BLD 434 - Quiz 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Define the abbreviation AIDS and identify whether AIDS due to HIV infection is a primary or secondary immunodeficiency.

A

Acquired immune deficiency syndrome - it is a secondary immunodeficiency.

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2
Q

Identify whether HIV-1 or HIV-2 is more common in the U.S.

A

HIV-1

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3
Q

State whether the number of people infected with HIV worldwide has leveled off, declined, or is still increasing.

A

Worldwide the number of people living with HIV has stabilized/ leveled off

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4
Q

Identify the function of gp120 and gp41 in the interaction with host cell membranes and eventual infection of host cells.

A

It is the docking protein of HIV that binds directly to CD4 on target cell membranes into infecting them

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5
Q

Explain the difference between macrophage-tropic and lymphocyte-tropic HIV strains, and how they can change over time during HIV infection of an individual.

A

Macrophage-Tropic: HIV strains generally initiate infection at mucosal sites of entry by binding to CCR5 (HIV binds to CD4 and chemokine receptor CCR5 in mucosal sites), and preferentially infect macrophage and dendritic cells (as well as CD4+ T cells to a lesser degree (not as effective). Mucosal sites are where you are going to have macrophages constitutively present within the connective tissues. Most HIV infections that are passed by sexual contact, either homosexual or heterosexual contact, are called macrophage-tropic HIV strains.

Lymphocyte-Tropic: about halfway through an HIV infection in an individual, the strain mutate into another form, the lymphocyte-tropic form. HIV strains preferentially bind to CXCR4 (chemokine receptor) and preferentially infect CD4+ T lymphocytes (later in infection; hasten progression to AIDS). Very avidly attaches and replicates in CD4+ T Lymphocytes

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6
Q

Explain the function and importance of “reverse transcriptase” and “integrase” HIV enzymes in creating a permanent stable infection of a host cell.

A

Reverse transcriptase: copies viral RNA genome into double stranded cDNA.

Integrase: - an enzyme produced by a retrovirus that enables its genetic material to be integrated into the DNA of the infected cell.
- Gives viral RNA the chance to be copied by host machinery.

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7
Q

Explain when the Acute HIV Syndrome occurs following exposure to HIV and identify the symptoms of this syndrome. Is the infected individual infectious to others during acute HIV Syndrome? Do all patients develop these symptoms?

A

Initial infection (4-8 wks) has extremely high infectious where the patient may have flu-like symptoms and is highly infectious but they don’t know they’ve been exposed.

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8
Q

Explain why CD4+ T cell numbers temporarily plummet during the end of the acute infection stage of HIV, and then rebound at least partially.

A

CD4 cells will plummet temporarily due to being attacked by the initial HIV infection. CD4 cells will increase to a new set point when immune system kicks in (another good prognostic indicator of long term health).

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9
Q

Explain why combination antiretroviral therapy (ART) is used in fighting HIV infection instead of single drug therapy.

A

Combination therapy for HIV infection, in which several antiviral drugs are used together to try and avoid the rapid generation of drug-resistant mutant viruses that occurs when one of the drugs is used alone.

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10
Q

List the characteristics of HIV that make it very difficult to create an effective vaccine against HIV. (Your textbook only lists one. Think.)

A
  • HIV has a very high mutation rate because reverse transcriptase lacks proof-reading and antigens are always changing within an individual
  • Must target BOTH CD8 T cell response and mucosal antibody response to be effective
  • HIV remains latent until activated by a provirus
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11
Q

Serology

A

· Serology: study of the non-cellular components in the blood (i.e soluble molecules, usually proteins in the blood stream)

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12
Q

EIA

A

enzyme immunoassay (general type of test, adaptable to many antigens)

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13
Q

Window Period/Eclipse

A

the time between exposure resulting in infection and the presence of detectable serum antibody; antibody test is negative but infectious agent is transmissible during the window period

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14
Q

False Negative

A

supposed to be positive but test negative

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15
Q

False Positive

A

supposed to be negative but test positive

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16
Q

Identify the two main analytes that can be measured in serological tests for infectious disease.

A

Patient antibody and viral antigen

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17
Q

Explain the basics of E IA testing for detection of either patient antibody or antigen in patient serum. (Note: this must be set up differently if detecting patient antibody versus when detecting pathogen antigen in the patient sample)

A
  • Each well pre-coated with solid-Ag (HIV viral antigens).
  • Add a diluted sample of patient Ab (diluted serum).
  • Allowed to react.
  • If Ab that can recognize the disease is in the patient serum, it will immobilize to the Ag.
  • Wash away excess serum, add Ab with an enzyme bound to it (covalently conjugated).
  • Antiglobulin b/c conjugate has the ability to bind to constant domain of human Ab.
  • After incubation, conjugate washed away and colorless substrate added to the well.
  • If colored, positive for Ab for the disease.
  • If no color, negative for Ab for the disease.
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18
Q

List the drawbacks of the early generation EIA tests for HIV diagnosis, and how the “fourth generation” EIA test has limited these.

A

First generation problems: large window period of 45 days where someone could be infected but test negative b/c the test wasn’t sensitive enough, false positives due to human cell contaminants, could not detect HIV-2 infections.

Fourth generation has a decreased window period of 14 days where there are false negatives, can detect both HIV-1 and HIV-2. Still has problems with false positives. In this generation, you can also detect p24 antigen. Sensitivity increases.

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19
Q

Identify the confirmatory tests available for HIV diagnosis in adults (assuming the screening test is positive).

A

Antibody differentiation immunoassay

NAT - nucleic acid testing

Western Blot

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20
Q

Identify the preferred methodology for detecting HIV infections in newborn infants, and why the usual screening test for HIV cannot be used to diagnose HIV infections in infants

A

The best method is to test for viral nucleic acid (cDNA) when the baby is less than one month old (x2). PCR ee5 for HIV cDNA provirus in mononuclear cells.

  • qualitative PCR for HIV cDNA provirus in baby’s mononuclear cells
  • qualitative PCR for HIV virion RNA in baby’s plasma

Do this at 1 and 2 mos of age.

Can’t use standard screening methods b/c of passive IgG Ab from the mother could result in false positive test up to 18 mos of age.
Baby’s IgM Ab to HIV lacks specificity and isn’t adequate for testing.

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21
Q

Correlate an increase or decrease in HIV viral load to the success of drug therapy in the patient. Identify specifically what “HIV viral load” is measuring and the patient sample used.

A

An increase in viral load means drug resistance. A decrease in viral load means successful drug therapy. HIV viral load is measuring the amount of HIV viral RNA in the patient. Use blood for the sample

Successful therapy = decreased load

Resistance = increased load

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22
Q

Hepatitis

A

inflammation of the liver

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23
Q

Fecal-oral route

A

contaminated food/water leading to Hepatitis A and E

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24
Q

Blood/body fluids

A

Mode of infection of B, C, D

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25
Q

Parenteral

A

other than the intestine - leads to Hepatitis B, C, D

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26
Q

HBcAg

A

Important viral antigen/hepatitis B core antigen. A protein that surrounds viral DNA in the virus core. Is not detectable in the serum

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27
Q

HBeAg

A

Hepatitis Be antigen. Protein is also surrounding viral DNA in the virus core similar to HBcAg. Appears shortly after the HBsAg and indicates high viral replication and a high degree of infectivity

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28
Q

HBsAg

A

Hepatitis B surface antigen- a protein in outer virus envelope and in particles in blood. First HBV antigen to appear in serum (detectable between 2 to 12 weeks after exposure), and peaks during acute infection. Persistent HBsAg is an indication of chronic or active infection

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29
Q

anti-HBc

A

Anti-HBc comes in two forms of IgM and IgG. IgM appears first and is used as indicator of current or recent acute infection, it is useful for detecting core window. IgG then appears and persists for life-indicating past infection and immunity

30
Q

anti-HBs

A

appears during recovery and persists for years and provides protective immunity. A failure of infected patient to develop anti-HBs indicates chronic infection. This is an antibody produced in response to vaccination.

31
Q

Identify the main health concern associated with viral hepatitis (acute, chronic, etc.).

A

Chronic infection usually leads to cirrhosis or liver cancer.

32
Q

Recognize the significance of IgM isotype antibody, IgG isotype antibody, and viral Ag or nucleic acid (RNA or DNA) in general staging of viral infections by laboratory testing.

A

In adult patient serum, IgM isotype indicates a current or recent acute infection while IgG isotype indicates a current or past infection, and immunity to re-infection.

Newborns/infants differ from adults in that there is no IgG testing/results due to the fact that IgG is most likely through passive immunity from mother. There is virus-specific IgM isotype serum that indicates congenital infection

If there is a positive serological test for viral antigen or there is detection of viral RNA or DNA this indicates current infection

Viruses are not easily cultured so serological testing is very important

IgM-indicates a current or recent acute infection - when its by itself

IgG-indicates past infection and protection - by itself

G and M - indicate chronic infection

Ag or Nucleic acid-indicates current infection

In Newborns - only IgM is relevant, IgG could be from the Mom

33
Q

Identify the antibody immunoassay results which would indicate that someone had been previously vaccinated for hepatitis B, as opposed to past natural infection.

A

Previously vaccinated anti-HBS
Natural infection IgG anti-HBC

34
Q

Explain how a RIBA test (such as that used to confirm HCV infection) differs from a traditional western blot test.

A

Recombinant HCV proteins are blotted directly onto nitrocellulose membranes.

35
Q

Given the results of “hepatitis panel” tests for acute viral hepatitis, interpret the disease that the patient has and suggest whether further testing is warranted and what that testing should be.

A

Tests for:

IgM anti-HAV → monitor patient

IgM anti-HBc and HBsAg → begin aggressive treatment

anti-HCV and HCV RNA → confirmatory test if only anti-HCV, parenteral is blood-body route.

36
Q

TORCH testing

A

serological panel testing, testing prospective mothers for Ab to diseases associated with birth defects of in-utero death or for newborns if acute infection is transmitted from mother to baby

Serological panel to test prospective mothers for antibody to diseases associated with birth defects and/or in utero death

T - Toxoplasmosis (parasite)
O - Other Infections (HIV, HCV, etc)
R - Rubella
C - Cytomegalovirus
H - Herpes Simplex Virus

37
Q

Titer

A

measures the amount of antibody in the blood to determine if the patient has been exposed to a disease

38
Q

Heterophile antibody

A

IgM antibodies that are capable of reacting with similar antigens from two or more unrelated species (for EBV, sheep and cows are unrelated species)

39
Q

Herd immunity

A

protection from the spread of infection by vaccination-induce population immunity

40
Q

Identify which viruses (other common names) belong to the Herpes Virus Family.

A

Espstein-Barr Virus (EBV; Human Herpes Virus-4 (HHV-4))

Cytomegalovirus (CMV or HHV-5)

Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV-1 and HSV-2)

Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV or HHV-3)

Other Human Herpes Viruses (HHV-6, HHV-7, HHV-8)

41
Q

Identify the disease caused by Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV), the immune cell target of EBV and the receptor that it uses to target that cell, and the effect of EBV on the infected cell.

A

Causes: Infectious Mononucleosis (IM, “mono”)

Immune Cell Target: Infects epithelial cells of the oropharynx and B lymphocytes (via CD21)

Effect of EBV on the Infected Cell: undergoes polyclonal activation, proliferates, and secretes antibody.. Cells become activated to produce antibodies not because they have been activated by their particular antigen through BCR, but instead because they’re being activated by the presence of the Epstein-Barr Virus itself; B cells undergo activation, secrete IgM antibodies because they are not presenting any proteins for obtaining T cell help, so there is no affinity maturation, and no isotype switching occurs

42
Q

Associate detection/screening for heterophile antibodies with diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis.

A

Heterophile antibody is used in some of the screening tests in symptomatic individuals (of Infectious Mononucleosis) to see if they are infected with EBV

43
Q

Identify confirmatory testing for EBV infection, and the significance of these tests in disease staging.

A

About 20% of patients with EBV do not make heterophile antibody and give false negative testing in the Monospot; must be able to differentiate when symptoms (nonspecific flu symptoms) could also be associated with CMV, toxoplasmosis, or adenovirus infections

IgM antibody to viral capsid antigen (IgM anti-VCA) indicates acute disease (in asymptomatic individual) and show up early in infection

IgG anti-VCA also presents during late acute IM, but persists and could indicate previous infection with EBV

Antibody to EBV nuclear antigen (anti-EBNA) is the last patient antibody to appear, showing up during convalescence and persists for life

Could also have IgG EA-R/D, which is an early antigen present primarily during acute illness and disappears during immunity and recovery

44
Q

Identify the patient populations at greatest risk from cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection and the possible consequences of infection.

A

Usually asymptomatic in healthy individuals, but can be very severe in immunocompromised (HIV, transplant treatment, cancer treatment) and newborns (infected from mothers)

Possible Consequences: congenital infections; 10% of infected babies will exhibit symptoms of CNS and/or multiple organ infection

5% of infants will die; 50% of surviving symptomatic babies have long-term consequences (hearing loss, mental retardation, vision loss - babies infected with CMV can get cataracts due to CMV infection)

45
Q

Identify the problems associated with serological testing for antibody to CMV and the preferred methods of detecting CMV infection in the at-risk populations.

A

Serological tests for CMV must be interpreted carefully.

Assays for IgM anti-CMV have false negatives in newborns and immunocompromised and false positives from rheumatoid factor (RF) do not often rely on IgM testing modalities

Rapid detection is not readily available (need to document 4-fold rise in IgG anti-CMV titer in two serial specimens drawn about 4 weeks apart)

Minimum for a 4-fold would be a 1:16 (1:32 would be even stronger evidence of an acute CMV infection)

Newest EIA assay for acute disease diagnosis measures “low avidity IgG” antibody (prior to affinity maturation) - not widely available in the US yet

The most reliable diagnostic tests for acute CMV infection are performed on saliva, urine, or throat swab samples (detect virus itself, and urine is usually a very high titer of CMV virus), includes:

  1. Shell Vial cultures for viable virus - can detect infection in 24-72 hours (Specificity from immunofluorescent staining with monoclonal antibodies)- Not entirely common because viral culture storage is expensive and requires specialized facilities
  2. Quantitative PCR: for CMV DNA also gives rapid results and can help to stage disease and monitor effectiveness of antiviral therapy in either neonates or the immunocompromised who need treatment
46
Q

Identify the target tissue of HSV-1 and HSV-2 viruses and which is of most concern.

A

HSV-1: oral herpes; virus hides in dorsal root ganglia underneath the neck and reactivates as “cold sores” or “fever blisters”

HSV-2: herpes genitalis; sexually-transmitted disease affecting 17% of population between 14-49; causes genital lesions with fever, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and dysuria

Neither HSV-1 or HSV-2 are tissue specific, however.HSV-2 is the most serious of the two HSV infections and is thus of most concern

47
Q

Identify the testing available for detection of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infection, whether the Ag or Ab to the virus is detected by serology, and which test is currently able to distinguish between HSV-1 and HSV-2.

A

Serological testing by EIA, latex agglutination for viral antigen, or culture in shell vial followed by immunofluorescent staining are available (lack sensitivity and cannot distinguish between HIV-1 or HIV-2)

PCR detects viral DNA and can distinguish between HSV-1 and HSV-2 (rapidly replacing culture as the preferred method of detection but can only be used when active lesions are present to obtain sample)

48
Q

Identify the two diseases caused by Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV) and the reason why the viral infection reactivates.

A

Two Diseases: Varicella (Chicken Pox) as an acute disease and Herpes Zoster (Shingles) as a reactivation of latent disease

Following resolution of primary chicken pox, VZV retreats to sensory nerve dorsal ganglion cells and reactivates in about 20% of individuals (under stress) as “Shingles”.

Shingles is eruption of a painful blistering rash over the site of the nerve where VZV was latent (usually on the back or side of the trunk or one side of the face and not the other)
Usually occurs in those who have decreased Tc cell-mediated immunity (could be caused by stress)

49
Q

Identify the methods used to detect VZV infection.

A

Shell Vial Culture Method coupled with Immunofluorescent staining to identify the virus

PCR for VZV DNA detection - rapidly becoming the laboratory test of choice

Serology (EIA) used for establish immunity to VZV; 4-fold rise in paired acute/convalescent titers in diagnostics

50
Q

Identify the disease caused by Rubella virus and the most serious infection caused by Rubella.

A

Causes German Measles (may be acquired from infected individuals or congenitally when it is in the environment and endemic)

Most Serious Infection Caused by Rubella: Congenital Rubella Syndrome

  • In utero infection can be disastrous
  • baby may be stillborn, severe bone or cardiovascular defects, mental retardation, microencephaly, hepatomegaly / splenomegaly, cataracts (due to rubella infection on surface of the eye), purpura (small purple spots of bleeding into skin)
51
Q

Identify the methods used to detect Rubella infection and how a significant titer is interpreted regarding post-vaccination or as an indication of current infection.

A

Post-Vaccination Anti-Rubella IgG antibody level of greater than 15 IU/mL indicates immunity

EIA with synthetic Rubella peptides as the test target antigen is most common serological test

A 4-fold rise in IgM titer in samples drawn 5 days apart indicates current acute infection

IgM anti-Rubella in newborn indicates congenital disease (confirmed by positive culture or PCR for Rubella RNA)

No IgM or IgG means the person has not been vaccinate or infected (simply negative)

52
Q

Identify the causative agent of syphilis, the 2 primary modes of transmission, and the usual treatment of the disease if diagnosed early.

A

Causative Agent: Treponema pallidum ssp. Pallidum (sphirochete)

2 Primary Modes of Transmission: sexually-transmitted disease ((STD) or may be from a congenital infection, as well

Treatment is Diagnosed Early: Penicillin; without antibiotic treatment, the organism persist in the body and can progress to severe consequences in later stages of the disease

53
Q

nontreponemal tests

A

artificial test antigen consisting of a solution of cholesterol, lecithin, and cardiolipin to detect reagin antibodies

54
Q

treponemal tests

A

detect antibody specifically to treponemal antigens

55
Q

reagin

A

antibodies to cardiolipin that are not specific to syphilis, but actually due to antigen released by cell damage

56
Q

flocculation

A

microscopic precipitation; visualization of antigen antibody immune complexes that are in a high enough concentration that they fell out of solution - can see them as a precipitate on microscope slide; can also see on macroscopic level with the RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin Test) with the charcoal particles

57
Q

List the 4 stages of syphilis, the symptoms of each stage, and the time-frame in which each stage may be observed (following initial infection).

A

Primary Syphilis
- Well-defined painless lesion (chancre) with an ulcerated center and raised red border
- Usually on genitals about 1-6 weeks past exposure and infection
- Lesion will resolve on its own if untreated
- Female lesion is often internal in the vagina and may never be detected

Secondary Syphilis
- Occurs in 25% of untreated infections about 1-2 months after primary infection, but can overlap
- Organism spreads through body and causes generalized lymphadenopathy and flu-like symptoms - lots of viruses have these symptoms, really hard to see unless other characteristic symptoms are present
- Lesions common on trunk, palms of hands, and soles of feet - are highly contagious

Latent Syphilis
- No symptoms for one to many years despite organism presence (usually 10-30 years, but sometimes shorter - depends on general health status, nutritional status, etc.)

Tertiary Syphilis
- Develops 10-30 years later in about 30% of those who have latent syphilis that has never been treated

58
Q

List the three general types of testing available for diagnosing syphilis, the usual use of each general type of test, and categorize each specific test discussed in lecture into each of these general types.

A

Direct Spirochete Detection, Nontreponemal Tests, Treponemal Tests

59
Q

List the components of the test antigen (reagent) used for nontreponemal tests for syphilis.

A

Cholesterol, Lecithin, Cardiolipin

60
Q

Identify the only test that is currently approved to diagnose tertiary neurosyphilis and the patient sample used for this testing.

A

VDRL - Venereal Disease Research Laboratory Test

Cerebrospinal Fluid Sample

61
Q

Identify which type of test for syphilis loses sensitivity during the tertiary phase of infection (i.e. can give a false negative result in a patient who really has tertiary syphilis).

A

Nontreponemal Tests, VDRL (Veneral Disease Research Laboratory Test) and RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin Test)

62
Q

List the proper order of screening and confirmatory testing for syphilis, as it was classically performed, and how this has changed now with newer “reversed order” syphilis serology testing.

A

Classical: Nontreponemal, then Treponemal

Reverse Order: Treponemal, then Nontreponemal, if there are discrepent result, then follow up with TP-PA testing (gel agglutination test)

63
Q

Identify the causative agent of Lyme disease, the characteristic symptom of primary infection that is observed in 80% of patients, and disease sequelae that may be seen in chronic infection.

A

Causative Agent: Borrelia burgdorferi

Symptom of Primary Infection: Erythema migrans rash = “Bull’s eye” rash

Disease Sequalae in Chronic Infection: If untreated, organism spreads through the blood stream and may cause multiple lesions at sites distant from the bite; also migratory pain in joints, tendons, muscles, and bones may be exhibited; about 15% of patient has neurologic or cardiac involvement about 6 weeks after onset of infection, some patient can have facial palsy (drooping of one side of face due to nerve damage caused by immune response to organism); most common chronic symptom is large joint arthritis

64
Q

Identify the screening test for Lyme disease, whether a positive is diagnostic, and whether a confirmatory test is necessary (if so, ID the confirmatory test).

A

Screening Test - Not Diagnostic, positive tests require careful interpretation and correlation with clinical symptoms; negative tests should be retested or tested a minimum of two times a month apart - Negative tests do not rule out Lyme Disease

Traditional Enzyme Immunoassays (EIA) or Immunofluorescent Assay (IFA) lack sensitivity and specificity; run with patient serum samples

Now being replaced with new C6 (B. burgdorferi) Lyme ELISA (uses synthetic C6 peptide antigen) and has a very high specificity (99%) and sensitivity

Equivocal or positive screening tests are retested using western blot confirmatory tests

65
Q

Identify possible causes of biological false positive results in Lyme disease serology testing.

A
  • Syphilis and other treponemal diseases
  • Infectious mononucleosis - patient has a lot of nonspecific antibody being produced by infected B Cells
  • Autoimmune Diseases - rheumatoid arthritis or systemic lupus erythematosus
  • Rocky mountain spotted fever
66
Q

List the main distinguishing features of Group A b-hemolytic streptococcus (S. pyogenes) used to identify the organism in a microbiology laboratory.

A
  1. gram (+) cocci that grows in chains
  2. M protein (virulence factor)
  3. SpeA1 (virulence factor)
67
Q

Define M protein and SpeA1 and identify which is a super antigen. Describe the characteristics of these virulence factors that help S. pyogenes escape the host immune response.

A

M protein: helps the organism evade innate immune cell defenses- prevents phagocytosis- inhibits C3b deposition since it’s on surface of bacterium

SpeA1: streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin A1- second virulence factor that acts as a super antigen

68
Q

Describe how a super antigen activates T lymphocytes.

A

Superantigens cause non-antigen specific activation of large numbers of T lymphocytes by holding MHC & TCR together- when SAg binds MHC & TCR together, it conducts a huge cytokine release (cytokine storm) - this can be life-threatening if too many superantigens are present

69
Q

Describe the main clinical features of Impetigo and Group A Streptococcal pharyngitis. Identify which (or both?) is associated with Scarlet Fever, Rheumatic Fever, Acute Proliferative Glomerulonephritis, and Toxic Shock Syndrome.

A

Impetigo is streptococcal pyoderma, a skin infection assocaited with Acute Proliferative Glomerulonephritis.

Group A Streptococcal Pharyngitis is strep throat associated with Scarlet Fever and Rheumatic Fever.

Toxic Shock Syndrome is caused by huge amounts of superantigen causing a cytokine storm.

70
Q

Compare and contrast the efficacy of the ASO, anti-DNase B, and Streptozyme assays in diagnosis of past Group A Strep infections (Impetigo and Strep Throat).

A

ASO Test: A historic RBC lysis assay test; rarely performed to detect streptolysin O: antibody immune complexes. Positive in 80% of strep cases, but does not become positive in Strep Pyoderma due to a lack of sensitivity

Anti-DNase B assay: more sensitive than ASO.

Streptozyme test: a slide RBC screening test, Significant false positives and negatives in children; 2 seperate tests performed to achieve 95% sensitivity.