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Seminar Exams > Black & Yellow Exam > Flashcards

Black & Yellow Exam Flashcards

1
Q

1 mSV = __ rem

A

0.1

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2
Q

If the total body is exposed to a dose of 4500cGy in a single exposure, most liekly cause of death is __.

A

Cerebral edema

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3
Q

Linac have what kind of target?

A

Transmission

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4
Q 
Which does not ionize directly?
p+ 
neutron
alpha
electron
A

neutron

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5
Q 
Monitoring of dose rate and field symmetry is best accomplished by using:
Pocket dosi
Ion chamber
TLD
Geiger counter
A

Ion chamber

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6
Q

In the pancreas, where do most tumors originate from?

A

Head

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7
Q

Which of the following are used for area surveys? (select all that apply)
ion chamber
parallel plate chamber
GM counter

A

ion chamber

GM counter

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8
Q

According to NRC, MPD for non-radiation workers is ___ rem/yr.

A

0.1

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9
Q

Largest paranasal sinus cavity is ___.

A

Maxillary

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10
Q

Photoelectric interactions of a 60 keV beam are greatest in __.

A

bone

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11
Q 
Which is the most radiosensitive?
Sp cord
heart
lung
liver
A

lung

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12
Q

The stomach is in which quadrant?

A

LU quadrant

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13
Q

Where is a sarcoma most likely to mtastasize?

A

Lung

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14
Q

Most common primary brain tumor is __.

A

Glioma

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15
Q

Most common site fro mets spread of carcinoma of the penis is __.

A

Inguinal nodes

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16
Q

Hypofractionation is:

A

Tx given in fewer fractions than is standard

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17
Q

The epiglottis covers the __.

A

Larynx

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18
Q

In the normal adult male the prostate is located ___ to the bladder.

A

Inf

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19
Q

The lower constricted portion of the uterus is called:

A

cervix

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20
Q 
The inguinal nodes are generally included in which of the following tx sites?
cervix
vulva
prostate
rectum
A

vulva

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21
Q

The td 5/5 of the whole liver using standard fractionation (180-200cGy/day) is:

A

2500-3000 cGy

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22
Q

When treating the entire CNS axis, the bottom of the spine port generally extends to the level of ___ when encompassing the cauda equina.

A

S2

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23
Q

A multiple field technique (3 or more fields) is generally utilized when treating pituitary tumors, opposed 2 lateral fields, to avoid an excessive dose to what structure?

A

temporal lobes

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24
Q

What quadrant is the spleen located in?

A

LUQ

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25
Q

What ext landmark can be used to localize the top of the larynx?

A

Thyroid prominence

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26
Q

Bifurcation of trachea is at __.

A

T4/T5

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27
Q

The vallecula is located at the level of which of the following anatomical structures?

A

Hyoid bone

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28
Q

The inf border of a larynx port for vocal cord carcinoma should anatomically correspond to:

A

Cricoid cartilage

29
Q

What type of lung cancer has the highest instance od mets at diagnosis?

A

Small cell

30
Q

Which of the followin are encompassed in a “German helmet” radiation port when treating ALL?
Cribiform plate
Meninges
Post retina

A

All of the above

31
Q

A strontium-90 applicator may be useful in the tx of which of the following diseases of the eye?
Retinoblastoma
Malignant melanoma
Pterygium

A

Pterygium

32
Q

The td 5/5 of the whole brain is __.

A

4500 cGy

33
Q 
Which is the most radiosensitive?
Liver
Spine
Brain stem
Optic chiasm
A

Liver

34
Q

A non-osseous tumor of the bone marrow is __.

A

Multiple myeloma

35
Q

The false vocal cords are located at __ to the glottis.

A

Sup

36
Q

Why is a tumor of the parotid gland frequently treated with ispilateral beam arrangement?
to avoid the spine
to avoid the eyes
to avoid the contra parotid

A

to avoid the contra parotid

37
Q 
When treating with orthovoltage xrays, the PDD will increase with all of the following except:
increasing FS
increasing kV
increasing mA
increasing the distance
A

increasing mA

38
Q

When manipulating a CT image, increasing hte width of the widow:
Decreases contrast
Increases latitude
Increases speed

A

Decreases contrast

Increases latitude

39
Q

TD 55/ both whole lungs:

A

1500-2500 cGy

40
Q

RBE is dependent on which of the following? (Select all)
Radiation quality
Radiation dose per fraction
Tissue irradiated

A

All

41
Q 
When dealing with OER and anoxic tissue, which would be most effective?
6 MV photons
Protons
Neutrons
Electrons
A

Protons

42
Q

Which is required for fabricating custom blocks? (select all that apply)
Source axis distance
Source image distance
Source to block tray distance

A

Source image distance

Source to block tray distance

43
Q 
To verify that the radiation field and the light field are aligned on a 10 MV accelerator, you could use:
Tissue eq phantom and ion chamber
Mechanical distance indicator and paper
A shielding block and redi pack
Readi pak, pen and ruler
A

Readi pak, pen and ruler

44
Q

When a FS is changed during the course of tx, which are true? (select all)
Tx depth must change
Physician must incl changes in rx
MUs or time must be recalced

A

Physician must incl changes in rx

MUs or time must be recalced

45
Q

2 major energies associated with Co-60 beta decay are gamma energies of

A

1.17 and 1.33 MeV

46
Q

The wedge angle refers to “the angle through which an isodose curve is tilted at the central ray of a beam at a specified depth.” The rec depth is:

A

10 cm

47
Q

go over 209-211

A
48
Q

The proximal and distal margin around a soft-tissue sarcoma should be at least __ cm.

A

5

49
Q 
In a 120 deg arc rotation technique, the center of the high dose zones would be:
Deeper than iso
Displaced toward surface
At iso
Same shape as 360 deg rotation
A

Displaced toward the surface

50
Q

Which of the following is true regarding electron beams?
Directly ionizing due to negative charge
Less likely to interact with air than photons
Have a higher LET than photons

A

Directly ionizing due to negative charge

Have a higher LET than photons

51
Q

A pt is usually treated at 100 SSD. Pt must be treated on a stretcher at 135 SSD. For the tumor dose and size tx area to remain the same as originally planned, which of the following statements is true? (Select all that apply)
Col setting will inc
MU setting will inc
Exit dose will slightly inc

A

All

52
Q

Backscatter factors are independent of:

A

SSD

53
Q

If 1.5cm is added to the inf border of a tx port, what happens to the original iso if you are not using asym jaws?
Shifts 0.75 cm sup
Shifts 0.75 cm inf

A

Shifts 0.75 cm inf

54
Q

Restraining a pt w/o consent can be considered:
battery
assault

A

both

55
Q

Normal platelet count:

A

300,000

56
Q 
Bone marrow suppression occurs when treating:
Skull
Femur
Pelvic bones
Vertebrae
A

Pelvic bones

57
Q

Does bleomycin or adriamycin sensitize the heart?

A

Adriamycin

58
Q

Which route delivers hyperalimentation?
IM
Oral
IV

A

IV

59
Q

When a pt is treated w/more than 1 beam, misalignment between POP beams can occur due to displacement of the:
taeget
col axis of rotation
gantry axis of rotation

A

All

60
Q 
Which of the following has the least radiosensitivity (most radioresistant)?
bone marrow
lymph tissue
muscle
mature cartilage
A

mature cartilage

61
Q 
Angle of mandible is located at:
C1
C3
C5
C7
A

C3

62
Q

Vocal cords are within:
Larynx
Trachea

A

Larynx

63
Q

Ext landmark for carina:

A

Angle of Louis

64
Q

What is the primary reason to angle the gantry posteriorly when treating Grave’s disease?
To avoid divergence into the lens
To assure coverage of the posterior orbit
To increase dose to orbital tissue
To assure coverage of protruding eye

A

To avoid divergence into the lens

65
Q

For pts w/bladder cancer, the bladder should be full or empty during tx?

A

Empty

66
Q 
What is the most potent chemical modifier of radiosensitivity to X and Gamma Rays?
5FU
Oxygen
Misonidazole
Adriamycin
A

Oxygen

67
Q

Regarding “flatness” of an MV beam, which of the following is true?
Beam flatness changes w/depth due to scatter and decreased intensity at the field edge
Adequate flatness is defined as +/- 3% over 80% of the field at the measured depth
Flatness profiles may be used to determine symmetry

A

All

68
Q 
The most common presenting symptom of Wilm's tumor is:
Fever
non-tender mass
bone pain
nausea
A

non-tender mass

Seminar Exams (4 decks)

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