Parvo and Konio

165
Q

Excited by certain wavelengths and inhibited by others

A

Color opponenecy

166
Q

Cells showing weak or no color opponency

A

Magno cells

167
Q

Cells with a sustained response to long duration stimulus

A

Parvo cells

168
Q

Cells with transient response to long duration stimulus

A

Magno cells

169
Q

When do you see bursts of activity at the onset and offset, which cells is firing

A

Magno

170
Q

When you see rapid firing of APs through the entire stimulus, what cell is firing

A

Parvo

171
Q

Cells with spatial properties similar to retinal midget cells

A

Parvo

172
Q

Cells with spatial properties similar to retinal parasol cells

A

Magno

173
Q

Cells with smaller receptive field centers providing higher spatial resolution

A

Parvo

174
Q

Cells with larger diameter axons, transmitting APs faster

A

Magno

175
Q

Cells with shorter visual latency

A

Magno

176
Q

Is there a clear division into distinct parvo and magno in the cortex

A

No

177
Q

Is there a clear division into distinct parvo and magno in the retinogeniculate path

A

Yes

178
Q

Lesion of the parvocellular region of LGN

A

Reduced wavelength discrimination

Reduced high spatial frequency contrast sensitivity

179
Q

Lesion in magnocellular region of LGN

A

Reduction of high temporal frequency flicker

Reduction of low spatial frequency contrast sensitivity

180
Q

Which path is key to color discrimination and visual acuity

A

Parvo path

181
Q

Pathway encoding fast movement and low spatial frequencies

A

Magno path

182
Q

Isoluminant gratings isolate which system

A

Parvo system

183
Q

The bars on isoluminant gratings are only visible due to

A

Chromatic Contrast

184
Q

Visual field loss indications what kind of cells have died

A

Ganglion cells

185
Q

Which pathway is more susceptible to damage in glaucoma

A

Magno

186
Q

Why is the magno path more susceptible to damage in glaucoma

A

Axons of larger neurons ar damaged earlier than smaller

187
Q

As temporal rate is increased, the healthy patient will note the apparent spatial frequency of the grating doubles

A

Frequency doubling

188
Q

POAG impairs the perception of

A

Frequency doubling

189
Q

What type of procedure does the original FDT perimeter threshold testing employ

A

4-reversal staircase procedure

- MOBS

190
Q

In the N30-1 screening test, what is the first stimuli presented

A

One that can be detected by 99% of normal population

191
Q

If the first presented stimulus in the N30-1 screening test is not seen after repeated presentations, what level is then presented

A

99.5% of the normal population can detect

192
Q

If the target at 99.5% detectibility is not seen in the N30-1 screening test, what is next

A

Stimulus is presented as max contrast

193
Q

Sensitivity for the N30-1 test

A

78-92%

194
Q

Specificity of N30-1 screening test

A

85-100%

195
Q

What makes the N30-1 screening test a useful option for large population screening

A

The high specificity

196
Q

The first stimulus in the N30-5 screening test

A

Can be detected by 95% of normal population

197
Q

If the first stimulus in the N30-5 test is not seen after repeated presentations, the next stimulus is

A

Detected by 98% of population

198
Q

If the 98% detected stimulus is not seen in the N30-5 test, the next stimulus is

A

Detected by 99%

199
Q

Sensitivity for the N30-5 test

A

85-95%

200
Q

Specificity of N30-5 test

A

80-90%

201
Q

The high sensitivity of the N30-5 tests suggests what

A

It is better for detecting earlier VF loss in glaucoma pts

202
Q

How long to the N30-1 and N30-5 tests take in normal eyes

A

30 seconds per eye

203
Q

How long does the N30-1 and N30-5 tests take in eyes with VF defects

A

2 minutes each eye

204
Q

The Humphrey matrix 800 is good for what

A

Early VF loss detection

205
Q

Data suggests that developmental dyslexics manifest deficits in the processing of

A

Temporal info

- MAGNO path

206
Q

Which path encodes motion and low spatial frequencies

A

Magno path

207
Q

With path encodes r/g chromaticity and high spatial frequencies (VA)

A

Parvo path

208
Q

Which path processes b/y color info

A

Konio path

209
Q

Where does the end of the bipolar cell with flat/invaginating synapses occur

A

OPL

210
Q

Isoluminant gratings are thought to be detect by

A

Parvo cells

211
Q

Located in the 2 ventral layers of the LGN

A

Magno cells

212
Q

Have transient neural response

A

Magno cels

213
Q

Have strong color opponency

A

Parvo

Konio

214
Q

Synapse in layer 4Calpha of the cortex

A

Magno

215
Q

Synapse in layer 4Cbeta of the cortex

A

Parvo

216
Q

Sustained neural response

A

Parvo

217
Q

Parvo cells continue about what percentage of ganglion cells

A

70%

218
Q

Magno cells constitute about what percentage of ganglion cells

A

10%

219
Q

An on center magno neuron is least responsive to

A

Isoluminant grating

220
Q

A lesion on in the parvocelluar region of the LGN is expected to result in a reduction in

A

Visual acuity
Wavelength discrimination
Low temporal frequency

221
Q

A lesion in the magnocellualr region of the LGN is expected to result in a redction in

A

High frequency temporal resolution

222
Q

In frequency doubling, what aspect of the stimulus appears to double as the temporal frequency increase

A

Spatial frequency

223
Q

Neurons in the 4 most dorsal layers of the primate LGN manifest what property

A

Color opponency

224
Q

Max sensitivity to low spatial frequencies

A

Magno

225
Q

4 most dorsal layers of LGN

A

Parvo

226
Q

2 most ventral alyers of LGN

A

Magno

227
Q

Thicker/larger diameter axons

A

Magno

228
Q

Action potentials faster or shower in parvo

A

Slower

229
Q

What are the smallest cells

A

Konio

230
Q

Which cells are noncolor opponent

A

Magno

231
Q

Cytochrome oxidase blobs are located in

A

Striate cortex

232
Q

The more superficial layers of striate cortex projec to

A

Higher cortical area

233
Q

Double color opponent neurons are located in the

A

Blobs

234
Q

Info from the 2 eyes is first combined in cells within

A

Striate cortex

235
Q

The receptive fields of which cells cannot be mapped out with small spots of light

A

Complex

236
Q

The receptive fields of which cells can be mapped out with small spots of light

A

Simple

237
Q

Spatially nonlinear magno cells are thought to provide input to

A

Complex cortical cells

238
Q

A hypercolum contains a complete set of

A

Ocular dominance columns

Orientation columns

239
Q

Simple cell receptive field properties

A

Distant on and off region
Orientation selectivity
Position selectivity

240
Q

Cells that mediate stereopsis are found in

A

Cortex

241
Q

Neuron expected to be most responsive to an isoluminant grating

A

Double color opponent cortical cell

242
Q

May be demonstrated using forced choice methodology

A

Blindsight

243
Q

The cortex contains about how many areas predominantly devoted to analyzing visual info

A

20

244
Q

Striate cortex projects to

A

Extra striate cortex
LGN
Pulvinar

245
Q

Striate cortex receives input from

A

Extra striate cortex

LGN

246
Q

Optical imaging of intrinsic signals in striate cortex reveals that orientation sensitivity is arranged in formations that appear as

A

Pinwheels

247
Q

Which lobe is the striate cortex in

A

Occipital lobe

248
Q

Other names fro the striate cortex

A

Primary visual cortex
Visual area 1
V1
Brodmann area 17

249
Q

A representation of the entire visual field

A

Striate cortex

250
Q

Comprises only .01% of retinal area

A

Fovea

251
Q

Represented in at least 8% of striate cortex

A

Fovea

252
Q

The temporal path

A

Ventral stream

253
Q

The what system

A

Ventral processing stream

254
Q

Relieves input form parvo path

A

Ventral processing

255
Q

Parietal path

A

Dorsal processing stream

256
Q

The where system

A

Dorsal processing stream

257
Q

Recieves input from magno path

A

Dorsal processing

258
Q

Are the 2 cortical processing streams independent

A

No

259
Q

Projections to lower visual centers originate from what layers of the striate cortex

A

Deeper layers (layer 6)

260
Q

The projections to the extra striate cortex originate more from what layers of the striate cortex

A

Superficial layers (layers 2/3)

261
Q

Cells most sensitive to a bar or edge of a specific orientation

A

Simple cells

262
Q

Receptive fields are divided into antagonistic excitatory and inhibitory regions

A

Simple cells

263
Q

Type of processing used by simple cells

A

Serial processing

264
Q

Cells responding best to an elongated stimulus of a specific orientation

A

Complex cells

265
Q

With which cells are certain cortical neurons sensitive to stimulus length

A

Complex cells

266
Q

With which cells must the stimulus be a specific width and orientation

A

Simple cells

267
Q

Which cells respond to diffuse light

A

PRs

268
Q

Which cells respond to a spot of light of a specific diameter

A

Ganglion cells

269
Q

What cells respond to a bar of light moving in the proper direction

A

Complex cells

270
Q

Both pathways (parvo and magno) have what kind of processing

A

Hierarchical

271
Q

Which neurons respond well to sine wave grating and are selective for a particular spatial frequency

A

Cortical neurons

272
Q

Line or surface content all points in space whose images fall on corresponding points of each eye retina

A

Horopter

273
Q

Stimulation of a neuron through the dominant eye causes

A

A stronger response

274
Q

A complete set of ocular dominance columns(both eyes) and orientation columns(all orientations)

A

Hyper column

275
Q

The development of standard cortical architecture requires

A

Normal visual input early in life

276
Q

Optimally responsive to stimuli that manifest color contrast

A

Striate blobs

277
Q

Superficial region of striate cortex between bobs that recieves substantial parvo input

A

Interblob region

278
Q

Pathway that bypasses blobs

A

Magno

279
Q

Which path feeds exclusively into one of the cortical processing streams

A

Neither parvo nor magno

280
Q

Why are receptive fields of striate cortical neurons more complicated

A

Due to hierarchical processing