biotechniques and experiments needed Flashcards

1
Q

Griffith experiment (1928)

A

AIM: observe and prove the transformation principle

2 strains of strep used:
1. R strain: non virulent
2. S strain: virulent due to polysaccharide capsule that protects them from immune system

EXPERIMENT: creation of 4 mice
1.R strain mice lived
2.S strain mice died
3. heat killed S strain mice lived
4. !!! mix of heat killed S strain and live R strain mice DIED

CONCLUSION: transformation principle - a molecule/some material was exchanged between killed S and live R cells that transformed R cells and made them virulent. ALSO TRANSFORMATION IS HEREDITARY

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2
Q

Avery experiment (1944)

A

AIM: identify whether RNA/DNA/proteins was the transforming factor

EXPERIMENT:
-removal of lipids and carbs from sample so only DNA/RNA/proteins were present
-preparation of 4 tubes using S strain cell extract:
1. control tube containing all 3
2. tube with protease (no proteins) –> only DNA/RNA
3. tube with DNAse –> only RNA/proteins
4. tube with RNAse –> only DNA/proteins
!!introduction of R strain bacteria in each of the tubes

CONCLUSION: DNA is the transformation principle and carrier of cell genetic material because transformation only failed to occur in the tube containing DNAses

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3
Q
A
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3
Q

Hershey and Chase experiment (1952)

A

AIM: use of bacteriophages to prove whether proteins/DNA are inserted into cells in transformation (further proof of what was shown by avery)

EXPERIMENT: two sets of bacteriophages cultivated:
1. in radioactive sulfur medium
2. in radioactive phosphorus medium
-infection with E coli
-separation by centrifugation

CONCLUSION:
-Ecoli injected with S35 phages were not radioactive meaning the proteins were not incorporated in bacterium
-Ecoli injected with P32 phased WER radioactive meaning DNA was incorporated into cell
HENCE: DNA is the transformation principle

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3
Q

CHARGAFF experiment and conclusion

A

-used TLC to separate the bases of DNA
CONCLUSIONS: (4)
1. 4 nucleotides are not present in equal amounts
2. different species have different nucleotide content
3. A=T and C=G
4. cells making up tissues within organism share the same nucleotide content

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3
Q

diameter of DNA

A

2nm

!!!! stays constant because a purine is always being paired with a pyrimidine and so their combined length doesn’t change

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3
Q

how many base pairs can fit in one period of DNA

A

10.5
(period = same point going down helix)

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3
Q

why is RNA a lot more unstable and reaction

A

OH on carbon 2 of the ribose sugar opens itself to attack

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3
Q

Fast vs slow renaturation of DNA

A

FAST: rapid cooling of denatured DNA –> lower probability of collision between complementary bases on strands –> increases hybrids that contain irregular base pairings –> LIMITED RENATURATION

SLOW: gradual temperature cooling of DNA –> higher probability of correct collisions so produces highly/fully renatured strands

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4
Q

Relationship between extent of DNA denaturation/renaturation and absorption using photospectrometry

A

Absorption increases as denaturation increases (due to destruction of nitrogenous rings present in double helix which exposes the bases more)

HENCE:
single stranded DNA has highest absorption, fast renatured DNA has mid absorption, slow renatured DNA has low absorption

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5
Q

spectrophotometry

A

used to determine concentration of DNA due to direct proportion

!!SOS: RNA has a higher absorbance than DNA because it is single stranded

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6
Q

Gel electrophoresis of DNA

A

-separation of DNA fragments based on their size/molecular weight
-uses agarose gel with electrolyte solution and an electrical supply

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7
Q

RNA electrophoresis

A

-requires denaturing gel (containing formaldehyde) to eliminate any secondary folding

CHARACTERISTICS OF A SAMPLE THAT IS INTACT:
1. 28S and 18S prominent bands of the rRNA (most abundant)
2. slight smear of mRNA between them

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8
Q

protein electrophoresis

A

-SDS PAGE: sodium dodecyl sulfate polyacrylamide gel

-proteins denatured and boiled in SDS, which breaks 3ary structure, prevents reformation of higher structure and coats with negative charges
! reducing agent added for breaking of covalent bonds like S-S
-molecular weight in daltons

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9
Q

restriction enzyme use

A

-hydrolysis of phosphodiester bonds in specific location without the use of ATP
-sticky ends created

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10
Q

Southern blot

A

identifies a specific gene within a mix of DNA post gel electrophoresis
-use of a nylon filter
-use of a radioactive probe

(not used much now because PCR and sequencing are easier)

11
Q

how are the results of a northern blot interpreted and verified

A

housekeeping gene is used to see if the same amount of RNA has been added into the different wells

11
Q

Northern blot

A

determines extent of gene expression via detection of specific RNA molecules in sample of RNA
-use of nitrocellulose filter
-use of radioactive probe

12
Q

FISH

A

located genes present on chromosomes and can identify chromosomal translocation

12
Q

In situ hybridisation

A

localises specific nucleic acid targets to determine gene loci
-fixation of tissue using paraffins and addition of probe

13
Q

PCR

A

Amplifies DNA sample of interest
-addition of: sample DNA, dNTPs, primers, TaqP
-3 rounds of temp changes
-denaturation, annealing, extension

14
Q

rtPCR

A

Amplifies RNA targets by converting it into cDNA

-incubation with reverse transcriptase and oligo primers for cDNA production
-PCR is then run

!! SOS: determination of target sequence is QUANTITATIVE

15
Q

microarrays

A

-detects expression of several genes simultaneously (TRANSCRIPTOME OF CELL- all RNA transcript sequences)
-RNA isolation and reverse transcription into dCNA
-labeled with diff fluorescent markers and placed in oligo-containing wells

16
Q

Sanger sequencing

A

-sequences exact base sequence of a gene
-separation into 4 vessels to add each ddNTP (halts synthesis)
-separation using electrophoresis
-visualised with autoradiography

17
Q

automated equencing

A

-more efficient version of sanger sequencing
-fluorescent labeling of dNTPs and detection via computer

18
Q

pyrosequencing

A

-very fast sequence of bases
-relies on the release on pyrophosphates during DNA rep

19
Q

monoclonal antibodies vs polyclonal antibodies

A

MONO: recognizes only a single epitope of an antigen and is extremely specific
POLY: produced by multiple immune cells and so have the affinity for the same antigen but different epiptomes

EPIPTOME: specific part of an antigen recognised by an antibody

20
Q

monoclonal antibody production

A

-identify the presence of a protein by being antigen specific
-antigen injected into animal which produces antibodies for it
-antibodies hybridised with myeloma cancer cells for fast replication

21
Q

Western blotting

A

Identify a specific protein within a protein extract separated by SDS PAGE using antibodies
-incubations (2) with antibodies that are labeled with fluorochromes
-housekeeping genes are also used for regulation

22
Q

ELISA test

A

-enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

2 types: antigenic and serological

-informs of the presence and abundance of an antigen
-serum added to wells containing fluorescently marked antibodies and intensity of fluorescence observed shows qualitative abundance of antigen present
!FASTER version of western blot

23
Q

immunofluorescence microscopy

A

-detection and localisation of antigens within tissue slice
-tissue extracted and embedded on slide
-fluorochrome marker
-visualised under microscope