BL.2.9: Type 3 Immunopathologies, Myeloid neoplasms Flashcards

1
Q

Arthus reaction and serum sickness are local and general manifestations of immune complex disease; describe the mechanism of tissue damage. Discuss why this is sometimes called ‘innocent bystander injury.’

A

The intermediate complexes get stuck in the basement membrane. There, they activate complement by binding C1q and initiating the classical complement cascade. C3a and C5a attract neutrophils, which arrive and release a variety of inflammatory factors, including the proteases cathepsin G and elastase; and hydrogen peroxide, which by activating metalloproteinases also contributes to the proteolytic degradation of the basement membrane. C3a and C5a will, as anaphylatoxins, release histamine and other mediators from mast cells, increasing the inflammatory reaction (â–ºand they may cause hives).Therefore, the basement membrane and surrounding tissues are innocent bystanders that get damaged.

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2
Q

Indicate the critical size at which immune complexes get stuck in basement membranes.

A

Complexes of just the right size: ‘about a million daltons’. They can activate complement but are below the size that is rapidly removed by the RES.

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3
Q

Describe ‘one-shot’ serum sickness. Make a chart showing antigen, antibody and immune complex levels in relation to time and to symptoms.

A

About 10-14 days after the administration of a large dose of animal serum, fever, malaise, rash and itch, and arthralgia develop. Hives may be observed. Examination will reveal tender lymphadenopathy, and urinalysis may show increased red blood cell casts and protein. Inflammatory markers in the blood will be increased (C-reactive protein, erythrocyte sedimentation rate) and total hemolytic complement decreased.

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4
Q

Discuss the types of tissues in which damage is most likely to occur from deposition of immune complexes.

A

Simple biophysics says that complexes will be trapped most in capillary beds where there is most filtration of blood; that is, where there is net outflow of fluid. For example, any location that must be kept wet qualifies:

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5
Q

Discuss the immunological mechanism of a typical Type III disease involving exogenous antigen.

A
  1. Exposure to a lot of antigen starts withno, or only very small, complexes.2. Complex formation in relative antigen excess, so they are smaller than optimal-proportions complexes; in fact, they may be just the size to get lodged in basement membranes. â–ºThat is the time that symptoms begin.They persist a week or more.3. As antibody production increases, exponentially, a time will come where equivalence between the antibody in circulation and the remaining antigen is achieved, and large complexes form.Then the large complexes are readily cleared by the RES.
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6
Q

Discuss how urticaria could result from interaction of antigen with either IgE or IgG antibody.

A

Antigen + IgG: Immune complexes form, get stuck in basement membrane of vessels, C3a and C5a as anaphylatoxins, release histamine from mast cells, causing hivesOr, can just be a Type 1, IgE allergic response.

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7
Q

Name 4 different kinds of human immune complex disease or problem and indicate a type of antigen involved in each condition.

A

Actinomycetes –> Farmer’s lungStrep Pyogenes –> GlomerulonephritisAnimal antibodies –> Serum sicknessHepatitis –> Similar to serum sickness

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8
Q

Discuss the meaning of finding a fluffy white precipitate in a patient’s serum after a day in the refrigerator.Include the name used for such precipitates, the most likely composition, and the interpretation of the phenomenon.

A

Fluffy white precipitate = cryoglobulinIt means that an immune complex has formedThese are ‘mixed’ cryoglobulins, being antigen + antibody

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9
Q

Define rheumatoid factor and discuss its components.

A

One of the oldest known autoantibodies is ‘rheumatoid factor,’ RF, often present in the blood of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and some other conditions. It is an IgM antibody to the patient’s own IgG.

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10
Q

Discuss the pathogenesis of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Describe the diagnosis of this condition by fluorescent antibody technique, and name the pattern of resulting fluorescence.

A

Symptoms begin 10-14 days after infection (strep throat, scarlet fever, impetigo of skin) and are typical of Type III, with the kidney being the most affected site. Signs and symptoms include nausea and vomiting, fever, malaise, hypertension, reduced urine output, hematuria, joint pain and rash. Serum complement levels are decreased. Diagnosis is by history and renal biopsy. Treatment is symptomatic and supportive, and includes antibiotics. â–ºThe disease is usually self-limiting and recovery can be uneventful with proper care. It is seen nowadays mostly in developing countries, where treatment with antibiotics may be delayed or unavailable, and it can still be fatal.Lumpy bumpy antibodies in basement membrane.

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11
Q

Discuss the pathogenesis of hypersensitivity pneumonitis, for example Farmer’s Lung.

A

It is caused by exposure to thermophilic Actinomycetes, filamentous bacteria which are found in moldy hay and silage. After chronic exposure by inhalation, the farmer develops serum IgG antibodies. Then one day, perhaps when the hay has been unusually damp and is now drying and aerosolizing spores, she inhales enough antigen that antigen-antibody complexes form in the lungs as the mold proteins diffuse through the alveoli into the capillaries. â–ºComplement and neutrophils cause the symptoms; this is often called an ‘allergic’ disease but it is Type III, not Type I. An acute attack will start 4 to 8 hours after the exposure, with shortness of breath, a dry cough, malaise, fever, and tachycardia. Most episodes are rather more chronic, with similar but milder symptoms, to which arthritis is sometimes added.

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12
Q

Compare and contrast MPN and MDS in terms of the bone marrow, the peripheral blood, potential outcomes, and the utility of cytogenetic findings in each.

A

Similarities:Both are clonal, neoplastic disorders that can progress to marrow failure or acute leukemia. They can both be traced back to problems with pluri/multipotential stem cells. Both show hypercellular marrow (almost all of the cells in the marrow are hematopoietic). They both progress from chronic (low blast-cell content) to actute (high blast-cell content).Differences:CMPD: increased proliferation of myeloid cells (one or more types). See elevated counts of these types in the peripheral smear and on the CBC.MDS: Perturbed” maturation of one or more types of myeloid precursors

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13
Q

Describe the phases of PV.

A

Early PV: Mold red blood cell increase, JAK2 mutationPolycythemic phase: arterial and venous thrombosis, hemorrhage, splenomegaly, true increase in hematocritMarrow: hypercellular, decreased iron stores, normochromic/cytic RBC, neut/basophilia, thrombocytosisPost-polycythemic phase: increasing splenomegaly, possible weight loss, night sweats, feverMarrow: fibrosis, osteosclerosis, precursors in sinuses, less precursors in marrow, leukoerythroblastosis

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14
Q

Discuss in general terms the pathogenesis of the myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN) and how knowledge of the pathogenesis has aided in diagnosis and treatment of MPN.

A

Activation of intracellular signaling pathways• Tyrosine kinases, activators of signaling pathways, have been implicated• The archetypal tyrosine kinase in this regard; the BCR-ABL1 protein• Abnormal kinases necessary but not sufficient for MPN development• Progression of MPN to AML or marrow fibrosis due to accumulations of genetic perturbations

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15
Q

What is the prognosis of CML

A

Prognosis of CMLKnowledge of the BCR-ABL1 gene and its tyrosine kinase protein product facilitated the development and use of the targeted therapeutic agent imatinib to treat CML.a. The complete cytogenetic response rate to imatinib (i.e. the Philadelphia chromosome goes away) is 70-90%.b. The 5-yar progression free survival and overall survival rate for imatinib is 80-95%.

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16
Q

What is the prognosis of PV?

A

Prognosis of PV1. A small number (2-3%) of patients will develop AML; AML development may depend on prior cytoxic therapy to reduce re cell mass – i.e. the patient may get t-AML.2. Patients may succumb to thrombosis/hemorrhage, increasing myelofibrosis and subsequent marrow failure, or AML.3. Median life expectancy is 10 years.

17
Q

What is the Prognosis of ET?

A

Prognosis of ET1. A small number (around 5%) of patients will develop AML; AML development may depend on prior cytoxic therapy to reduce re cell mass – i.e. the patient may get t-AML.2. ET is a fairly indolent disorder. Patients may succumb to increasing myelofibrosis and subsequent marrow failure or AML.

18
Q

What is the prognosis of PMF?

A

Prognosis of PMF1. A potentially greater number (5-30%) of patients will develop AML; AML development may depend on prior cytoxic therapy to reduce re cell mass – i.e. the patient may get t-AML although AML development in PMF has been reported in people who did not receive cytotoxic therapy.2. Patients may succumb to increasing myelofibrosis and subsequent marrow failure or AML.3. The median survival is variable but potentially relatively short compared to the other MPN that have been discussed (70-110 months).

19
Q

Compare and contrast MPN and MDS in terms of the bone marrow.

A

MPN marrow is typically hypercellular and MDS marrow is often hypercellular. Bone Marrow CellsMPN:• Little or no erythroid or granulocytic dysplasia• A spectrum of megakaryocytic dysplastic changes• Less than 20% blasts; in the early phase less than 5% cells• Variable increases in myeloid lineages; panmyelosis in some instancesMDS:•Hyperplasia of erythroid, granulocytic, and megakaryocytic precursors; erythroid hyperplasia often predominates

20
Q

Compare and contrast MPN and MDS in terms of the peripheral blood.

A

MPN Periferal BloodA. Whether there is a erythrocytosis, granulocytosis, thrombocytosis, or an increase in more than one myeloid cell line depends on the MPN.B. In the early, chronic phase of MPN blasts do not exceed 5% in the peripheral blood. By definition blasts never exceed 20% in the peripheral blood.C. In the fibrotic phases of primary myelofibrosis and the other there are findings in the peripheral blood known as the leukoerythroblastic reaction.MDS Peripheral Blood • Usually anemia with anisocytosis that is often macrocytic• Low reticulocyte count• Less frequently neutropenia and dysplastic neutrophils•Less frequently thrombocytopenia and dysplastic platelets in the peripheral blood

21
Q

Compare and contrast MPN and MDS in terms of the utility of cytogenetic findings.

A

MPNmost common abnormalities are BCR-ABL t(9:22), and JAK2V16FMDSCytogenetic abnormalities are found in 40 to 85% of MDS casesA clonal cytogenetic abnormality confirms a clonal neoplastic processMost common MDS cytogenetic abnormalities: del(5q-), del(7q-), +8Cytogenetic abnormalities have prognostic significance in MDS

22
Q

Discuss the significance of the JAK2V16F mutation in the diagnosis of MPN and in which MPN this mutation is found.

A

• JAK2V16F results from a point mutation• JAK2V16F is a constitutively activated tyrosine kinase• Variably found in PV, ET, and PM• JAK2V16F facilitates diagnosis of these MPN entities

23
Q

Describe the phases of CML.

A

Chronic Phase CML• May be asymptomatic; may have symptoms related to splenomegaly; may have non-specific symptoms• Very hypercellular marrow with granulocytic hyperplasia; megakaryocytes normal or increased with abnormal morphology• Less than 5% blasts by definition• In the peripheral blood there is a striking leukocytosis with neutrophils at all stages of maturation (but less than 2% blasts)• There will ALWAYS be basophilia and usually eosinophilia in the peripheral blood• There is usually athrombocytosisAccelerated Phase CML• Persistent/increasing number of WBC, splenomegaly, thrombocytosis, thrombocythemia, not responsive to non-imatinib therapy• Greater than 20% basophils in the peripheral blood• Clonalcytogenetic evolution• Progressive fibrosis with clusters or sheets of megakaryocytes• 10-19% myeloblasts in the blood or bone marrowBlast Phase CML• Greater than 20% blasts in the peripheral blood and/or bone marrow• 70-80% AML; 20-30% ALL – implications about cell of origin• Dysplastic changes may be found in the bone marrow

24
Q

Describe the clinical findings of ET.

A

ET Clinical Aspects Thrombosis, miscarriage, JAK2Blood and Bone Marrow• Normocellular or slightly hypercellular marrow• Increase, clustered atypical megakaryocytes• Platelet count >450,000/uL; large and giant platelets• Normal red cells; mild granulocytosis possible

25
Q

Describe the phases of PMF.

A

Pre-fibrotic Phase of PMF • Generally asymptomatic• At best mild hepatosplenomegalyFibrotic Phase PMF Clinical Aspects • Minority patients are asymptomatic, symptoms of splenomegaly, weight loss, night sweats, fatigue, weakness• Anemia, possibly severe Fibrotic Phase Blood and Bone Marrow• Overt reticulin/collagen fibrosis• Osteosclerosis• Heamtopoieitc precursors in marrow sinuses• Increase, clustered atypical megakaryocytes• Leukoerythroblastosis

26
Q

Describe how chronic myelomonocytic leukemia CMML resembles a myeloproliferative neoplasm.

A

Clinical aspects are similar to MPN: night sweats, fatigue, weight loss, splenomegaly.Labs look similar too: hypercellularity in marrow, granulocytic and monocytic hyperplasiaBottom line: there is proliferation; proliferating cells may or may not be dysfunctional and/or dysplastic (which is different than MPN).

27
Q

Describe how CMML resembles a myelodysplastic syndrome.

A

There is variable dysplasia and ineffective production of some cell lines leading to peripheral cytopenias.