Bioscience Board Flashcards

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1
Q

condition marked with low levels of CO2 due to breathing excessively that can lead to dizziness and numbness in hands and feet

A

respiratory alkalosis

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2
Q

hypercalcemia results from excess or decreased parathyroid activity?

A

excess

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3
Q

Use of prescription drug Lasix (furosemide) will cause a decrease in which:

a) vitamin B
b) vitamin C
c) iron
d) potassium

A

potassium

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4
Q

elevated TSH indicates:

  • hypothyroidism
  • hyperthyroidism
  • Graves Disease
A

hypothyroidism

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5
Q

carotid arteries supply

  • cerebrum
  • cerebellum
A

cerebrum

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6
Q

does hypercalcemia result from excess or decreased parathyroid activity?

A

excess parathyroid activity

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7
Q

use of prescription drug Lasix (Furosemide) will cause a decrease in:

  • vitamin C
  • vitamin B
  • potassium
  • iron
A

potassium

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8
Q

Schilling test for pernicious anemia tests blood, stool or urine?

A

urine

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9
Q

parasympathomimetic activity can be mimicked by intake of:

  • barbiturates
  • beta agonists
  • seratonin agonists
A

barbiturates

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10
Q

the most likely first sign of L sided CHF in an elderly woman is difficulty breathing, nausea, or headache?

A

difficulty breathing

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11
Q

is endometriosis confirmed by laparoscopy or ultrasound?

A

laparoscopy

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12
Q

achilles tendon reflect is tested at which nerve root: L3, L4, L5 or S1?

A

S1

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13
Q

T/F: CoQ10 decreases blood pressure and should be taken with caution with antihypertensive drugs

A

true

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14
Q

dark blood in stool most likely indx: gastric bleeding, internal hemorrhoids, colon cancer

A

gastric bleeding

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15
Q

patient with colicky pain in low back radiating to groin, nausea, vomiting, hematuria, and difficult urination. Rule out: cholecystitis, urolithiasis, UTI

A

urolithiasis

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16
Q

erythrocyte sedimentation rate is used to measure: hematocrit, RBC formation, inflammatory processes

A

inflammation

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17
Q

A CPK test measures the different forms of creatine phosphokinase (CPK) in the blood to evaluate what?

A

possible MI

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18
Q

Tennis elbow is lateral or medial epicondylitis?

A

lateral

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19
Q

what are the most common forms of Hepatitis

A

A, B, C

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20
Q

which BMI is considered obese: 20, 25, 30?

A

30

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21
Q

what is the breath to compression ratio for CPR

A

2 to 30 for adults and children

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22
Q

your practice can respond to a request from a patient to amend his records within 60 days, 90 days, anytime as long as it’s relevant to patient care

A

60 days

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23
Q

T/F: calcium supplements interfere with absorption of thyroid drugs such as levothyroxin for patients suffering with hypothyroidism

A

true

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24
Q

A notice of privacy practices outlining how health info will be used in a practitioner’s office must be: signed by patient, posted in office, included in the medical record?

A

posted in office

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25
Q

ECG is also referred to as…

A

EKG

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26
Q

what class of drugs is used for hypercholestrolemia? ace inhibitors, beta blockers or HMG Co-A Reductase inhibitors

A

HMG Co-A reductase inhibitors

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27
Q

A Babinski is positive when:

  • The big toe plantar flexes & toes fan out
  • The big toe dorsiflexes & toes fan out
A

dorsiflex and fans

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28
Q

A potential side effect of Lipitor (atorvostatin calcium) is: loss of visual acuity, weight loss, myalgia/muscle pain

A

muscle pain/myalgia

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29
Q

excess niacin intake can cause: gastric bleeding, dysphagia or facial flushing/itching

A

facial flushing/itching

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30
Q

sulfonamide is a: anticholinergetic, antibiotic or, adronergic agonist

A

antibiotic

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31
Q

what tests are used to monitor effectiveness of iron therapy:

  • BUN
  • LV fx
  • hemoglobin & reticulocyte
A

hemoglobin & reticulocyte

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32
Q

which is a common symptom from OD on a salicylate: bruising, decreased HT rate, tinnitus?

A

tinnitis

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33
Q

which cardiac dysrhythmia is fatal if not corrected immediately:

  • A fib
  • V fib
  • ventricular tachycardia
A

V fib

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34
Q

the apex of the HT is level with the:

  • 4th ITC
  • 5th ITC
  • 3rd ITC
A

5th ITC

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35
Q

when exercising, a person with arterial insufficiency will most likely report:

  • pain in both legs
  • swelling in lower leg
  • lower limb turning blue
A

pain in both legs

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36
Q

Positive McBurney indx:

  • appendicitis
  • acute cholecystitis
  • gastric ulcer
  • pancreatitis
A

appendicitis

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37
Q

what does McMurray test for?

A

lateral and medial meniscus

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38
Q

Boas’s sign is hyperaesthesia (increased or altered sensitivity) below the right scapula can be a symptom in ….

A

acute cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder)

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39
Q

what is the dermatome of the nipple: T7, T9, T4?

A

T4

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40
Q

herberden nodes are a sign of osteo or rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Osteo

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41
Q

long term use of corticosteroids cause all but the following: cushing’s syndrome, hirsutism, exophthalmos, abdominal striae

A

exopthalmos

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42
Q

a colonoscopy can show all of the following except: colon cancer, polyps, duodenal ulcers, hemorrhoids

A

duodenal ulcers

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43
Q

phenylpropanolamine is what kind of drug? (antihistamine, analgesic, decongestant or expectorant)

A

decongestant

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44
Q

guaifenesin is what kind of drug: decongestant, antihistamine, analgesic or expectorant?

A

expectorant

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45
Q

acetominophen is what kind of drug: decongestant, antihistamine, analgesic or expectorant?

A

analgesic

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46
Q

pseudoephedrine is what kind of drug: decongestant, antihistamine, analgesic or expectorant?

A

decongestant

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47
Q

chlorpheniramine is what kind of drug: decongestant, antihistamine, analgesic or expectorant?

A

antihistamine

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48
Q

T or F: antihistamines induce insomnia

A

F - cause drowsiness

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49
Q

T or F: decongestants induce insomnia

A

T

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50
Q

which of the following does not include acetaminophen? advil, excedrin, anacin, tylenol

A

Advil - its a brand of ibuprofen

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51
Q

T or F: gastric bleeding is a common s/e of acetaminophen?

A

F

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52
Q

T or F: acetaminophen is an NSAID?

A

F - its an antipyretic / analgesic

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53
Q

which of the following does not include ibuprofen? Motrin IB, Nuprin, Advil, Aleve?

A

Aleve - sodium naproxin NSAID

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54
Q

Tagamet, Pepsid, Axid and Zantac:

  1. neutralize stomach acid
  2. are H2 blockers that bind to histamine receptors in the ST wall
A

are H2 blockers that bind to histamine receptors in the ST wall

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55
Q

Maalox, Mylanta and Di-Gel:

  1. neutralize stomach acid
  2. are H2 blockers that bind to histamine receptors in the ST wall
A

neutralize stomach acid

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56
Q

which B vitamin leads to pernicious anemia when deficient: B1, B5, B9, B12

A

B12

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57
Q

which of the following vitamins leads to elevated levels of homocysteine when xu? folic acid, A, C, D

A

Folic acid (B9) - homocysteine is an amino acid that when elevated can lead to stroke or coronary HT disease

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58
Q

Niacin (nicotinic acid- B3) may increase the effects of what kind of drugs? HBP, antihistamines, NSAIDS

A

high blood pressure

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59
Q

T or F: vitamin D regulates Calcium

A

T

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60
Q

T or F: nicotinic acid (niacin B3) increases insulin resistance which can increase blood glucose levels in diabetics

A

T

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61
Q

which B vitamin is key for the nervous system: B12, B6, B2

A

B6 - pyridoxine

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62
Q

chromium picolinate is most often used in patients with: arthritis, gastric ulcers, diabetes?

A

diabetes - lowers blood sugar

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63
Q

T or F: Beta blockers are antagonists that block the receptor sites for the epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline) on adrenergic beta receptors, of the sympathetic nervous system, which mediates the fight-or-flight response

A

T

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64
Q

what is the herb Saw Palmetto most frequently used for?

A

controlling enlarged prostate BPH

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65
Q

what is the herb Yohimbe most frequently used for?

A

ED

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66
Q

which general lab test is done to test for autoimmune disorders? ANA, ESR, HLA B27

A

ANA - antinuclear antibody “test against self”

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67
Q

a foreign protein or carbohydrate complex that causes an immune response: antigen or antibody

A

antigen

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68
Q

a protein produced by the body’s immune system that fights foreign substances: antigen or antibody

A

antibody

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69
Q

which is most commonly found in SLE: leukopenia, leukocytosis or polycythemia?

A

leukopenia - deficient WBC

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70
Q

T or F: calcium channel blockers vasodilate blood vessels

A

T

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71
Q

A Schilling test for pernicious anemia involves the collection of Blood, Stool, or Urine?

A

urine

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72
Q

T or F: Buerger disease is a recurring progressive inflammation and thrombosis (clotting) of small and medium arteries and veins of the hands and feet, strongly associated with use of tobacco products

A

T

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73
Q

HCG is produced by: pituitary, placenta, ovary, follicle?

A

placenta

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74
Q

what does it indx if a woman in her 3rd trimester has increased nitrites and leukocyte esterase? possible miscarriage, preeclampsia, cystitis?

A

cystitis - UTI

75
Q

inverted nipples and orange peel skin are signs of: Paget’s disease of the breast, inflammatory breast cancer, mastitis

A

inflammatory breast cancer

76
Q

what is the circuit that carries oxygenated blood from the L ventricle to the body and returns deoxygenated blood from body to R atrium? pulmonary circ or systemic circ

A

systemic circ - oxygenated away from HT and deoxy back to

77
Q

where does the R side of the HT pump blood to?

A

the LU

78
Q

where does the L side of the HT pump blood to?

A

the whole body except the LU

79
Q

the dub of lub dub is the sound of what?

A

aortic and pulmonary valves closing

80
Q

the lub of lub dub is the sound of what?

A

mitral and bicuspid valves closing

81
Q

what artery carries deoxygenated blood away from HT to LU

A

pulmonary artery

82
Q

where is the AV node located?

A

b/w R atrium and R ventricle

83
Q

oxygenated blood from LU flows from pulmonary veins into …. L atrium, L ventricle, R atrium or R ventricle?

A

L atrium

84
Q

which veins carry oxygenated blood?

A

pulmonary veins

85
Q

95% of the protein a RBC comes from: albumin, fibrinogen, hemoglobin or collagen?

A

hemoglobin

86
Q

cobalamin is another name for what vitamin?

A

B12

87
Q

erythrocytes are formed from what type of stem cell?

A

hemocytoblasts

88
Q

WBCs that release histamines at the site of an injury are: eosinophils, basophils or neutrophils?

A

basophils

89
Q

which WBC is important to produce antibodies? neutrophils, lymphocytes, eosinophils, or monocytes?

A

lymphocytes

90
Q

the average volume of blood in a male/female is:

a: 4/5 liters & 3/4 liters
b: 5/6 liters & 4/5 liters
c: 6/7 liters & 5/6 liters

A

b: 5/6 liters & 4/5 liters

91
Q

what is a blood clot transported by the blood stream? embolism, thrombin clot or thrombus?

A

embolus

92
Q

which mediates immune response, natural killer cells, B cells and T cells? erythrocyte, neutrophil, basophil, lymphocyte?

A

lymphocyte

93
Q

what vitamin is needed for clotting? B, C, D, K

A

K

94
Q

most coagulants required for clotting are produced by: KD, megakaryocytes, platelets, LV

A

LV

95
Q

angiotensin II causes dilation or vasoconstriction?

A

vasoconstriction

96
Q

when blood volume is low, the KD release: renin or ACE?

A

renin

97
Q

aldosterone promotes:

a) angiotensin release
b) sodium retention
c) potassium retention
d) urinary excretion

A

b) sodium retention

98
Q

what is the correct sequence in production of thyroid hormones:

a) thalamus - pituitary - thyroid
b) hypothalamus - pituitary - thyroid
c) pituitary - thalamus - thyroid
d) pituitary - hypothalamus - thyroid

A

b) hypothalamus - pituitary - thyroid

99
Q

does parathyroid hormone (PTH) increase or decrease calcium blood concentration?

A

increase

100
Q

does calcitonin increase or decrease calcium blood concentration?

A

decrease

101
Q

a chronic excess of parathyroid hormone (PTH) and calcium in the blood is associated with:

a) hyperthyroidism
b) hyperparathyroidism
c) hypothyroidism
d) hypoparathyroidism

A

b) hyperparathyroidism

102
Q

what lab test is the 1st screen for thyroid disorder: TRH, T4, T3, TSH?

A

TSH

103
Q

what lab test is used to determine if hyper/hypothyroidism is an autoimmune disorder: TSH, TRH, TPO

A

TPO

104
Q

decreased cortisol is found in:

a) cushion’s disease
b) hyperthyroidism
c) obesity
d) addison’s disease

A

Addison’s - known as chronic adrenal insufficiency, hypocortisolism, hypoadrenalism

105
Q

which urine constituent may indx bacterial infection: keytone, bilirubin, nitrites, urobilinogen

A

nitrites (keytones indx. dehydration)

106
Q

Lordosis is: increased or decreased concavity of the spine curvature?

A

increased

107
Q

a myelogram provides radiographic visualization of:

a) heart
b) spine
c) chest

A

b) spine

108
Q

a patient with MI will increased levels of:

a) sodium & potassium
b) triponin & isoenzymes
c) plasminogen & lactic acid

A

b) triponin & isoenzymes are specific proteins of the HT

109
Q

what indx R sided congestive HT failure:

a) can’t lay on R side
b) feet/ankle swelling
c) persistent cough

A

b) feet/ankle swelling

110
Q

what sound will be heard in a patient with pericarditis?

a) girgle
b) swish
c) crackle
d) grate

A

d) grate from pericardial friction rub

111
Q

what LU sound is heard in a patient with congestive L-sided HT failure?

a) girgle
b) swish
c) crackle
d) grate

A

c) crackle

112
Q

EMG measures:

a) brain activity
b) skeletal muscle
c) Ht muscle

A

b) skeletal muscle

113
Q

a deficiency of platelets is called….

A

thrombocytopenia

114
Q

what vitamin is given to tx pernicious anemia?

A

B12

115
Q

which type of anemia causes pica and concave nails? pernicious or iron xu

A

iron xu

116
Q

does chromium increase or decrease blood sugar?

A

decrease

117
Q

which drug causes pinpoint pupils?

a) opium
b) cocaine
c) meth
d) heroin

A

d) heroin

118
Q

vasopressin tx diabetes mellitus or insipidus?

A

insipidus

119
Q

these connect muscles to bones or muscles to muscles: ligaments or tendons

A

tendons

120
Q

these connect two bones

A

ligament

121
Q

which part of the muscle is distal and more moveable? Origin or insertion?

A

insertion

122
Q

which lobe of the brain is responsible for taste, temperature, touch, spatial orientation and perception of stimuli?

a) frontal
b) temporal
c) parietal
d) occipital

A

parietal lobe

123
Q

which lobe of the brain is responsible for hearing and memory?

a) frontal
b) temporal
c) parietal
d) occipital

A

temporal

124
Q

which brain area coordinates movement?

a) cerebrum
b) cerebellum
c) pons
d) brainstem

A

cerebellum gets sensory input from spinal cord, motor input from cortex and position from vestibular system

125
Q

What does SOAP charting stand for?

A

Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan

126
Q

what is maximum time a signed auth for release of records is good for:

a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) a year

A

c) 90 days

127
Q

what dermatome innervates anterior ankle and foot? L3, L5, S1, S2

A

L5

128
Q

what role does aldosterone play?

a) reabsorption of water
b) reabsorption of sodium

A

B) reabsorption of sodium

129
Q
what is max time limit to comply with release of records authorization?  
30 days
45 days
60 days
90 days
A

30 days

130
Q

What innervates the palmer side of the middle finger, forefinger and thumb? radial or median nerve

A

median nerve

131
Q

What innervates the skin on the back of hand (dorsal) of the middle finger, forefinger and thumb? radial or median nerve

A

radial nerve

132
Q

a 42 yr old develops pneumothorax after acupuncture w/ chest pain, dyspnea, anxiety & diminished breath sounds. What is tx?

a) corticosteriods
b) catheter drainage
c) beta blockers

A

b) catheter drainage

133
Q

all are inhaled corticosteroids for tx of asthma and emphysema except:

a) Flovent (fluticasone)
b) Ventolin (albuterol)
c) asmacort (triamcinolone)

A

b) Ventolin (albuterol) is a bronchodilator. Corticosteroids reduce swelling of airways

134
Q

an X-ray showing consolidation of lower R LU would indx: viral, fungal or bacterial pneumonia?

A

bacterial pneumonia

135
Q

BUN measures:

a) HT & LU fx
b) KD & LV fx
c) lymphatic system

A

b) KD & LV fx

136
Q

AST (aminotransferase) helps evaluate LV disease and:

a) HT & KD disease
b) LU failure
c) diabetes
d) hyperthyroidism

A

a) HT & KD disease

137
Q

what ACE inhibitor is used to tx patients with hypertension and chronic renal failure?

A

Capotin (captopril)

138
Q

CPT insurance code for one or more needles with e-stim is:

a) 97810
b) 97814
c) 97813

A

c) 97813

139
Q

Digoxin is used for:

a) HT failure
b) hypertension
c) arterial stenosis
d) hyperlipidemia

A

a) HT failure

140
Q

the recommended opiate for oral controlled release pain is:

a) percodan (oxycodone)
b) demerol (meperedine)
c) MS Contin (morphine sulphate)
d) Duragesic (fentanyl)

A

c) MS Contin (morphine sulphate)

141
Q

TX for acute glomerulonephritis can include all except:

a) anti-hypertensives
b) anti-fungals
c) diuretics
d) fluid & dietary sodium restrictions

A

b) anti-fungals

142
Q

upper abdominal reflex is associated with:

a) T11, T12
b) T8, T9, T10
c) T10, T11, T12

A

b) T8, T9, T10

143
Q

ankle deep tendon reflex is associated with:

a) T12
b) S1
c) S2
c) L 2

A

b) S1

144
Q

what is tx for stage 1 endometrial cancer?

a) chemo
b) surgery
c) radiation
d) hormonal therapy

A

b) surgery

145
Q

who is authorized to remove or access medical records?

a) physician only
b) anyone whose job desc indx they need access
c) anyone patient has agreed to

A

b) anyone whose job desc indx they need access

146
Q

in a patient with history of HTN, what baseline BP can precipitate a hypertensive crisis:

a) 160/100
b) 180/120
c) 200/140

A

b) 180/120

147
Q

what are symptoms of endometriosis?

a) midline pelvic pain, pain during menses, dypareunia, palpable bilateral ovarian masses
b) peritonitis, severe abdominal pain, pain during menses, cervical memos
c) menorraghia, urinary frequency, constipation, miscarriage

A

a) midline pelvic pain, pain during menses, dypareunia, palpable bilateral ovarian masses

148
Q

for people over 50 with average risk, fecal occult blood test is recommended:

a) every yr
b) every 2 yrs
c) every 3 yrs

A

a) every yr

149
Q

ambien, darvon, xanax and valium are classified as:

a) schedule I
b) schedule II
c) schedule III
d) schedule IV
e) clschedule V

A

d) schedule IV

150
Q

incubation for HEP B is:

a) 4-6 wks
b) 7-26 weeks
c) 1 yr

A

b) 7-26 weeks

151
Q

which urine constituent is tested for gallstones:

a) bilirubin
b) keytones
c) nitrites
d) urobilinogin

A

a) bilirubin

152
Q

a middle aged patient with acute glomerulonephritis most likely:

a) abuses alcohol
b) has lost weight recently
c) appears pale and puffy

A

c) appears pale and puffy

153
Q

which disease does not have the possibility to show occult blood in stool?

a) hemmorhoids
b) hypoproteinuria
c) esophagitis
d) chrohn’s

A

b) hypoproteinuria

154
Q

A CPK (creatine phosphokinase) lab test is used to support what dx:

a) MI
b) congestive HT failure
c) hypertension
d) anemia

A

a) MI

155
Q

which teres muscle is part of the rotator cuff? Major or minor?

A

minor

156
Q

CoQ10 should be used carefully with these drugs:

a) anticholesterol
b) antihypertensive
c) antidiabetes

A

b) antihypertensive

157
Q

T or F: Lasix (furosimide) is a diuretic

A

T: used in HT failure or LV or KD disease

158
Q

which orthopedic test for thoracic outlet syndrome is performed by hyper-abducting the arm?

a) cozen
b) mill
c) wright

A

c) wright

159
Q

the transverse cervical artery is located at what point?

a) ST 12
b) SJ 17
c) GB 20
d) SI 17

A

a) ST 12

160
Q

an adverse effect of Motrin/ibuprofin is:

a) GIT bleeding
b) fever
c) constipation
d) liver failure

A

a) GIT bleeding

161
Q

T or F: calcium can interfere with Levothyroxin tx for hypothyroidism.

A

True

162
Q

raising the arm above the shoulder with pain elicited at 90 degrees tests for:

a) acromio-clavicular injury
b) rotator cuff injury
c) herniated disc

A

b) rotator cuff injury

163
Q

which cranial nerve is NOT assoc with eye movt:

a) IV
b) VI
c) III
d) II

A

d) II - optic nerve transmits visual info but is not assoc with movement

164
Q

excessive licorice intake increases urinary excretion of:

a) calcium
b) potassium
c) sodium

A

b) potassium

165
Q

excess niacin intake causes:

a) gastric bleeding
b) facial flushing/itching
c) petechia

A

b) facial flushing/itching

166
Q

flexion of the hip activates the:

a) hip abductors
b) iliopsoas
c) glut max
d) adductors

A

b) iliopsoas

167
Q

FSH is highest during all of the following except:

a) beginning of luteal stage
b) end of luteal stage
c) during ovulations
d) at the end of the follicular stage

A

b) end of luteal stage

168
Q

all of the following can confirm urolithiasis dx except:
a) renal MRI

b) renal ultrasonography
c) renal CT
d) urinalysis

A

a) renal MRI

169
Q

vitamin B12 and folic acid xu are associated with elevated levels of:

a) glucose
b) ferritin
c) homocysteine
d) gastrin

A

c) homocysteine - converts to B vitamin (so not converting when xu)

170
Q

two main categories of E/M codes refer to:

a) treatment
b) treatment & referral
c) office consultation
d) consultation and tx

A

c) office consultation

171
Q

pain and tenderness of extensor muscles of the elbow indx:

medial or lateral epicondylitis

A

lateral (tennis elbow)

172
Q

which iron related blood test is most accurate indx of iron xu:

a) ferritin
b) total iron binding capacity
c) iron level
d) transferrin saturation

A

a) ferritin

173
Q

muscle strength is graded 1-5. Is 5 the best or worst?

A

best/normal

174
Q

low blood chloride levels are seen in:

a) dehydration
b) prolonged vomiting/diarrhea
c) eclampsia
d) KD dysfunction

A

b) prolonged vomiting/diarrhea

175
Q

which lowers blood cholesterol:

a) chromium
b) niacin
c) vitamin C
d) vitamin B12

A

b) niacin

176
Q

which agency requires HEP B vaccine be made available to employees:

a) FDA
b) OSHA
c) CDC
d) WHO

A

b) OSHA

177
Q

calcium blood levels are used to measure parathyroid fx and:

a) LV failure
b) HT failure
c) Renal failure

A

c) Renal failure

178
Q

which hormone stimulates development of mammary glands: hCS or hCG?

A

hCS

179
Q

if a woman is 3 mths pregnant, which would point to trichomonaisis vaginitis:

a) painful blisters on labia
b) painful urination
c) thick white curd like vaginal discharge
d) foul smelling, frothing vaginal discharge

A

d) foul smelling, frothing vaginal discharge

180
Q

which of the following is not a serous membrane:

a) peritoneal
b) digestive
c) pleural
d) pericardial

A

b) digestive

181
Q

testing the grip involves which spinal nerves?

a) C 7, 8
b) C 5, 6, 7
c) C 7, 8, T1
d) C8, T1

A

c) C 7, 8, T1

182
Q

what can be heard at the 5th ITC and the midclavicular line?

a) mitral valve
b) tricuspid valve
c) aortic valve

A

a) mitral valve

183
Q

which type of membrane is made solely of connective tissue?

a) serous
b) mucus
c) cutaneous
d) synovial

A

d) synovial