Blepharoplasty and Brow LIft Flashcards

1
Q

Define dermatochalasis and blepharaochalasis

A
  • blepharochalasis - excess fat, skin and muscle in upper eyelid - inflammatory
  • dermatochalaiss - only excess skin - laxity
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2
Q

Define blepharoptosis and pseudoptosis

A
  • blepharoptosis - upper lid margin inferior displcaed over limbus
  • pseudoptosis - depression of upper lid secondary to enopthalmus/dermatochalasis
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3
Q

Define the Shimer test, snap test and distraction test

A
  • Schirmer test - to verify reflex and basic tearing, use 35x5mm filter paper, 5mins, normal is 10-30mm. Schirmer 1 test both reflex/basic, test 2 w tetracaine to eliminater relfexive response
  • Snap test - lid pulled downward, if >1sec to return to position =laxity
  • Distraction est - lid pulled away from globe, if can be distracted >6-10mm =laxity
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4
Q

What are aesthetic measurments deifning an attractive periorbital region

A
  • Intecanthal distance 1/5 of facial width
  • Hairline to brow at pupil 5-6cm
  • brow to midpupil 2.5cm
  • pretarsal skin show 3-6mm
  • lash line to upper tarsal crease 10mm
  • brow to SOR 1cm
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5
Q

Describe the anatomy of o.oculi

A

Pre-tarsal

  • Medial - superficial head inserts on ant limb of MCT, deep head inserts on posterior crest posteriro to lacrimal sac
  • Lateral - inserts with LCT onto Whitnalls tubercle

Pre-septal

  • Medial - superficial heads inserts on ant limb of MCT, deep head inserts on posterior lacrimal crest w pretarsal OO
  • Lateral - forms a raphe of fibers which insert directly into skin

Orbital

  • MEdial - inserts onto SOR and IOR
  • Lateral - lies superficial to frontalis, corrugator, ZM/m, lip and nasal levators
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6
Q

Describe the sensory innervation in the periorbital region

A
  • STN, SON (V1)
  • Infratrochlear nerve (V1) (both upper and lower lids)
  • lacrimal n (V1)
  • Infraorbital (V2)
  • Zygomaticofacial/zygomaticotemporal (V2)
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7
Q

Describe the intra and extraorbital fat compartments

A

Post-septal (intraorbital)

  • Upper (2) - medial pale yellow fat w medial palpebral artery + infratrochear n. Central butter yellow fat. Lacrimal gland lies laterally
  • Lower (3) - medial pale yellow (separated by IO) central butter yellow (seperated by lateral extension of arcuate ligament) lateral butter yellow

Pre-septal (extraorbital) lies deep to orbicularis, anterior to septum

  • Roof - Retro-orbicularis oculi fat
  • SOOF - sub-orbicularis oculi fat
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8
Q

What are the origins and insertios of the orbital septum

A

Origin: IOR and SOR - named arcus marginalis

Insertion - Upper lid - 15mm above uppe rtarsal birder

Insertoin - Lower lid - 5mm below lower tarsal border

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9
Q

What forms supratarsal crease?

A

insertion of OO and fibrous levator aponeurosis into skin

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10
Q

Describe your history and physical for patient presenting with periorbital complaints of againg

A

History

  • Deformity, desires, expectations
  • Ocular Hx: corrective lens/contact, dry sx, visual sx, last ophtho asx, cataract, glaucoma, Lasix surgery
  • Symptom (ptosis/laxity) - onset, duration, progression, uni/bilat
  • PMHx: HTN, thyroid, coagulative D, endocrine, meds/allergies

PE

  • Visual Asx: pupils, EOM, VA, VFs, conjuntival ingection, fundoscopy, corneal reflex
  • Upper lid:
    • Static - > lid position (ptosis/retraction), brow position, excess skin/muscle/fat, supratarsal crease
    • Dynamic: levator fx, Bells, lagophthalmus, orbicularis fx
  • Lower lid:
    • Static: malar bag, festoons, excess skin/muscle/fat, lip position (ectro/entro/scleral show)
    • Dynamic: Snap and distraction test (laxity)
  • Globe:
    • canthi
    • exoph/enop, vertical dystopia
    • Vector
    • Proptosis
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11
Q

What does negative vector predict

A
  • risk of dry eye syndrome
  • risk of ectropion
  • may require canthoplasty as part of the procedure
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12
Q

What are the principles and goals of blepharoplasty

A
  • restore sharp crisp tarsal folds
  • restore symmetry
  • retain/restore lateral canthal angle
  • reposition/remove poorly positioned skin/fat/muscle
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13
Q

Describe the steps of the upper blepharoplasty

A
  • Marking
    • w pt standing, at jx of lateral and central 1/3 , mark inferior extent of incision 9-12mm from the lash line, with gentle curve medial and lateral, stopping belore medial canthus
    • pinch test to determine amount of skin removal
  • Skin excision/muscle
    • incisions made and skin excsied
    • if muscle excision, done next as small strip
    • septum opened to remove medial fat pad which protrudes, minimal centrally
    • careful hemostasis
  • +/- anchoring stitches, ROOF excision, gland suspension
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14
Q

Describe steps in Lower blepharoplasty

A
  • Marking
    • ​subciliary - 1-2mm below lash line and lateral extensio into crease
    • trasncutaneous (below vascular arcade through conj/CPF
  • incise skin w scalpel puncture then scissors, step to then incise through muscle to reach septum
  • May excise muscle
  • open septum, release protruding fat
  • release ORL, ZRL
  • conservative skin excision

Modifications as per Dr. Ford

  • +/- canthoplasty +/- o.oculi sling
  • release tear through below rim supraperiosteal
  • release ORL and ZRL below rim supraperios
  • transpose medial fat below tear through depression
  • excise post-septal lateral fat pad
  • +/- resuspension of o.oculi to DTF
  • temporary tarsorrhaphy at lateral limbus 5-0 nylon x1wk
  • tear naturall q2h, lacrilube qhs
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15
Q

List complications of blepharoplasty

A

Immediate

  • corneal injury
  • lacrimal injury
  • diplopia
  • blindness
  • glaucoma
  • OCR
  • hematoma
    • subscleral
    • periorb
    • retrobulbar

Early

  • conjunctivitis
    • ​keratoconj sicca
    • ecchymosis
  • chemosis
  • lagophthalmus
  • asymmetry

Late

  • asymmetry, underover correction
  • ectropion/entropion
  • levator dysfx
  • Lacrimal dysfx: epiphora/dry eye
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16
Q

How do you manage chemosis

A
  • Def: edema of conjunctiva
  • Secoandry to lymphatic disruption - conj is drained by lympatics of eyelid
  • Prevention is key
    • intra-op BSS< HOB elevation, , normotensive anesthesia, minimal iV lfuid, limit exposure
  • Treatment
    • tears naturalle q2h, lacrilube qhs. if not resolving, tobradex or forte liquifilm, neo-synephrine, +/- patching/cold compress
    • If not esolving 2wks - optho cnosults for oral steroids
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17
Q

WHat is the incidence and management of retrobulbar hematoma?

A
  • 0.04% - worse outcome - blindness 2’ compression with occlusio of CROA or optic nerve ischemia
  • Clinical Hx
    • pain
    • loss of vision
  • On exam
    • proptosis
    • ophthalmoplegia
    • increased IOP >30 (papilledema)
    • mydriasis
    • gradual loss of VA
  • Managment
    • surgical emergency- evacuation
    • HOB>30
    • control pain/N/V
    • remove sutures
    • urgent lateral canthotomy, cantholysis
    • mannitol 20%, 1-2g/kg IV over 1hr
    • methylpredinosone 1G IV x1
    • Timolol 0.5% 1-2gtt bid
    • Diamox (CAI) 500mg IV then 250mg q4hr
    • Ophtho consult
18
Q

What are indicaitions for emergent decompression for RB hematoma

A
  • acute Visual loss with high IOP (consicous)
  • proptosis, IOP >40 +/- RAPD (unconscious)

Technique

  • lateral canthotomy/cantholysis (not if globe ruptre suspected)
  • open surgical site if post op
  • formal drainge
  • look for active bleeder
  • if not completely released, release arcus marginalis/orbital septum
  • if not completely decompressed, outfracture alteal orb wall
19
Q

Describe how you would do a lateral canthotomy/cantholysis

A
  • LA w needle directed away from the globe
  • cut laterally between two lids
  • inferolateral tension onlower lid away from glob
  • blunt scissors to cut inferior crus of lateral canthus
20
Q

Describe the features of the asian upper and lower eyelid

A
  • Upper lid
    • absence of supratarsal
    • medial epicanthal fold
    • hooding caruncle
    • narrow palpebral fissure
  • Lower lid
    • anterosuperior projection of intraobital fat
    • absence of lower lid crease
21
Q

Describe correction of asian eyelid and epicanthal fold

A
  • Open
    • incision 5-6mm above midupil, 15mm in length
    • excision of pretarsal o/oculi approx 2mm
    • anchor lower skin dermis with suturing to levator insertion at upper tarsal border
  • Closed
    • sutures w prolene at level of new desired supratarsal crease
  • Epicanthoplasty
    • V-Wplasty
22
Q

Describe the anatomy of the brow musculature

A

Frontalis

  • O: Galea
  • I: interdigitates w corrugator, procerus, O/oculi
  • N: CN7 frontal
  • fx: only brow elevator

Corrugator - 2 heads: transverse and oblique

  • O: trasnverse = medial SOR,
  • I: trasnverse = superior/middle 1/3
  • O: oblique = mediosuperior OR
  • I: Oblique = medial brow dermis
  • Fx: pulls brow medial and inferior

Procerus

  • I: ULC, nasal root
  • O: glabellar skin
  • Fx; pulls brow medial and inferior

Depressor supercilli

  • O: SOR
  • I: medial brow dermis
  • Fx: depresses
23
Q

What retaining ligaments must be released in a brow lift and where are they located

A
  • Superior temporal fusion line : periosteum along superior temporal line of skull
  • Zone of Adhrence: 6mm medial to STFL - where periosteum and galea are fixed
  • Orbital ligament: along lateral orbital rim - fusion of TPF to LOR. At inferior most ZOA
    • tethers the lateral brow to the Orbital rim
    • fuses with orbital septum at thr im to make arcus marginalis
24
Q

What is the importance of the sentinel vein

A

Located 1.5cm superiolateral to LCT, perforating vein that enters TPF

  • identifies location of Orbital ligament
  • identifies nearby location of frontal branch - 1cm inferior and lateral to sentinal vein
25
Q

Describe the anatomy of the sensory innvervation in the brow region and motor innervation

A

Sensory

  • SupraTrochlear
    • exits foramen 1.7cm from midline
    • enters corrugator then frontalis
  • Supraorbital
    • exits foramen 2.7cm from midline
    • DEEP br: runs between periosteum+galea medial to STL >supplies frontoparital scalp
    • SUPERFICIAL - pierces frontalis 2-3cm above rim ->supplies forehead and anterio 1-3cm of scalp

**bulf of corrugator muscle is interposed b/w ST and SO

Motor

  • CN7 frontal branch - supply superior OO, trasnverse corrugator, frontalis, procerus
  • CN7 zygomatic branch - supply medial and inferior OO, oblique corrugator, DS,
26
Q

Describe the aesthetic features of a brow

A
  • medial brow starts at vertical line w ipsilat ala and medial canthus
  • lateral brow extends to oblique line with ipsilat ala and lateral canthi
  • arches and peak is in line wiht lateral limbus
  • women - brow lies above SOR, men it lies at SOR
  • distance hairline to brow 6cm M, 5cm W
27
Q

What are goals of brow lift

A
  • correct brow ptosis and secondary lateral upper lid fullness
  • correct trasnverse rhytids, glabellar rhytids and transverse nasal rhytids
28
Q

Desribe P/E for consideration of brow lift

A
  • Frontalis hyperactivity, brow ptosis
  • Rhytids -trasnverse, vertical, horizontal
  • Contour - SOR, frontal bossing
  • Brow position/symmetry
  • hairlines position
  • Upper lid - presence of lateral fullness
  • Lower lid - position, tone/laxity
29
Q

Classify options for brow rejuvenation

A

Non- Operative

  • botox
  • fat grafting

Operative

  • OPEN
    • Incisions
      • Hairline
      • Coronal
      • Bitemporal
      • Supraciliary
      • Midforehead
      • trans-blepharoplasty
      • limited scalp + trans bleph
    • Plane of Dissection
      • Subperiosteal
      • Subgaleal
      • Subcutaneous
  • Endoscopic
    • Plane of dissection
      • Subperiosteal
      • Subgaleal
30
Q

What are the advantages/disadvantage of each plane of dissection

A
  • Subperiosteal
    • Ind: glabella rhytids, ptosis
    • Adv: motion of all tissues in one
    • Disadv: limited effect on rhytids
  • Subgaleal
    • Adv: direct visualization and excision of corrugatprs. Good effect on rhytids
    • Disadv: sacrifice supraorbital nerve, indirect approach to rhytids
  • Subcutaneous
    • Adv: excellent for rhytids, can alter forehead height deformities
    • Dsiadv: high risk of complx including alopecia, ischemia
31
Q

What are methods of fixation?

A
  • Suture
    • tunnel in outer table cortex
  • Screw/Anchor
    • internal screw’Mitek anchor
    • endotine (resorbable)
  • Fibrin glue
32
Q

With direct skin excision how much brow elevation per amoutn skin excised in achieved?

A
  • Th closer to the brow, the greater the elevation
  • Brow 1:1
  • Hairline 1.5:1
  • Coronal 2:1
33
Q

What are 2 considerations whn selecting technique

  • hairline
  • rhytids
A
  • Hairline
    • if short forehead, can use coronal
    • If high forehead, use hairline ** because dont want hairline to migrate any more back
  • Rhytids
    • method of myoplasty - direct excision or botox
    • plane of dissection (subgaleal / subcut if deep significant rhytids
34
Q

What are complications of a brow lift

A
  • Flap necrosis
  • hematoma
  • elevation of hairline
  • asymmetric dynamic motion of forehead
  • Nerve injury (SON, CN7 frontal)
  • Descent, inadequate lateral correction
  • alopecia, poor scarring
    *
35
Q

Where is the SON most likely injured and how can this be avoided

A
  • Coronal incision: where branch is cut as it travels in galeal plane
  • Subgaleal dissection: where branch courses from periosteum to lie between periosteum and galea

To avoid injury - subperiosteal plane is safe as the nerve is above periosteum at all times

36
Q

Which structures must be released with a brow lift

A
  • ZOA
  • Orbital ligament
  • STL fusion plane at SOR
37
Q

Which strucutres are a risk of injury during brow lift?

A
  • Nerves
    • CN7 frontal br
    • SON: deep, superfcial, trunk
    • STN
  • Hair follicles
38
Q

What are the indications, adv and disadvantage of

  • Direct brow
  • MIdforehead
  • Hairline
  • Coronal
  • Trnasbleph
  • Temporal
A
  • Direct brow
    • male balding, deep rhytids
    • Adv: direct
    • disadv: scar visible
  • MIdforehead
    • male balding, deep rhytids
    • Adv: direct
    • disadv: scar visible
  • Hairline
    • high hairline
    • Adv: no movement of hairlines
    • Disadv: visible scar
  • Coronal
    • Low hairline
    • Adv: scar well hidden except if alopecia, will lengthen forehead
    • Disadv: more excision for movement,
  • Trnasbleph
    • Ind: glabellar rhytids
    • Adv: well hidden scar, direct corrugator excision
    • Disadv: no improvement laterally (crows feet) or forehead trasnverse, or brow elevation
  • Temporal
    • Ind: lateral crow feet, lateral brow ptosis
    • Adv: good treatment of lateral ptosis/rhytids, well hidden
    • Disadv: no tx of midline forehead rhytds/glabella. risk of temporal nerve injury
39
Q

Describe the coronal brow lift

A
  • Incision - placed 7-9cm behind hairline from ear root to ear root (unless combo w facelift
    • need ot have at leadt 5cm remaining of hair in front of incision once excision done
  • Plane - subgaleal but trasnsition to subcutaneous in temporal region to avoid injury to temporla n
  • SON - ID trunk, protect and release flap form SOR
  • Corrugators - fter identifying SON, corrugators medial to this - direct excision
  • Procerus - resect in mdline
  • Frontalis - interrupted to its attchments in glabella region + resection
    *
40
Q

Describe the endoscopic brow lift

A
  • Incisions 5 - midline, paramedian, temporal
  • PLane: Subperiosteal from midline/paramedian
    • Plane: Temporal - just above superficial leaflet of DTF - and dissect form lateral to medial to release STL, ZOA and orbital ligament
  • Strucutres to ID
    • SON - preserve and to ID corrugator
    • corrugator - incise periosteum 2cm above SOR, medial to SON and resect
    • Sentinal vein - to release ORL
  • Fixation - suture/anchor
41
Q
A