BLCWI Rationale Flashcards

1
Q

Dicloxacillin is active against:

a. Staphylococci
b. Enterococci
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. Staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acid stable penicillin

a. Dicloxacillin
b. Penicillin G
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. Dicloxacillin

Acid-stable penicillin:

  • Dicloxacillin
  • Ampicillin
  • Amoxicillin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Adverse effect of hypoprothrombinemia is associated with:

a. Cefotetan
b. Cefepime
c. Cefuroxime
d. Ceftriaxone

A

a. Cefotetan

Bleeding disorders/Hypoprothrombinemia:

  • Cefamandole
  • Cefmetadole
  • Cefoperazone
  • Cefotetan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which can be used to treat metallo beta-lactamase producing bacteria?

a. Ceftolozane-tazobactam
b. Ceftazidime-avibactam
c. Both
d. Neither

A

d. Neither

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

True or False:

Beta-lactamase inhibitors can be combined with penicillins or cephalosporins.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This may cause myopathy prompting creatine phosphokinase monitoring:

a. Daptomycin
b. Cycloserine
c. Clindamycin
d. Vancomycin
e. Flucytosine

A

a. Daptomycin

Cycloserine - TB
Clindamycin - Skin and soft-tissue infection against Streptococci & Staphylococci
Vancomycin - Red Man syndrome
Flucytosine - Thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Aztreonam has activity against:

a. Aerobic gram-negative bacteria
b. P. aeruginosa
c. both
d. neither

A

c. both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or False:

Penicillins are excreted into sputum.

A

True

Penicillin is also excreted into sputum and breast milk to levels 3–15% of those in the serum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Oxacillin is active against:

a. Streptococci
b. Staphylococci
c. Both
d. Neither

A

b. Staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The only first generation parenteral cephalosporin:

a. Cefazolin
b. Cefotetan
c. Ceftaroline
d. Cefuroxime

A

a. Cefazolin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Acid stable penicillin:

a. Oxacillin
b. Ampicillin
c. Both
d. Neither

A

b. Ampicillin

Acid-stable penicillin:

  • Dicloxacillin
  • Ampicillin
  • Amoxicillin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This may cause allergic pneumonitis in prolonged treatment:

a. Daptomycin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. Daptomycin

Daptomycin cause an allergic pneumonitis in patients receiving prolonged therapy (>2 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Drug active against Pseudomonas:

a. Ampicillin
b. Vancomycin
c. Both
d. Neither

A

d. Neither

Ampicillin - DOC for Shigella
Vancomycin - Creatinine clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which can cross the Blood Brain Barrier:
a. Tetracycline
b. Vancomycin
c. Both
d. Neither

A

b. Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The only fourth generation parenteral drug:

a. Cefepime
b. Cefotetan
c. Ceftaroline
d. Cefuroxime

A

a. Cefepime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which can be used to treat extended spectrum Beta-lactamase producing Enterobacteriaceae:

a. Ceftolozane-tazobactam
b. Ceftazidime-avibactam
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

Their coverage are:

  • Gr(-)
  • P. aeruginosa
  • Extended spectrum Beta-lactamase producing Enterobacteriaceae:
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which is resisted by Listeria monocytogenes infection:
a. Penicillin G
b. Ivermectin
c. Diethylcarbamazine
d. Bithionol
e. Praziquantel

A

a. Penicillin G

Bacteria Resistant to Penicillins Resistant to Staphylococcal Beta-Lactamase:

Listeria monocytogenes
● Enterococci
● Methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Second generation cephalosporin which crosses the Blood Brain barrier:

a. Cefuroxime
b. Cefotetan
c. Ceftaroline
d. Cefepime

A

a. Cefuroxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Glycopeptide which associated with the adverse reaction of infusion related flushing:

a. Vancomycin
b. Teicoplanin
c. Telavancin
d. Dalbavancin
e. Oritavancin

A

a. Vancomycin

Among the more common reactions to vancomycin is the so-called “red man” syndrome. This infusion-related flushing is caused by release of histamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Nafcillin is active against:

a. Staphylococci
b. Enterococci
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. Staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

This may cause psychosis and convulsion at high doses:

a. Cycloserine
b. Bacitracin
c. Daptomycin
d. Fosfomycin

A

a. Cycloserine

Bacitracin - Nephrotoxic
Daptomycin - Allergic pneumonitis
Fosfomycin - UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which can be used to treat anaerobic infection:

a. Ceftolozane-tazobactam
b. Ceftazidime-avibactam
c. Cefepime
d. Ceftaroline

A

d. Ceftaroline

Ceftaroline has increased binding to penicillin-binding protein 2a,which mediates methicillin resistance in staphylococci (anaerobic bacteria, resultingin bactericidal activity against these strains).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False:

Antistaphylococcal penicillins are resistant to Beta-lactamases.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Drug of choice for surgical prophylaxis:

a. Cefazolin
b. Cefoxitin
c. Cefofetan
d. Ceftriaxone

A

a. Cefazolin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

True or False:

Penicillin can be used to treat meningococcal meningitis.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the second line anti-TB drug which is a structural analog of D-alanine?

A

Cycloserine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Antimetabolite inhibitor of cystosolic enolpyruvate transferase:

A

Fosfomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Identify what generation of cephalosporins:

Cefazolin

A

1st-generation cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Identify what generation of cephalosporins:

Cefixime

A

3rd-generation cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Identify what generation of cephalosporins:

Cefoperazone

A

3rd-generation cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Identify what generation of cephalosporins:

Cefotetan

A

2nd-generation cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Identify if Narrow, Very Narrow, and Wider:

Amoxicillin

A

Wider spectrum penicillinase-susceptible agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Adverse effects of interstitial nephritis is associated with:

A

Methicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Identify if Narrow, Very Narrow, and Wider:

Penicillin G

A

Narrow-spectrum penicillinase-susceptible agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Interferes with a late stage in cell wall synthesis in gram (+) organisms. What drug is this?

A

Bacitracin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Identify this drug based on the mechanism of action:

Binds to the D-ala-D-ala Terminal of the nascent peptidoglycan pentapeptide side chain

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the third generation cephalosporins that do not penetrate the blood-brain barrier?

A

Cefixime
Cefoperazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the drug of choice for gonorrhea?

A

Cefixime (IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Identify what generation of cephalosporins:

Cefadroxil

A

1st-generation cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Identify if Narrow, Very Narrow, and Wider:

Penicillin V

A

Narrow-spectrum penicillinase-susceptible agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Identify what generation of cephalosporins:

Ceftazidime

A

3rd-generation cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Identify what generation of cephalosporins:

Cefazolin

A

1st generation cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the Beta-lactamase inhibitor?

A
  • Sulbactam
  • Clavulanic Acid
  • Avibactam
  • Tazobactam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Identify if Narrow, Very Narrow, and Wider:

Nafcillin

A

Very narrow spectrum penicillinase-resistant agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Identify this drug based on its mechanism of action:

Blocks the incorporation of D-Ala into the pentapeptide side chain of the peptidoglycan.

A

Cycloserine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Identify if Narrow, Very Narrow, and Wider:

Piperacillin

A

Wider-spectrum penicillinase-susceptible agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Identify this drug based on its mechanism of action:

Prevents the formation of N-acetylmuramic acid which is essential in peptidoglycan chain formation.

A

Fosfomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the Penicillin used for oropharyngeal infections?

A

Penicillin V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which can be used to treat MRSA infection:

a. Ceftriaxone
b. Cefotaxime
c. Cefepime
d. Ceftaroline

A

d. Ceftaroline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Drug of choice against Treponema pallidum:

a. Penicillin G
b. Penicillin V
c. Oxacillin
d. Ampicillin

A

a. Penicillin G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Dicloxacillin is active against:
a. Enterococci
b. Anaerobes
c. Both
d. Neither

A

d. Neither

Staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Excretion of Penicillin is mainly thru:

a. Renal
b. Billiary
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. Renal

Billiary - Nafcillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

This used to treat UTI even in pregnant women:

a. Cycloserine
b. Bacitracin
c. Daptomycin
d. Fosfomycin

A

d. Fosfomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Acid stable penicillin:

a. Penicillin V
b. Benzathine Penicillin
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. Penicillin V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Component of peptidoglycan bacterial cell wall:

a. N-acetylglucosamine
b. N-acetylmuramic acid
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which has activity against anaerobes:

a. Cefotetan
b. Cefaclor
c. Cefuroxime
d. Cefprozil

A

a. Cefotetan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which can be used to treat Enterobacter infection:
a. Ceftriaxone
b. Cefotaxime
c. Ceftazidime
d. Cefepime

A

d. Cefepime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

MOA is a cell wall synthesis inhibitor:

a. Ethionamide
b. Capreomycin
c. Cycloserine
d. Aminosalicylic acid
e. Bedaquiline

A

c. Cycloserine

59
Q

Carbapanem inhibited by renal dehydropeptidase:

a. Doripenem
b. Ertapenem
c. Imipenem
d. Metropenem

A

c. Imipenem

60
Q

True or False:

All beta lactam antibiotics inhibit bacterial cell growth by interfering with transpeptidation reaction.

A

True

61
Q

Carbapanem which may cause seizure in patients with renal failure:

a. Doripenem
b. Ertapenem
c. Imipenem
d. Meropenem

A

c. Imipenem

62
Q

Adverse effect of skin rashes in the setting of viral illness associated with:

a. Ampicillin
b. Oxacillin
c. Nafcillin
d. Piperacillin

A

a. Ampicillin

63
Q

Adverse effect of hepatitis is associated with:

a. Nafcillin
b. Oxacillin
c. Ampicillin
d. Piperacillin

A

b. Oxacillin

Nafcillin - neutropenia
Ampicillin - rash
Piperacillin - K. pneumoniae, P. aeruginosa

64
Q

Identify what generation of cephalosporins:

Cefepime

A

4th-generation cephalosporins

65
Q

Identify what generation of cephalosporins:

Ceftriaxone

A

3rd-generation cephalosporins

66
Q

Identify what generation of cephalosporins:

Cefuroxime

A

2nd-generation cephalosporins

67
Q

The patient has renal failure. Which of the following will not cause any problems for the patient?

a. Methicillin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Ampicillin
d. Nafcillin

A

d. Nafcillin

68
Q

If you will give Ampicillin to your patient which of the following should be your instruction to your patient?

a. Take the drug while standing up.
b. Take the drug 1 hour before eating food
c. Take the drug in the afternoon.
d. Take the drug at nighttime.

A

b. Take the drug 1 hour before eating food

69
Q

Resistance of the bacteria to Methicillin is largely due to:

a. Alteration of penicillin binding proteins.
b. Efflux
c. Impaired drug penetration
d. Beta-lactamase production

A

a. Alteration of penicillin binding proteins.

70
Q

The half life of Penicillin G in patients with renal failure is:

a. 8 hours
b. 15 hours
c. 20 hours
d. 10 hours

A

d. 10 hours

71
Q

Which of the following needs dose adjustment for renal failure?

a. Oxacillin
b. Nafcillin
c. Cloxacillin
d. Ampicillin

A

d. Ampicillin

72
Q

The most common adverse reaction of penicillins:

a. Renal Failure
b. Nausea
c. Hypersensitivity
d. Vomiting

A

c. Hypersensitivity

73
Q

Which among the following has the best coverage for Gram-positive bacteria?

a. Cefazolin 1 gen
b. Cefoxitin 2 gen
c. Ceftriaxone 3 gen
d. Cefepime 4 gen

A

a. Cefazolin 1 gen

74
Q

Which among these 2nd generationcephalosporins have coverage for anaerobic bacteria?

a. Cefuroxime
b. Cefoxitin
c. Cefamandole
d. Cefaclor

A

b. Cefoxitin

75
Q

The following are third generation cephalosporins except?

a. Ceftriaxone
b. Cefprozil
c. Cefixime
d. Moxalactam

A

b. Cefprozil

2nd-generation drug.

76
Q

What is the main basis of grouping the cephalosporins by generations?

a. Ability to cross the blood-brain barrier
b. Gram-negative bacteria coverage
c. Price
d. Penicillinase resistance

A

b. Gram-negative bacteria coverage

Higher generations have more enhanced gram-negative coverage.

77
Q

Which of the following drugs has no activity against Gram-positive organisms?

a. Aztreonam
b. Amoxicillin
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Cefazolin

A

a. Aztreonam

78
Q

The main problem for beta-lactamase inhibitors would be?

a. Unique beta-lactamases
b. Heat resistance
c. Induction of nephrotoxicity
d. Hypersensitivity reactions

A

a. Unique beta-lactamases

79
Q

Which of the following carbapenems has poor entry to the cerebrospinal fluid?

a. Meropenem
b. Doripenem
c. Ertapenem
d. Imipenem

A

c. Ertapenem

All carbapenems can penetrates well into CSF except for Ertapenem.

80
Q

Which of the following carbapenems have the longest half-life?

a. Meropenem
b. Ertapenem
c. Doripenem
d. Imipenem

A

b. Ertapenem

81
Q

True about Vancomycin:

a. Active against Gram-positive anaerobes.
b. Kills staphylococci slowly and only if they are actively dividing.
c. All of these.
d. Poorly absorbed into the gastrointestinal tract.

A

c. All of these.

82
Q

Proposed mechanism of action of Daptomycin:

a. Inhibition of cell wall transpeptidases
b. Binds to cell membrane causing depolarization
c. Inhibits cell wall synthesis as a D Ala-D-Ala analog.
d. Binds to penicillin binding proteins to disrupt peptidoglycan synthesis

A

b. Binds to cell membrane causing depolarization

a. Bacitracin
c. Vancomycin
d. Cycloserine (?)

83
Q

Bacitracin is only administered topically because of:

a. Weak intravenous bioavailability
b. Poor intestinal absorption
c. Bile solubility
d. Nephrotoxicity

A

d. Nephrotoxicity

84
Q

Which of the following is mainly a second-line drug for Tuberculosis?

a. Dalvabancin
b. Cycloserine
c. Fosfomycin
d. Bacitracin

A

b. Cycloserine

85
Q

Fungal origin of Clindamycin:

a. Streptomyces erythreus
b. Streptomyces lincolnensis
c. Streptomyces griseus
d. Micromonospora purpurea
e. Streptomyces mediterranei

A

b. Streptomyces lincolnensis

86
Q

True or False:

Pencillin has good penetration into the eye.

A

False

Penicillin penetration into the eye, prostate and CNS is poor.

87
Q

True or False:

Intravenous administration of penicillin G is preferred than intramuscular route.

A

True

IV administration preferred because IM injection of large doses can cause irritation and local pain.

88
Q

Which among the group would be the least likely option as treatment for beta lactamase producing organisms?

a. Ertapenem
b. Cefazolin
c. Ceftazidime-avibactam
d. Cefepime

A

b. Cefazolin

All are resistant to beta lactamases except for Cefazolin.

89
Q

Which among the following is not suitable as an empiric treatment for hospital acquired pneumonia?

a. Meropenem
b. Piperacillin-Tazobactam
c. Ertapenem
d. Cefepime

A

c. Ertapenem

All are suitable for treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa (hospital-acquired) except ertapenem.

90
Q

Which among the following would require dose adjustment in renal disease patients?

a. Nafcillin
b. Oxacillin
c. Vancomycin
d. Nafcillin

A

c. Vancomycin

91
Q

The following drugs improve patient compliance because of less frequency of dosing except?

a. Benzathine penicillin
b. Fosfomycin
c. Piperacillin-tazobactam
d. Procaine penicillin

A

c. Piperacillin-tazobactam

92
Q

Identify the drug based on its mechanism of action:

Inhibits formation of N-acetyl-muramic acid

A

Fosfomycin

93
Q

Identify the drug based on its mechanism of action:

Binds cell membrane via Ca-dependent mechanisms leading to cell death

A

Daptomycin

94
Q

Identify the drug based on its mechanism of action:

Binds PBP to stop transpeptidation reaction

A

Amoxicillin

95
Q

Identify the drug based on its mechanism of action:

Binds D-Ala-D-Ala terminus of peptidoglycan

A

Vancomycin
Oritavancin

96
Q

Identify the drug based on its mechanism of action:

Inhibits alanine-racemase and D-Alanyl-D-Alanine ligase

A

Cycloserine

97
Q

Identify the drug based on its mechanism of action:

Disrupts cell membrane permeability

A

Oritavancin
Telavancin

98
Q

Identify the drug based on adverse effects:

Myopathy

A

Daptomycin

99
Q

Identify the drug based on adverse effects:

Red man syndrome

A

Vancomycin

100
Q

Identify the drug based on adverse effects:

Ototoxicity

A

Vancomycin

101
Q

Identify the drug based on adverse effects:

Seizure

A

Imipenem

102
Q

Identify the drug based on adverse effects:

Pseudomona colitis

A

Ampicillin

103
Q

Identify the drug based on adverse effects:

Neutropenia

A

Nafcillin

104
Q

Identify the drug based on adverse effects:

Congenital deformity

A

Telavancin

105
Q

Identify the drug based on adverse effects:

Disulfiram like reaction

A

Cefazolin

106
Q

Adverse effect of bleeding disorder is associated with:

a. Cephalosporins
b. Avibactam
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. Cephalosporins

107
Q

Oxacillin is active against:

a. gram(-)
b. anaerobes
c. both
d. neither

A

d. neither

108
Q

Drug active against Pseudomonas:

a. Ampicillin
b. Piperacillin
c. Both
d. Neither

A

b. Piperacillin

109
Q

Acid-stable penicillin:

a. Ampicillin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

110
Q

Resistance mechanism to penicillin:

a. Alteration of the PBP’s
b. Production of efflux pump
c. Beta-lactamase production
d. All of the above
e. Neither

A

d. All of the above

111
Q

Cephalosporins has activity against:

a. E.coli
b. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. E. coli

112
Q

Which can be used to treat meningococcal meningitis:

a. Cefotetan
b. Cefotaxime
c. Both
d. Neither

A

b. Cefotaxime

113
Q

Which can be used to treat carbapenemase-producing bacteria:

a. Ceftolozane-tazobactam
b. Ceftadizime-avibactam
c. Both
d. Neither

A

b. Ceftadizime-avibactam

114
Q

Which cephalosporins is excreted through the bile:

a. Cefotaxime
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Both
d. Neither

A

b. Ceftriaxone

115
Q

Which has activity against anaerobes:

a. Cefoxitin
b. Cefaclor
c. Cefuroxime
d. Cefprozil

A

a. Cefoxitin

116
Q

Which can be used to treat meningicoccal meningitis:

a. Ceftriaxone
b. Cefotaxime
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

117
Q

Hypoprothrombinemia may be caused by this cephalosporins:

a. Cefoperazone
b. Cephadrine
c. Cefoxitin
d. Ceftizoxime

A

a. Cefoperazone

118
Q

Anti-pseudomonal activity is seen with this cephalosporin:

a. Ceftizoxime
b. Cefotaxime
c. Both
d. Neither

A

d. Neither

Anti-pseudomonal activity is seen through:

  • Cefoperazone
  • Ceftazidime
119
Q

Adverse effect of disulfiram-like reactions is associated with:

a. Cefotetan
b. Cefepime
c. Cefuroxime
d. Ceftriaxone

A

a. Cefotetan

120
Q

This is highly nephrotoxic thus is only used topically:

a. Cycloserine
b. Bacitracin
c. Daptomycin
d. Fosfomycin

A

b. Bacitracin

121
Q

This is cell wall synthesis inhibitor is produced by Streptomyces orchidaceous:

A

Cycloserine

122
Q

Lipopeptide which binds to bacterial cell membrane causing depolarization and rapid cell death:

a. Cycloserine
b. Bacitracin
c. Daptomycin
d. Vancomycin

A

c. Daptomycin

123
Q

Aztreonam has activity against:

A. Gr(+)
B. Anaerobes
c. Both
d. Neither

A

d. Neither

124
Q

True or False:

Penicillins have little activity against Gram-negative rods.

A

True

125
Q

Which has activity against anaerobes?

a. Cefoxitin
b. Cefotetan
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

126
Q

Which cephalosporin is excreted thru the urine?

a. Cefuroxime
b. Cefaclor
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

127
Q

This is cell wall synthesis inhibitor is an analogue of phosphoenolpruvate:

a. Cycloserine
b. Bacitracin
c. Daptomycin
d. Vancomycin
e. Fosfomycin

A

e. Fosfomycin

128
Q

Drug active against Pseudomonas:

a. Ampicillin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Ticarcillin
d. Penicillin V

A

c. Ticarcillin

129
Q

Lipoglycopeptide which can disrupt cell membrane potential and inhibit RNA synthesis:

a. Vancomycin
b. Teicoplanin
c. Telavancin
d. Dalbavancin
e. Oritavancin

A

e. Oritavancin

130
Q

Anti-pseudomonal activity is seen with this cephalosporin: Select all that apply.

a. Cefixime
b. Ceftazidime
c. Cefepime
d. Ceftriaxone
e. Cefotaxime

A

b. Ceftazidime
c. Cefepime

131
Q

Excretion of Nafcillin is primarily thru:

a. Renal
b. Biliary
c. Both
d. Neither

A

b. Biliary

132
Q

Cephalosporins has activity against: Select all that apply.

a. Enterococci
b. Streptococci
c. E. coli
d. L. monocytogenes (Listeria monocytogenes)
e. MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus)
f. K. pneumoniae

A

b. Streptococci
c. E. coli
f. K. pneumoniae

133
Q

Drug of choice against endocarditis:

a. Penicillin G
b. Penicillin V
c. Nafcillin
d. Ampicillin

A

c. Nafcillin

134
Q

Carbapenem administered with Cilastatin:

a. Doripenem
b. Ertapenem
c. Imipenem
d. Meropenem

A

c. Imipenem

135
Q

Excretion of Oxacillin is thru:

a. Renal
b. Biliary
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

136
Q

Drug of choice against Beta hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis:

a. Penicillin G
b. Penicillin V
c. Oxacillin
d. Ampicillin

A

a. Penicillin G

137
Q

Adverse effect of seizure if given at high doses is associated with:

a. Penicillin G
b. Oxacillin
c. Ampicillin
d. Piperacillin

A

a. Penicillin G

138
Q

Adverse effect of bleeding disorder is associated with:

a. Cefotetan
b. Cefepime
c. Cefuroxime
d. Ceftriaxone

A

a. Cefotetan

139
Q

True or False:

Antipseudomonal penicillins are resistant to Beta-lactamase hydrolysis.

A

False

140
Q

Which can be used to treat Listeria monocytogenes infection:

a. Ceftriaxone
b. Cefotaxime
c. Both
d. Neither

A

d. Neither

141
Q

True or False:

Oral absorption of Amoxicillin is impaired by food intake.

A

False

142
Q

Adverse effect of acute kidney injury when combined with Vancomycin is associated with:

a. Piperacillin
b. Oxacillin
c. Ampicillin
d. Penicillin G

A

a. Piperacillin

143
Q

True or False:

Antupseudomonal penicillins are susceptible to Beta-lactamase hydrolysis.

A

True

144
Q

Glycopeptide which can be administered intramuscular:

a. Vancomycin
b. Teicoplanin
c. Telavancin
d. Dalbavancin
e. Oritavancin

A

b. Teicoplanin