Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Progress Tests > Bitemedicine > Flashcards

Bitemedicine Flashcards

1
Q

Symptoms of hyperviscousity

A

Headache, blurred vision, flushing, palmar erythema, itching after a bath, burning pain in extremities, increased risk of thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Medication in patients with polycythaemia vera

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

EPO levels in polycythaemia vera

A

Low (negative feedback)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mutation in 95% of patients with polycytaemia vera

A

JAK2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Management of polycythaemia vera

A

Weekly phlebotomy
Aspirin
Hydroxyurea (in patients at very high risk of thrombosis e.g. older age)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Symptoms of polycythaemia vera

A

Headache, blurred vision, flushing, palmar erythema, itching after a bath, burning pain in extremities, increased risk of thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pathophysiology of essential thrombocytosis

A

Proliferation of megakaryocytes increases platelet count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Symptoms of essential thrombocytosis

A

Bleeding (platelets dysfunctional)

Clotting (more platelets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mutation seen in 50% of patients with essential thrombocytosis

A

JAK2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bone marrow biopsy in essential thrombocytosis

A

Increased megakaryocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Management of essential thrombocytosis

A

Aspirin

Hydroxyurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which haematological malignancy is gum hypertrophy most associated with?

A

AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What condition does myelodysplasia predispose to?

A

AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Translocation associated with AML

A

t(15;17)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Features of the acute promyelocytic leukaemia subtype of AML

A

Younger patients (around 45yrs)
Associated with DIC
t(15;17) translocation
Good prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is myelodysplasia?

A

Neoplastic proliferation of immature myeloid cells with evidence of dysplasia
30% progress to AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bone marrow biopsy in myelodysplasia

A

Blast cells raised but less than 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Blood film in AML

A

Immature myeloid cells

Auer rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Bone marrow biopspy in AML

A

More than 20% myeloblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Genetics of CML

A

Philadelphia chromosome common (causes BCR-ABL gene)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Blood film in CML

A

Raised granulocytes, but most of these aren’t blasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bone marrow biopsy in CML

A

Raised granulocytes, but most of these aren’t blasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Blast cell count in chronic phase CML

A

Less than 10% blast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Blast cell count in accelerated phase CML

A

Less than 20% blast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Blast cell count in blast phase CML

A

Over 20% blast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is myelofibrosis?

A

Myeloproliferative condition whereby there is neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells, particularly megakaryocytes, leading to marrow fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Risk factors for myelofibrosis

A

Older age

Radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Mutation seen in around 50% of patients with myelofibrosis

A

JAK2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Teardrop RBCs of blood film

A

Myelofibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

FBC in myelofibrosis

A

Anaemia, others are low or variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy in myelofibrosis

A

“dry tap” on aspirate

marrow fibrosis on biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Management of myelofibrosis

A

Chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What age does polycythaemia vera tend to onset?

A

50-70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are actinic keratoses?

A

Pre-malignant scaly spots on the skin
Dues to sun exposure
May develop into squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

SCC prognosis

A

Good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Risk factors for malignant melanoma

A 
Older age (not so significant as BCC or SCC
Sun exposure
Previous skin cancer 
Family history of skin cancer 
Fair skin
Multiple / atypical moles
Immunosuppression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the most common type of melanoma?

A

Superficial spreading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Characteristics of superficial spreading melanoma

A

Grows horizontally before deepe
Younger patient
Back, chest, arms, legs
Flat, large, irregularly pigmented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Characteristics of nodular malignant melanoma

A

Rapidly growing
Middle aged
Sun exposed areas
Pigmented nodule may bleed and ulcerate

40
Q

Symptoms of malignant melanoma

A 
Large size
Dark
Uneven boarders
Sensory changes eg itching
Crusting/ bleeding
Systemic symptoms
41
Q

Management of malignant melanoma

A

Excision
Topical adjuvant chemotherapy
Lymph node clearance (if involved)
Systemic adjuvant chemotherapy (if high grade)

42
Q

First line in PE

A

Rivaroxaban

43
Q

Management of asymptomatic primary PE <2cms

A

Disacharge and review in clinic

44
Q

Management of symptomatic or >2cms primary PE

A

aspirate with 16-18G cannula

45
Q

Management of unsuccessful aspiration of primary Pneumothorax

A

Chest drain and admit

46
Q

Management of secondary PE <1cm

A

Admit for high flow O2 and observe

47
Q

Management of secondary PE 1-2 cm

A

aspirate with 16-18G cannula

48
Q

Management of unsuccessful aspiration of secondary PE

A

Chest drain and admit

49
Q

Management of secondary Pneumothorax >2cms

A

Chest drain and admit

50
Q

Management of undisplaced intracapsular hip fracture without significant comorbidities

A

Internal fixation with dynamic hip screw

51
Q

Management of undisplaced intracapsular hip fracture with significant comorbidities

A

Hemiarthroplasty

52
Q

Management of displaced intracapsular hip fracture without significant comorbidities

A

Total hip replacement

53
Q

Management of displaced intracapsular hip fracture with significant comorbidities

A

Hemiarthroplasty

54
Q

Management of intertrochanteric hip fracture

A

Internal fixation with dynamic hip screw

55
Q

Management of subtrochanteric hip fracture

A

Internal fixation with intermedullary nail

56
Q

Organism that causes pneumonia with red sputum

A

Klebsiella

57
Q

Gender more common in PSC

58
Q

Gender more common in PBC

59
Q

Treatment of cluster headaches

A

High flow O2 and SC or nasal triptan

60
Q

Which haematological malignancy is associated with gum hypertrophy

61
Q

Risk factors for PBC

A

Middle aged female

Other autoimmune conditions

62
Q

Risk factors for PSC

A

Middle aged male

IBD

63
Q

Presentation of PSC

A 
Often asymptomatic
Fatigue
Pruritis
Jaundice
Hepatomegaly
64
Q

Presentation of PBC

A 
Often asymptomatic
Fatigue
Pruritis
Jaundice
Hepatomegaly
65
Q

Antibodies in PBC

A

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA)

66
Q

Antibodies in PSC

67
Q

Imaging in PBC

68
Q

Imaging in PSC

69
Q

Management of PBC

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid
Cholestyramine
Replace fat soluble vitamins
Liver transplant if end stage

70
Q

Management of PSC

A

Cholestyramine
Replace fat soluble vitamins
Liver transplant if end stage

71
Q

Management of high risk HPV but no cell changes on cervical screening

A

Repeat HPV smear in a year. If no high risk HPV then return to routine screening. If high risk HPV then look for cell changes. If cellular changes, refer to colposcopy. If no cell changes then further smear in 2 years and refer to colposcopy if still positive for HPV

72
Q

Management of inconclusive smear

A

Repeat in 3 months. If still inconclusive refer for colposcopy

73
Q

Management of asymptomatic gallstones

A

Reassurance

74
Q

Tumour marker to monitor pancreatic cancer

75
Q

First line in peripheral arterial disease

A

Supervised exercise programme

76
Q

First line in acne vulgaris

A

Topical retinoids or topical clindamycin with or without topical benzoyl peroxide
Mental health screen and education

77
Q

Second line in acne vulgaris

A

Oral doxycycline or COCP

78
Q

First line in mild acne rosacea

A

Topical abx

79
Q

First line in moderate / severe acne rosacea

80
Q

Symptoms of acne rosacea

A

Papules / pustules
Telangiectasia
Flushing

81
Q

Medications to avoid in acne rosacea

A

Vasodilator meds

82
Q

Symptoms of seborrheic dermatitis

A

Redness over nose that may spread

Dandruff

83
Q

First line in seborrheic dermatitis

A

Anti-fungal shampoo and cream

84
Q

Symptoms of pityriasis rosea

A

Initial oval herald patch followed by widespread rash

85
Q

Management of pityriasis rosea

A

Reassurance. May offer symptom relief e.g. creams

86
Q

Symptoms of lichen planus

A

Purple itchy rash on the wrists with oral involvement

87
Q

Management of lichen planus

A

Topical steroids

88
Q

Demographic of bullous pemphigoid

89
Q

Management of bullous pemphigoid

A

Oral steroids

90
Q

Management of pemphigus vulgaris

A

Oral steroids

91
Q

When to check urate in gout

A

4-6 weeks after attack

92
Q

Key antibodies in Sjogren’s syndrome

A

anti-Ro, anti-La

93
Q

Treatment for Sjogren’s syndrome

A

Symptomatic e.g. eyedrops

DMARDs

94
Q

Symptoms of dermatomyositis

A

Proximal muscle aches and weakness
Rash (typically purple rash on eyelids)
Papules over finger joints
Oedema

95
Q

Creatinine kinase in dermatomysitis

96
Q

Management of dermatomyositis

A

Steroids

Avoid sun exposure and topical steroids for rash

97
Q

Features of scleroderma

A 
Calcinosis
Raynauds
Oesophageal dysmotility
Tight skin
Telangiectasia

Progress Tests (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions