Block 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Pharmacology

A

The study of the interactions of drugs with living systems

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2
Q

Clinical Pharmacology

A

The application of pharmacology principles to patients

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3
Q

Pharmacy

A

The science of practice of the preparation and dispensing of medicinal drugs

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4
Q

Toxicology

A

The study of poisons and their treatments

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5
Q

Veterinary Clinical Pharmacology

A

Clinical pharmacology as applied to veterinary (animal) species. A component of therapeutics (pharmacotherapeutics).

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6
Q

Evidence-based Medicine

A

Pharmacological principles based on valid, relevant research, and clinical data

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7
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

ADME (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion).
“What the animal does to the drug.”
Describes the disposition or movement of drugs within the body.

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8
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

“What the drug does to the animal.”
Describes the mechanism of action

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9
Q

Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act 1994 (AMDUCA)

A

Allows veterinarians to prescribe drugs for extra-label use.
Applies to all animal species (not only food-producing animals).

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10
Q

Extra-label drug use is NOT permitted if _____

A

It results in an illegal food residue, or any residue which may present a risk to public health

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11
Q

The Food Animal Residues Avoidance Databank (FARAD)

A

Computer system that provides information including withdrawal times of all drugs

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12
Q

Prescription drugs are regulated by ______

A

FDA

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13
Q

Controlled drugs are regulated by _____

A

DEA

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14
Q

Dose

A

Amount of drug given to achieve a certain effect

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15
Q

Dosage

A

Amount of drug per unit body weight (multiply unit of drug by body weight of patient).
Typically milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg).
Most dosages will have a range.

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16
Q

Concentration

A

Amount of drug per unit of volume from the stock supply of medication (ie dosage form or formulation)

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17
Q

FDA oversees ____

A

drug approval and safety

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18
Q

DEA monitors use of products with ____

A

high abuse potential (ie controlled drugs)

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19
Q

National Drug Code (NDC)

A

10 digit number assigned by the DEA.
Required on all non-prescription (OTC) and prescription medication packages and inserts in the USA.
A drug with an NDC number means it has gone through the approval process so it can be sold and used.

20
Q

New Animal Drug Application (NADA) Number

A

All FDA approved drugs have their own NADA number. The FDA assigns the NADA number following drug approval.

21
Q

Prescription

A

An order to a pharmacist written by a license medical practitioner to prepare the prescribed medication, affix directions, and sell to client.
It is a legally recognized document and the writer is held responsible for its accuracy. Written in blue or black ink.

22
Q

Prescription for Schedule II drugs

A

Must be written, NO refills, can only be for a 30 day supply

23
Q

Prescription for Schedule II, IV, V drugs

A

Varies state by state. Generally has to be faxed and cannot be given verbally in most states.
Can have up to 5 refills, within 6 months from when the prescription of written.
Most states allow prescriptions for controlled substances to be filled within 30 days from date of issue.

24
Q

Compounded Medication

A

Any drug that has been created by combining or altering ingredients (ie: addition of flavoring, product reformulation (ie liquid to paste), combing of ingredients to create a commercially unavailable product).
Prepared by licensed veterinarian of pharmacist for a specific patient and can NOT be mass produced or manufactured.

25
Q

FDA approved drugs may not be compounded unless there is ______

A

a documented shortage

26
Q

FDA veterinary compounding regulations (4)

A

1) Valid VCPR
2) There is no commercially available animal or human product in the correct dosage form or concentration (nothing else makes sense)
3) Product is safe and effective
4) Prepared according to federal and state guidelines

27
Q

Compounding Violations (3)

A

1) Compounding products that are copies of commercially available products
2) Compounding outside of a valid VCPR (ie selling drug at different price or compounding in bulk)
3) Compounding from unapproved or bulk drug substances

28
Q

T/F: The Drug Enforcement Agency regulates controlled drugs

A

True

29
Q

The National Drug Code is required on prescription medications. What agency assigns this 10-digit number?

A

DEA

30
Q

NADA number is assigned by____

A

FDA

31
Q

T/F: Class IV controlled drug has a higher abuse potential than a Class II controlled drug

A

False

32
Q

What are the two general routes of drug administration

A

Local and Systemic

33
Q

Two categories of Systemic Drug administration

A

Enteral: into GI tract
Parenteral: extra-GI routes

34
Q

Enteral Route for Systemic Drugs Advantages (4)

A

1) Convenient (can give at home)
2) Infection at site not a concern
3) potential to decontaminate if needed
4) Feeding tubes useful if non-compliant patient or multiple medications

35
Q

Enteral Route for Systemic Drugs Disadvantages (8)

A

1) Slower onset of action
2) Food or other drugs may affect absorption
3) Inactivation by gastric pH, digestive enzymes, or rumen microflora
4) GI tract activity and integrity
5) Irritant drugs may cause GI upset
6) Palatability
7) Patient compliance
8) Owner compliance

36
Q

2 methods of Systemic drug administration for Parenteral routes

A

Injection and Inhalation

37
Q

Intravenous (IV) Route Advantages (3)

A

1) Rapid onset
2) Less irritating than injection into tissues
3) Larger volumes can be given over time (CRI = constant rate infusion)

38
Q

Intravenous (IV) Route Disadvantages (2)

A

1) Risk of complications
2) Some drugs can irritate veins (PHLEBITIS)

39
Q

Intramuscular (IM) Route Disadvantages (3)

A

1) May be painful
2) Risk of tissue damage
3) Infection/abscess at administration site

40
Q

Intramuscular (IM) Route Advantages (3)

A

1) Rapidly absorbed
2) Longer duration of action than IV route
3) Some suspensions can be given IM

41
Q

Subcutaneous (SQ) Route Advantages (3)

A

1) Slow but constant absorption
2) Longer duration of action
3) Can give at home in some cases (ie insulin)

42
Q

Subcutaneous (SQ) Route Disadvantages (3)

A

1) Slow onset
2) Irritating drugs cannot be used
3) Infection/abscess at administration site

43
Q

Intraosseous (IO) Route Disadvantages (5)

A

1) Short-term use only
2) Some drugs cannot be given IO
3) Special equipment required
4) Painful
5) Risk of fracture

44
Q

Intraosseous (IO) Route Advantages (5)

A

1) Fluids flow as well as IV route
2) Rapid access for emergencies
3) CPR drugs can be give IO
4) Technically uncomplicated
5) Useful in neonates and tiny patients

45
Q

Inhalation Route Advantages (3)

A

1) Rapid onset (fastest behind IV and IO for systemic uptake)
2) Able to deliver gas inhalant anesthesia
3) Elimination by expiration (exhalation)

46
Q

Inhalation Route Disadvantages (3)

A

1) Some drugs may be irritating
2) Tolerance in awake patients
3) Inhalant anesthetic gasses depress the CV & respiratory systems (requires constant intensive monitoring)