Block 10 Flashcards
Diagnosis of HIV
antibodies to HIV may not be present
HIV PCR and p24 antigen tests can confirm diagnosis
A 58 year old lady presents with a mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Which of the following statements relating to the breast is untrue?
The internal mammary artery provides the majority of its arterial supply
Nipple retraction may occur as a result of tumour infiltration of the clavipectoral fascia
The internal mammary artery is a branch of the subclavian artery
Up to 70% of lymphatic drainage is to the ipsilateral axillary nodes
None of the above
Both skin dimpling and nipple retraction are features of breast malignancy. However, they usually occur as a result of tumour infiltration of the breast ligaments and ducts respectively. The clavipectoral fascia encases the axillary contents. The lymphatic drainage of the breast is to the axilla and also to the internal mammary chain. The breast is well vascularised and the internal mammary artery is a branch of the subclavian artery.
Where are accessory spleens not found?
Gonads
Tail of pancreas
Greater omentum
Splenorenal ligament
Ureter
Uretur
- 10% population
- 1 cm size
- locations: hilum of the spleen, tail of the pancreas, along the splenic vessels, in the gastrosplenic ligament, the splenorenal ligament, the walls of the stomach or intestines, the greater omentum, the mesentery, the gonads
A 34 year old woman with morbid obesity is referred for consideration of bariatric surgery. Which of the following options is associated with the highest long term failure rates?
Gastric band
Intra gastric balloon
Roux en Y bypass
Sleeve gastrectomy
Duodenal switch
Intragastric balloon is really only suitable as a bridge to a more definitive surgical solution.
Which of the following statements relating to Hirschsprungs disease is false?
It is more common in males.
Is typically associated with a dilated aganglionic segment of bowel.
May present with delayed passage of meconium.
Mucosal biopsies are inadequate for diagnosis.
Disease extending beyond 30cm of colon and rectum is unusual.
There is a transition zone from the contracted aganglionic segment (the abnormal area) to dilated normal bowel on barium enema. Males are more frequently affected than females. Surgery may involve a pull through procedure. A number of patients will have ongoing evacuatory disturbance.
A 44 year old lady presents with a pathological fracture of the left femur. She has previously undergone a renal transplant for end stage renal failure. Her blood test results are as follows:
Serum Ca2+ 2.80
PTH 88pg/ml
Phosphate 0.30
A surgeon decides to perform a parathyroidectomy on the basis of these results. When the glands are assessed histologically, which of the appearances is most likely to be identified?
Metaplasia the gland
Hypertrophy of the gland
Hyperplasia of the gland
Parathyroid carcinoma
Necrosis of the parathyroid gland
This is likely to be a case of tertiary hyperparathyroidism (high Calcium, high PTH, low phosphate). Therefore the glands will be hyperplastic. Hypertrophy is not correct as this implies an increase in size without an increase in cellularity. This mistake has cost many candidates marks in the MRCS exams over the years!
A 56 year old man presents with his first attack of diverticulitis. Which of these complications is least likely to ensue?
Formation of colonic strictures
Malignant transformation
Development of colovesical fistula
Formation of a pericolic abscess
Formation of a phlegmon
Diverticulitis may result in a number of complications. However, whilst malignant disease may coincide with diverticulitis it is not, in itself, a risk factor for colonic cancer.
Theme: Management of osteomyelitis
A.Lautenbach regime
B.Below knee amputation
C.Hindquater amputation
D.Above knee amputation
E.Removal of metalwork and implantation of local antibiotics
F.Removal of metalwork and bone grafting
G.Intravenous antibiotics
Which option is the best management plan? Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
40.A 65 year old type 2 diabetic with poor glycaemic control is admitted with forefoot cellulitis. X-ray of the foot shows some evidence of osteomyelitis of the 2nd ray but overlying skin is healthy.
A 28 year old infantryman is shot in the leg during combat. Primary debridement and lavage of the wound is undertaken. Several months post surgery there is ongoing discharge from a sinus originating in the proximal femur, X-ray and MRI shows evidence of osteomyelitis of the proximal femur. There are no obvious sequestra.
A 70 year old man undergoes a revision total hip replacement. 10 days post operatively the hip dislocates and pus is discharging from the wound. He is systemically unwell with a temperature of 38.5 and WCC 19.
Intravenous antibiotics
It is worth attempting to try and resolve this situation with antibiotics at first presentation. A primary amputation will not heal well and may result in progressive surgery.
Lautenbach regime
This involves local administration of antibiotics via intramedullary lines and is an intensive regime. However, the morbidity of a high above knee or hindquater amputation makes conservative management an attractive option.
Removal of metalwork and implantation of local antibiotics
Removal of metal work implantation of gentamicin beads and delayed revision is the mainstay of managing this complication.
Which of the following statements relating the fluid physiology of a physiologically normal 70 Kg adult male is false?
He will have more water per unit of body weight than a female of similar weight
Plasma will comprise 25% of his body weight
Interstitial fluid will account for up to 24% of body water
Approximately 65% of total body water is intracellular
60% of his body weight is composed of water
Plasma typically accounts for 4-6% of body weight in healthy individuals.
Males typically have more water per unit weight than females, as females have a higher fat content.
% volume intracellular
60-65%
% volume extracellular
35-40%
% volume plasma
5%
% volume interstitial fluid
24%
% volume transcellular
3%
Volume intracellular fluid
28L
Volume extracellular fluid
14L
Volume plasma
3L
Volume interstitial fluid
10L
Volume transcellular fluid
1L
Which of the following statements relating to qualitative data is false?
The data has no true numerical scale
It may comprise multiple data groups
May be reported using odds ratios
May be reported using frequency histograms
It is best analysed statistically using a students T test when multiple factors are present
The students T test should be performed if two sets of data have a normal distribution, the T test cannot be used to analyse multiple data sets.
What is the least likely examination finding in patients with Le Fort II fractures?
Excessive mobility of the palate
Paraesthesia in the region supplied by the inferior alveolar nerve
Malocclusion of the teeth
Enopthalmos
Parasthesia in the region supplied by the infraorbital nerve
Le Fort II fractures have a pyramidal shape. The fracture line involves the orbit and extends to involve the bridge of the nose and the ethmoids. In continues to involve the infraorbital rim and usually through the infraorbital foramen. As a result infraorbital parasthesia, palatal mobility and malocclusion are common findings. Severe fractures may result in endopthalmos. However, the fracture does not, by definition, involve the inferior alveolar nerve.

Which of the following drugs is not positively inotropic?
Dopamine
Glucagon
Theophylline
Sodium thiopentone
Dobutamine
Inotropes are a class of drugs that increase the force or cardiac contractility. This may improve cardiac output. Increased blood pressure may have direct beneficial effects for the heart in that it improves myocardial perfusion pressure. Dopamine and dobutamine are both commonly used inotropes, they should be administered via a central line and in a monitored setting. Glucagon and theophylline are also positive inotropes (although not commonly used for this purpose). In contrast sodium thiopentone causes marked myocardial depression.
Theme: Nerve injury
A.Median nerve
B.Ulnar nerve
C.Radial nerve
D.Anterior interosseous nerve
E.Posterior interosseous nerve
F.Axillary nerve
G.Musculocutaneous nerve
Please select the nerve at risk of injury in each scenario. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
48.A 43 year old typist presents with pain at the dorsal aspect of the upper part of her forearm. She also complains of weakness when extending her fingers. On examination triceps and supinator are both functioning normally. There is weakness of most of the extensor muscles. However, there is no sensory deficit.
A 28 year teacher reports difficulty with writing. There is no sensory loss. She is known to have an aberrant Gantzer muscle.
A 35 year tennis player attends reporting tingling down his arm. He says that his ‘funny bone’ was hit very hard by a tennis ball. There is weakness of abduction and adduction of his extended fingers.
Posterior interosseous nerve
The radial nerve may become entrapped in the arcade of Frohse which is a superficial part of the supinator muscle which overlies the posterior interosseous nerve. This nerve is entirely muscular and articular in its distribution. It passes postero-inferiorly and gives branches to extensor carpi radialis brevis and supinator. It enters supinator and curves around the lateral and posterior surfaces of the radius. On emerging from the supinator the posterior interosseous nerve lies between the superficial extensor muscles and the lowermost fibres of supinator. It then gives branches to the extensors.
Anterior interosseous nerve
Anterior interosseous (B) lesions occur due to fracture, or rarely due to compression. The Gantzer (A) muscle is an aberrant accessory of the flexor pollicis longus and is a risk factor for anterior interosseous nerve compression. Remember loss of pincer grip and normal sensation indicates an interosseous nerve lesion.
Ulnar nerve
The ulnar nerve arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus (C8, T1 and contribution from C7). The nerve descends between the axillary artery and vein, posterior to the cutaneous nerve of the forearm and then lies anterior to triceps on the medial side of the brachial artery. In the distal half of the arm it passes through the medial intermuscular septum, and continues between this structure and the medial head of triceps to enter the forearm between the medial epicondyle of the humerus and the olecranon. It may be injured at this site in this scenario.

loss of pincer grip and normal sensation indicates
Anterior interosseous lesion



















































































