Biopsych Chapters 9, 11, 15

Question 1

During sleep, a(n) ______________ is used to measure brain activity.

a. electroencephalogram
b. electromyogram
c. electro-oculogram
d. oximeter probe
e. electroencardiogram

Answer 1

a. electroencephalogram

Question 2

During periods of wakefulness, brain waves oscillate between __________ and ____________ waves.

a. alpha; beta
b. delta; beta
c. alpha; delta
d. theta; delta
e. gamma; alpha

Answer 2

a. alpha; beta

Question 3

The various stages of sleep are easily distinguished by

a. visible changes in respiration.
b. changes in motor movements involving speech.
c. changes in the electrical activity of the brain.
d. changes in consciousness.
e. the quality and quantity of dreams.

Answer 3

c. changes in the electrical activity of the brain

Question 4

The ________ is an instrument used to record electrical potentials from muscles during sleep.

a. myelogram
b. electroencephalogram
c. physiograph
d. electromyogram
e. retinogram

Answer 4

d. electromyogram

Question 5

An electro-oculogram is an instrument used in sleep studies to measure

a. blood pressure.
b. skin conductance.
c. heart rate.
d. electrical potentials within the brain.
e. eye movements.

Answer 5

e. eye movements.

Question 6

The ________ pattern of EEG activity is characterized by irregular, high-frequency (13-30 Hz), low-voltage waves.

a. beta
b. alpha
c. theta
d. sleep spindles
e. delta

Answer 6

a. beta

Question 7

The observation that a person’s brain shows beta wave activity is not a reliable indicator of being awake because

a. this pattern is seen in children but not adults.
b. this brain wave pattern also appears during sleep.
c. this wave form waxes and wanes during the day.
d. it can be induced by certain drugs such as alcohol.
e. drugs can elicit this brain wave pattern.

Answer 7

b. this brain wave pattern also appears during sleep.

Question 8

As Jenelle is falling asleep, she has a sensation of walking along. Suddenly, her right leg steps into a hole and her foot jerks in bed, seemingly simulating the experienced fall in her sleeping state. These muscle contractions are

a. sleep spindles.
b. K complexes.
c. alpha wave activity.
d. spastic jerks.
e. hypnic jerks.

Answer 8

e. hypnic jerks.

Question 9

The transition between wakefulness and sleep is marked by the appearance of ________ waves in the sleep record.

a. alpha
b. delta
c. gamma
d. theta
e. beta

Answer 9

d. theta

Question 10

The theta brain wave pattern is characterized by changes in frequency of electrical activity of

a. 1-3 Hz.
b. 12-14 Hz.
c. 13-30 Hz.
d. less than 3.5 Hz.
e. 3.5-7.5 Hz.

Answer 10

e. 3.5-7.5 Hz.

Question 11

You are watching the sleep record of a person whose record contains 85% delta wave activity. Your best guess is that this person is

a. in stage 3 of slow-wave sleep.
b. dreaming.
c. in stage 1 of slow-wave sleep.
d. making the transition from wakefulness to sleep.
e. awake.

Answer 11

a. in stage 3 of slow-wave sleep.

Question 12

Deep sleep is characterized by ____________ waves.

a. alpha
b. beta
c. delta
d. theta
e. gamma

Answer 12

c. delta

Question 13

As Darius is sleeping, his dog begins to bark. As a result, his brain emits several sudden sharp waveforms known as _____________.

a. hypnic jerks
b. sleep spindles
c. K complexes
d. alpha wave activity
e. delta wave activity

Answer 13

c. K complexes

Question 14

Which of the following characterizes REM sleep?

a. When woken up in this stage, people are often groggy and confused.
b. When in this stage people are often able to toss and turn on the bed, moving freely.
c. The person experiences dreams.
d. The person experiences vague sensations or feelings.
e. The person’s eyes are still.

Answer 14

c. The person experiences dreams.

Question 15

Another name for sleep stage 3 is ________ sleep.

a. paradoxical
b. high-frequency
c. slow-wave
d. REM
e. rhythmic

Answer 15

c. slow-wave

Question 16

Sleep stages 1-3 are termed ________, whereas stages3 is referred to as ________.

a. REM sleep; non-REM sleep
b. non-REM sleep; slow-wave sleep
c. slow-wave sleep; non-REM sleep
d. paradoxical sleep; REM sleep
e. arhythmic sleep; paradoxical sleep

Answer 16

b. non-REM sleep; slow-wave sleep

Question 17

Which of the following is a key characteristic of REM sleep?

a. alternating delta and beta EEG activities
b. the presence of delta wave EEG activity
c. rapid eye movements
d. alpha wave brain activity
e. tossing and turning in bed

Answer 17

c. rapid eye movements

Question 18

Which of the following is a reason as to why sleep stage 3 is considered to be the deepest sleep stage?

a. A person in this stage is easily roused by meaningful stimuli.
b. A person who awakes from stage 3 is groggy and confused.
c. A person who awakes from this stage is alert and attentive.
d. Only very loud stimuli will awaken a person from stage 3 sleep.
e. The majority of sleep is spent in stage 3 slow-wave sleep.

Answer 18

b. A person who awakes from stage 3 is groggy and confused.

Question 19

Which of the following is a key characteristic of non-REM sleep?

a. dreaming in color
b. muscle paralysis
c. genital changes associated with arousal
d. various forms of slow-wave brain activity
e. rapid eye movements

Answer 19

d. various forms of slow-wave brain activity

Question 20

A single cycle of non-REM and REM sleep lasts about

a. 10 minutes.
b. 30-40 minutes.
c. 90 minutes.
d. 360 minutes.
e. 8 hours.

Answer 20

c. 90 minutes.

Question 21

Which of the following is true of human sleep cycles?

a. Sleep cycles are random across the night.
b. Subjects first enter REM sleep and then transition to non-REM sleep.
c. As the night goes on, the relative length of REM sleep increases in each successive cycle.
d. Stage 3 of slow-wave sleep mostly occurs in the early morning hours.
e. Each non-REM/REM cycle lasts about 45 minutes.

Answer 21

c. As the night goes on, the relative length of REM sleep increases in each successive cycle.

Question 22

The predictable changes in blood flow to the male genitals that occur during ________ can be a useful clinical indicator of ________.

a. non-REM sleep; narcolepsy
b. the day hours; hypertension
c. REM sleep; impotence
d. slow-wave sleep; cardiac failure
e. the day hours; cocaine abuse

Answer 22

c. REM sleep; impotence

Question 23

Humans show which pattern of blood flow and mental activity during REM sleep?

a. Cortical blood flow is reduced during REM sleep as blood is shunted to the genitals.
b. Cerebral blood flow is low in the primary visual cortex.
c. Cerebral blood flow is very low during color dreaming.
d. Cerebral blood flow is high in the visual association cortex and low in the frontal cortex.
e. Cerebral blood flow is low in the primary auditory cortex.

Answer 23

d. Cerebral blood flow is high in the visual association cortex and low in the frontal cortex.

Question 24

Which of the following terms belong together?

a. awake state; EEG synchrony
b. REM sleep; slow-wave EEG pattern
c. slow-wave sleep; marked genital arousal
d. REM sleep; lack of genital activity
e. slow-wave sleep; moderate muscle tonus

Answer 24

e. slow-wave sleep; moderate muscle tonus

Question 25

____________ refers to an awareness that the individual is dreaming and not asleep.

a. REM sleep awareness
b. Aware dreaming
c. Lucid dreaming
d. Coherent dreaming
e. Non-REM sleep awareness

Answer 25

c. Lucid dreaming

Question 26

Research with transcranial direct current stimulation suggests that the _______________ is involved in lucid dreaming.

a. prefrontal cortex
b. occipital cortex
c. hippocampus
d. medulla oblongata
e. anterior cingulate cortex

Answer 26

a. prefrontal cortex

Question 27

During slow-wave sleep, activation of the visual and auditory cortexes is ______________, whereas activation of the ________ and cerebellum is decreased.

a. increased; thalamus
b. decreased; thalamus
c. increased; prefrontal cortex
d. decreased; prefrontal cortex
e. increased; anterior cingulate cortex

Answer 27

a. increased; thalamus

Question 28

During REM sleep, there is a high level of activity within the

a. visual association cortex.
b. prefrontal cortex.
c. hippocampus.
d. amygdala.
e. temporal cortex.

Answer 28

a. visual association cortex.

Question 29

The sleep pattern of the dolphin is unique in that

a. slow-wave sleep is absent from its sleep pattern.
b. sleep and waking occur independently in the two hemispheres.
c. no eye movements occur in the dolphin during sleep.
d. blindness has eliminated the need of the dolphin for sleep.
e. this animal does not exhibit slow-wave sleep.

Answer 29

b. sleep and waking occur independently in the two hemispheres.

Question 30

Sleep deprivation in humans results in

a. psychosis.
b. impaired physical exercise.
c. perceptual distortions.
d. secretion of stress hormones.
e. depression.

Answer 30

c. perceptual distortions.

Question 31

Which animal below demonstrates REM sleep?

a. squirrels
b. snakes
c. frogs
d. insects
e. fish

Answer 31

a. squirrels

Question 32

The primary function of slow-wave sleep is to

a. clear brain waste products produced by REM sleep.
b. promote dreaming.
c. rest the brain.
d. promote brain development.
e. facilitate learning.

Answer 32

c. rest the brain.

Question 33

If you stay awake for 3 days and then fall asleep, you will likely not sleep for the 24 hours of sleep that you missed. Instead, you might sleep 12 hours on the first night. Of the different stages of sleep, you are most likely to make up hours from stage _________.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. REM
e. 1 and 3

Answer 33

c. 3

Question 34

Prolonged sleep deprivation in humans results in

a. impaired ability to perform physical labor.
b. psychosis.
c. some perceptual distortions.
d. subsequent rebound recovery of lost slow-wave sleep.
e. a mild form of bipolar disorder.

Answer 34

c. some perceptual distortions.

Question 35

Participants would show greater slow-wave brain activity during sleep after

a. studying for finals.
b. strenuous physical exercise.
c. watching a Netflix marathon.
d. resting in bed all day.
e. reading a young adult novel.

Answer 35

a. studying for finals.

Question 36

Persons suffering from fatal familial insomnia resemble sleep-deprived rats in terms of

a. weight gain.
b. weight loss.
c. relaxation.
d. mood disorder.
e. night-time overeating.

Answer 36

b. weight loss.

Question 37

Working on a task that demands high levels of mental activity during the day will

a. mimic the effects of REM deprivation.
b. increase glucose metabolism in the frontal lobes.
c. reduce stage 4 sleep.
d. impair subsequent learning of complex materials.
e. facilitate protein synthesis.

Answer 37

b. increase glucose metabolism in the frontal lobes.

Question 38

Enforced bed rest for 6 weeks resulted in ________ in healthy subjects.

a. decreased slow-wave sleep
b. decreased REM sleep
c. no change in sleep patterns
d. a significant reduction in total sleep time
e. signs of REM-sleep behavior disorder

Answer 38

c. no change in sleep patterns

Question 39

A full day of tourist activities at an amusement park would be expected to

a. produce insomnia.
b. reduce the amplitude of delta activity in the frontal lobes.
c. increase the amount of time spent that night in slow-wave sleep.
d. increase the need for REM sleep.
e. increase the amount of time spent dreaming.

Answer 39

c. increase the amount of time spent that night in slow-wave sleep.

Question 40

Deprivation of REM sleep on one night results in an elevated amount of REM sleep on the following night. This rebound phenomenon suggests that

a. emotional well-being requires slow-wave sleep.
b. REM sleep functions to rest the brain.
c. there is a physiological need for stage 1 slow-wave sleep.
d. there is a physiological need for a certain amount of REM sleep.
e. the brain does not regulate REM sleep.

Answer 40

d. there is a physiological need for a certain amount of REM sleep.

Question 41

The notion that REM sleep functions to promote brain development is supported by the finding that

a. newborn infants spend 70% of their sleep time in slow-wave sleep.
b. active phases of brain development are associated with low levels of REM sleep.
c. REM sleep increases in college students during exam time.
d. the elderly spend 85% of their sleep time in REM.
e. infants with well-developed brains spend proportionally less time in REM sleep than infants with poorly developed brains.

Answer 41

e. infants with well-developed brains spend proportionally less time in REM sleep than infants with poorly developed brains.

Question 42

Recent research suggests that ________ sleep is important for ________ memory.

a. slow-wave; nondeclarative
b. REM; sensory
c. REM; declarative
d. slow-wave; sensory
e. REM; nondeclarative

Answer 42

e. REM; nondeclarative

Question 43

An example of nondeclarative memory would be

a. recalling where you parked your car.
b. learning to drive a car.
c. memories you can speak about.
d. memories of past events.
e. memories of relationships between different stimuli.

Answer 43

b. learning to drive a car.

Question 44

The notion that sleep or wakefulness is produced by a substance that circulates within the blood is

a. proven by studies of the dolphin sleep cycle.
b. unlikely given that the cerebral hemispheres of a dolphin sleep at different times.
c. unlikely because REM and slow-wave sleep appear to involve independent mechanisms.
d. proven by the observation that naps reduce sleep time the following night.
e. unlikely given that blood chemistry does not change within the brain.

Answer 44

b. unlikely given that the cerebral hemispheres of a dolphin sleep at different times.

Question 45

The metabolism of glycogen within astrocytes produces ________, which in turn promotes ________.

a. adenosine; wakefulness
b. GABA; REM sleep
c. adenosine; slow-wave sleep
d. a benzodiazepine ligand; slow-wave sleep
e. GABA; slow-wave sleep

Answer 45

c. adenosine; slow-wave sleep

Question 46

Adenosine receptors are blocked by ________, which in turn promotes ________.

a. ethanol; euphoria
b. caffeine; wakefulness
c. nicotine; sleepiness
d. caffeine; sleepiness
e. glutamate; learning and memory

Answer 46

b. caffeine; wakefulness

Question 47

Electrical stimulation of brain neurons that release ________ produces cortical arousal.

a. glycine
b. GABA
c. serotonin
d. acetylcholine
e. adenosine

Answer 47

d. acetylcholine

Question 48

Microdialysis studies indicate that the synaptic level of acetylcholine within the ________ is elevated during waking as well as during REM sleep.

a. hypothalamus
b. raphe nuclei
c. cerebral cortex
d. amygdala
e. ventral pons

Answer 48

c. cerebral cortex

Question 49

The increased arousal and sleeplessness produced by amphetamine is related to the release of

a. norepinephrine.
b. serotonin.
c. acetylcholine.
d. dopamine.
e. GABA.

Answer 49

a. norepinephrine.

Question 50

A key source of noradrenergic neurons in the brain is the

a. nucleus accumbens.
b. hippocampus.
c. raphe nuclei.
d. striatum.
e. locus coeruleus.

Answer 50

e. locus coeruleus.

Question 51

If acetylcholine activity is high,

a. the animal is likely feeling drowsy or beginning to sleep.
b. there is decreased EEG-measured cortical arousal.
c. the brain waves are likely highly synchronized.
d. the brain waves are likely desynchronized.
e. nothing happens.

Answer 51

d. the brain waves are likely desynchronized.

Question 52

The firing rates of noradrenergic cells within the locus coeruleus

a. are suppressed by sleeping pills.
b. decrease during sleep and increase at awakening.
c. are unrelated to behavioral arousal.
d. in turn alter EEG cortical arousal.
e. are highest during REM sleep.

Answer 52

b. decrease during sleep and increase at awakening.

Question 53

Most of the serotonin neurons in the brain are located within the

a. nucleus accumbens.
b. reticular formation.
c. raphe nuclei.
d. striatum.
e. locus coeruleus.

Answer 53

c. raphe nuclei.

Question 54

Which of the following treatments in rats would be expected to increase locomotion and enhance the amount of cortical arousal evident in an EEG record?

a. electrical stimulation of the frontal cortex
b. damage to the locus coeruleus
c. damage to the raphe nuclei
d. electrical stimulation of the raphe nuclei
e. injection of high levels of GABA into the raphe nuclei

Answer 54

d. electrical stimulation of the raphe nuclei

Question 55

The sleep disorder known as ________ can be produced by degeneration of hypocretin neurons in the brain.

a. narcolepsy
b. iatrogenic insomnia
c. sleep apnea
d. night terrors
e. insomnia

Answer 55

a. narcolepsy

Question 56

Hypocretin neurons are more active during ________ but are inactive during ________.

a. eating; drinking
b. normal waking; sleep
c. sexual behavior; feeding
d. reinforcement; punishment
e. slow-wave sleep; REM sleep

Answer 56

b. normal waking; sleep

Question 57

Damage to the ventrolateral preoptic area would be expected to

a. impair the control of temperature regulation.
b. reproduce the symptoms of narcolepsy.
c. produce insomnia.
d. produce persistent REM sleep.
e. alter male reproductive behavior.

Answer 57

c. produce insomnia.

Question 58

Which of the following are true of neurons within the ventrolateral preoptic area
(vlPOA)?

a. Damage to vlPOA neurons produces sleepiness.
b. Excitotoxic lesions of the vlPOA increase sleep in cats.
c. vlPOA neurons have a low firing rate during sleep.
d. Electrical stimulation of vlPOA neurons produces signs of drowsiness.
e. vlPOA neurons secrete glutamate to excite regions that control arousal.

Answer 58

d. Electrical stimulation of vlPOA neurons produces signs of drowsiness.

Question 59

Which of the following is true of neurons within the ventrolateral preoptic area (vlPOA)?

a. vlPOA neurons receive inhibitory input from noradrenergic, serotonergic, and histaminergic neurons.
b. Excitotoxic lesions of the vlPOA increase sleep in cats.
c. vlPOA neurons have a low firing rate during sleep.
d. Electrical stimulation of vlPOA neurons produces insomnia.
e. vlPOA neurons secrete glutamate to excite regions that control arousal.

Answer 59

a. vlPOA neurons receive inhibitory input from noradrenergic, serotonergic, and histaminergic neurons.

Question 60

The capacity of circuits involving the vlPOA and the locus coeruleus, raphe nuclei, and dorsal pons to show mutual inhibition may result in

a. the transitions between eating and drinking in the rat.
b. alternating motor search behaviors in a maze.
c. shifts of attention.
d. stepping behavior.
e. the alternation between sleep and waking.

Answer 60

e. the alternation between sleep and waking.

Question 61

In the flip-flop circuit that controls sleep and arousal, the ___________ neurons are the stabilizing force, pushing the circuit toward arousal.

a. orexinergic
b. serotonergic
c. noradrenergic
d. cholinergic
e. dopaminergic

Answer 61

a. orexinergic

Question 62

________ would be expected to promote wakefulness.

a. An adenosine agonist
b. A histamine antagonist
c. Activation of hypocretin neurons
d. Stimulation of the ventrolateral preoptic area
e. Inactivation of histamine neurons

Answer 62

c. Activation of hypocretin neurons

Question 63

The “on” portion of the flip-flop mechanism for REM sleep is located within the

a. dorsal pons.
b. occipital cortex.
c. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
d. globus pallidus.
e. preoptic area.

Answer 63

a. dorsal pons.

Question 64

REM-ON neurons are located within the ________, whereas REM-OFF neurons are located within the ________.

a. ventrolateral pons; dorsal PAG
b. dorsal PAG; ventrolateral preoptic area
c. ventrolateral preoptic area; sublateral dorsal nucleus
d. anterior thalamus; posterior hypothalamus
e. sublateral dorsal nucleus; ventrolateral PAG

Answer 64

e. sublateral dorsal nucleus; ventrolateral PAG

Question 65

________ during REM sleep may be controlled by projections from the dorsal pons to the ________.

a. Muscle paralysis; thalamic relay nuclei
b. Eye movements; cingulate cortex
c. Cortical arousal; lateral geniculate
d. Muscle paralysis; basal forebrain
e. Eye movements; tectum

Answer 65

e. Eye movements; tectum

Question 66

About ________ percent of the population experiences insomnia as a persistent problem, while ________ percent experiences this on occasion.

a. 1; 3
b. 15; 52
c. 27; 45
d. 7; 19
e. 9; 25

Answer 66

e. 9; 25

Question 67

Insomnia is defined

a. as the inability to fall asleep within 5 minutes of going to bed.
b. as awakening four or more times during the night.
c. as a problem in rapidly reaching REM sleep.
d. in relation to a person’s particular sleep needs.
e. as a relative lack of slow-wave sleep compared to REM sleep.

Answer 67

d. in relation to a person’s particular sleep needs.

Question 68

The difference between primary and secondary insomnia is

a. the length of time the insomnia has lasted.
b. the cause of the difficulty of falling asleep.
c. the age of onset.
d. the likelihood of being affected at a given time of year (seasonal).
e. the time of the night that the sleeplessness occurs.

Answer 68

b. the cause of the difficulty of falling asleep.

Question 69

__________ is one of the few medical problems that physicians treat without having physical evidence for its existence.

a. Narcolepsy
b. Insomnia
c. Bipolar disorder
d. Diabetes
e. Hypertension

Answer 69

b. Insomnia

Question 70

John has periods during the night where he stops breathing, causing carbon dioxide levels in his blood to rise. Once the levels get too high, he wakes up, gasping for breath. John suffers from

a. insomnia.
b. sleep apnea.
c. narcolepsy.
d. night terrors.
e. sleeplessness.

Answer 70

b. sleep apnea.

Question 71

Chronic sleep deprivation can lead to

a. blocked airways.
b. obesity and diabetes.
c. psychosis.
d. mood disorder.
e. bipolar disorder.

Answer 71

b. obesity and diabetes.

Question 72

Doris works a stressful job, has difficulty falling asleep, and she often wakes up early. After several weeks, she agrees to participate in a sleep study to determine whether she has insomnia. It is likely that the results of her sleep study show Doris

a. spends less time sleeping as people who do not complain of insomnia.
b. is lacking in the substances that promote and maintain sleep.
c. spends as much time sleeping as people who do not complain of insomnia.
d. has an excess of arousal-producing neurochemicals.
e. does not have insomnia.

Answer 72

c. spends as much time sleeping as people who do not complain of insomnia.

Question 73

A common treatment for sleep apnea is

a. surgical modification of the throat airways.
b. the administration of sleeping medication.
c. maintaining the person in bright light for 20 hours per day.
d. the administration of L-DOPA.
e. electroconvulsive shock therapy.

Answer 73

a. surgical modification of the throat airways.

Question 74

A buildup of carbon dioxide in the blood is a characteristic of the sleep disorder known as

a. iatrogenic.
b. sleep apnea.
c. narcolepsy.
d. situational insomnia.
e. cataplexy.

Answer 74

b. sleep apnea.

Question 75

The key feature of narcolepsy is

a. nightmares while awake.
b. sleep attacks.
c. nocturnal enuresis.
d. hypnagogic hallucinations.
e. feeling refreshed after an episode of sleep attack.

Answer 75

b. sleep attacks

Question 76

A key symptom of human narcolepsy relates to

a. impulsive drug-taking.
b. abnormal slow-wave sleep.
c. recurring nightmares.
d. sleeping during the day.
e. dreaming while awake.

Answer 76

d. sleeping during the day.

Question 77

A person who exhibits sudden paralysis but remains conscious may be suffering from

a. REM without atonia.
b. somnambulism.
c. a sleep attack.
d. situational insomnia.
e. an episode of cataplexy.

Answer 77

e. an episode of cataplexy.

Question 78

____________, a symptom of narcolepsy, is when a fully conscious person appears to be paralyzed.

a. Sleep apnea
b. Sleep attack
c. Insomnia
d. Cataplexy
e. Anoxia

Answer 78

d. Cataplexy

Question 79

________ refers to the vivid dreams that may occur during sleep paralysis.

a. Apnea
b. Hypnagogic hallucination
c. Cataplexy
d. Night terror
e. Somnambulism

Answer 79

b. Hypnagogic hallucination

Question 80

The notion that narcolepsy involves faulty brain regulation of sleep is supported by the observation that

a. mania commonly occurs with narcolepsy.
b. people with narcolepsy show no problems in staying asleep.
c. people with narcolepsy generally enter REM sleep directly from the waking state.
d. slow-wave sleep intrudes into the awake state in people with narcolepsy.
e. people with narcolepsy show problems in eye-tracking similar to those noted in alcoholism.

Answer 80

c. people with narcolepsy generally enter REM sleep directly from the waking state.

Question 81

The symptom known as ________ is an abnormality of REM sleep.

a. insomnia
b. theta reversal
c. cataplexy
d. night terror
e. enuresis

Answer 81

c. cataplexy

Question 82

Human narcolepsy

a. can be treated using sleep-inducing drugs.
b. involves an absence of orexin in most people with narcolepsy.
c. involves the intrusion of slow-wave sleep components into the awake state.
d. is a psychological disorder.
e. is treated using lithium salts.

Answer 82

b. involves an absence of orexin in most people with narcolepsy.

Question 83

A genetic mutation of the hypocretin gene in mice results in

a. intrusion of slow-wave sleep during the awake period.
b. symptoms of narcolepsy.
c. undereating and weight loss.
d. prolonged sleeping.
e. overeating.

Answer 83

b. symptoms of narcolepsy.

Question 84

The occurrence of sleep attacks in narcolepsy can be alleviated by drugs that

a. impair the release of hypocretins in the brain.
b. facilitate brain serotonin synaptic activity.
c. act as catecholamine agonists.
d. facilitate both serotonin and catecholamine brain activity.
e. block hypocretin 2 receptors in the hypothalamus.

Answer 84

c. act as catecholamine agonists.

Question 85

Symptoms of narcolepsy involving REM sleep (such as cataplexy) are effectively treated by drugs that

a. block serotonin receptors.
b. impair the release of hypocretins in brain.
c. act as catecholamine agonists.
d. facilitate both serotonin and catecholamine activity.
e. block hypocretin 2 receptors.

Answer 85

d. facilitate both serotonin and catecholamine activity.

Question 86

The disorder known as ________ shares common attributes (symptoms as well as treatments) with those of narcolepsy.

a. anxiety disorder
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. mania
d. panic attack
e. depression

Answer 86

e. depression

Question 87

REM sleep behavior disorder is the opposite of narcolepsy in that

a. people have “awake attacks” rather that sleep attacks.
b. REM sleep behavior disorder is not linked to degenerative disorders.
c. REM sleep behavior disorder involves bouts of insomnia.
d. instead of muscle paralysis during waking hours, those with REM sleep behavior disorder lack muscle paralysis during sleep.
e. REM sleep behavior disorder is caused by too much hypocretin.

Answer 87

d. instead of muscle paralysis during waking hours, those with REM sleep behavior disorder lack muscle paralysis during sleep.

Question 88

A key symptom of REM sleep behavior disorder is

a. attacks of catalepsy.
b. a depressed mood upon awakening.
c. the occurrence of motor movements during slow-wave sleep.
d. a lack of paralysis during REM sleep.
e. the loss of dreams during REM sleep.

Answer 88

d. a lack of paralysis during REM sleep.

Question 89

The symptoms of REM sleep behavior disorder are opposite to those noted in

a. cataplexy.
b. situational insomnia.
c. somnambulism.
d. nocturnal enuresis.
e. manic-depression.

Answer 89

a. cataplexy.

Question 90

An effective treatment for REM sleep behavior disorder is the administration of

a. antidepressant drugs.
b. the drug clonazepam.
c. drugs that block serotonin receptors.
d. drugs that facilitate both serotonin and catecholamine activity.
e. drugs that block hypocretin 2 receptors.

Answer 90

b. the drug clonazepam.

Question 91

Somnambulism is synonymous with

a. sleep attack.
b. dreaming while awake.
c. sleepwalking.
d. cataplexy.
e. night terrors.

Answer 91

c. sleepwalking.

Question 92

Which of the following is seen more often in adults than children?

a. insomnia
b. sleepwalking
c. bedwetting
d. night terrors
e. nightmares

Answer 92

a. insomnia

Question 93

A person who experiences the sleep disorder symptom known as pavor nocturnus would be said to be

a. releasing urine during sleep.
b. dreaming while awake.
c. sleepwalking.
d. having a sleep attack.
e. experiencing night terrors.

Answer 93

e. experiencing night terrors.

Question 94

Weight gain is a common outcome for a person suffering from

a. anorexia nervosa.
b. somnabulimia.
c. sleep-related eating disorder.
d. hyperbulimia.
e. REM sleep behavior disorder.

Answer 94

c. sleep-related eating disorder.

Question 95

Sleep-related eating disorder can be triggered by

a. stress.
b. alcohol abuse.
c. the sleeping pill zolpidem.
d. weight loss.
e. eating.

Answer 95

c. the sleeping pill zolpidem.

Question 96

Circadian rhythms are

a. endogenous cycles of activity over the course of a day.
b. not found in plants.
c. learned patterns of daily activity.
d. annual changes in behavior (such as migration).
e. monthly cycles of reproductive activity.

Answer 96

a. endogenous cycles of activity over the course of a day.

Question 97

A hamster, when put in endless darkness, will display activity that fits a 23-hour day. This rhythm that the hamster is displaying is a(n)

a. endogenous rhythm.
b. pacemaker.
c. entrained rhythm.
d. internal rhythm.
e. external rhythm.

Answer 97

a. endogenous rhythm.

Question 98

Damage to the rat’s ________ would be expected to disrupt circadian rhythms related to

a. vlPOA
b. nucleus accumbens
c. thalamus
d. SCN
e. hippocampus

Answer 98

d. SCN

Question 99

Which of the following is true of melanopsin?

a. Melanopsin is found within rods but not cones.
b. Melanopsin is found within cones but not rods.
c. Melanopsin activity is suppressed by light.
d. Melanopsin is found within ganglion cells.
e. Melanopsin in rods is a cue that resets SCN clock cells

Answer 99

d. Melanopsin is found within ganglion cells.

Question 100

Hamster A has a 24-hour rhythm. Hamster A has its SCN removed and replaced with the SCN of Hamster B, which has an endogenous rhythm of 20 hours. What is the resultant rhythm of Hamster A?

a. 20 hours
b. 22 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 26 hours
e. 27 hours

Answer 100

a. 20 hours

Question 101

The “ticking” of a clock cell within the SCN appears to involve

a. feedback loops of intracellular protein production.
b. the rhythmic opening of sodium channels in the membrane.
c. interactions between two adjacent clock cells.
d. the rhythmic opening of calcium channels in the membrane.
e. the buildup of sodium in the clock cell over time.

Answer 101

a. feedback loops of intracellular protein production.

Question 102

Seasonal rhythms are under the control of ________ secreted by cells within the ________.

a. melatonin; pineal gland
b. dopamine; hypothalamus
c. melanopsin; preoptic hypothalamus
d. oxytocin; pituitary
e. melatonin; retina

Answer 102

a. melatonin; pineal gland

Question 103

For animals that are seasonal breeders, they will experience anti-gonadal function during ____________ due to ____________ melatonin levels.

a. spring; increased
b. winter; increased
c. winter; decreased
d. summer; increased
e. summer; decreased

Answer 103

b. winter; increased

Question 104

A gorilla beats on its chest in a dominance display when threatened. This act is the __________ component of emotion.

a. behavioral
b. autonomic
c. somatic
d. hormonal
e. emotional

Answer 104

a. behavioral

Question 105

The text author asserts that ________ have key consequences for survival and reproduction.

a. emotional behaviors
b. emotional feelings
c. internal stirred-up states
d. moods
e. brief perturbations of affect

Answer 105

a. emotional behaviors

Question 106

The major components of an emotional response include

a. feelings and behavior.
b. behavior and moods.
c. hormonal secretions and cognition.
d. behavior, autonomic activity, and hormonal secretions.
e. autonomic activity, moods, and behaviors.

Answer 106

d. behavior, autonomic activity, and hormonal secretions

Question 107

When it is your turn to read your poem aloud in the class, your heart starts to thump in your chest and your palms get sweaty. This act is the ____________ component of emotion.

a. behavioral
b. autonomic
c. somatic
d. hormonal
e. emotional

Answer 107

b. autonomic

Question 108

Which of the following is a key function of the hormonal secretions that accompany an emotion?

a. formation of glucose within the muscles
b. decreased blood flow to the muscles
c. formation of glycogen within the muscles
d. increased blood flow to the digestive organs
e. stimulation of defecation

Answer 108

a. formation of glucose within the muscles

Question 109

Most of the research on emotions has focused on

a. those associated with reproductive behaviors.
b. those associated with success or anger.
c. fear and euphoria.
d. anger and fear.
e. those experienced during a good meal.

Answer 109

d. anger and fear.

Question 110

The emotional components that comprise fear are integrated by neurons within the

a. amygdala.
b. medial hypothalamus.
c. orbitofrontal cortex.
d. thalamus.
e. reticular activating system.

Answer 110

a. amygdala.

Question 111

In the amygdala, the basal nucleus receives information from the

a. lateral nucleus.
b. central nucleus.
c. lateral and central nuclei.
d. amygdaloid complex.
e. thalamus.

Answer 111

a. lateral nucleus.

Question 112

Neurons within the amygdala are activated by

a. ascending tactile signals.
b. texture cues within the environment.
c. detection of emotionally relevant stimuli.
d. motor signals arising from the caudate nucleus.
e. all classes of sensory signals.

Answer 112

c. detection of emotionally relevant stimuli.

Question 113

The amygdala is located in the ____________ lobe(s).

a. occipital
b. parietal
c. temporal
d. frontal
e. prefrontal

Answer 113

c. temporal

Question 114

Activation of the ________ nucleus of the amygdala elicits an emotional response.

a. medial
b. lateral
c. cortical
d. central
e. postero-lateral

Answer 114

d. central

Question 115

The ________ amygdaloid nucleus is the single most important part of the brain for the expression of emotional responses evolved by aversive stimuli.

a. cortical
b. lateral
c. medial
d. central
e. postero-lateral

Answer 115

d. central

Question 116

If the central nucleus of the amygdala were stimulated, a monkey will

a. show fear towards a snake.
b. show fear, regardless of the target.
c. not respond fearfully to a snake.
d. not show fear, regardless of the target.
e. show fear to another monkey.

Answer 116

b. show fear, regardless of the target.

Question 117

Based on the evidence cited in your text, which brain region would be considered as a key target for pharmacological modification to provide relief for a person suffering from overly intense emotional reactions?

a. the central nucleus of the amygdala
b. the ventromedial hypothalamus
c. the medial nucleus of the thalamus
d. the corpus callosum
e. the entire basal forebrain

Answer 117

a. the central nucleus of the amygdala

Question 118

Infusion of excitatory amino acid glutamate into the central nucleus of the amygdala of a rat would be expected to elicit

a. behavioral signs of fear.
b. agitation but not fear.
c. timidness when handled by humans.
d. lower levels of stress hormones.
e. reduced secretion of gastric acid.

Answer 118

a. behavioral signs of fear.

Question 119

In a laboratory setting, a rat has experienced shock each time it has been placed inside Chamber A. Over time, the rat shows a fear response as soon as it is placed in the chamber. After the destruction of the ____________ of the amygdala, the animal no longer shows a fear response when placed in the chamber.

a. central nucleus
b. lateral nucleus
c. basal nucleus
d. dorsal nucleus
e. medial nucleus

Answer 119

a. central nucleus

Question 120

A rat experiences a shock paired with the sound of a bell. The animal now experiences fear, demonstrated by freezing behavior, when it hears a bell. The bell is the

a. unconditioned stimulus.
b. conditioned stimulus.
c. unconditioned response.
d. conditioned response.
e. neutral stimulus.

Answer 120

b. conditioned stimulus.

Question 121

Infusion of ________ into the central nucleus of the amygdala would be expected to promote fear and agitation.

a. Prozac
b. glutamate
c. an opiate receptor antagonist
d. a cholinergic receptor agonist
e. a benzodiazepine receptor agonist

Answer 121

b. glutamate

Question 122

An intact ________ is required in order for a conditioned emotional response to alter blood pressure.

a. orbitofrontal cortex
b. lateral hippocampus
c. lateral hypothalamus
d. medial nucleus of the amygdala
e. periaqueductal gray matter

Answer 122

c. lateral hypothalamus

Question 123

In experiments on classically conditioned emotional responses in rats, the conditioned stimulus is

a. a loud tone.
b. foot shock.
c. a food pellet.
d. a bright light.
e. a heat stimulus.

Answer 123

a. a loud tone.

Question 124

Rats previously exposed to a tone followed by a brief intense electrical shock will show ________ when subsequently exposed to the tone (without shock).

a. reduced fear
b. an unconditional emotional response
c. reduced plasma levels of stress hormones
d. behavioral arrest (freezing)
e. grooming behavior

Answer 124

d. behavioral arrest (freezing)

Question 125

A species-typical defensive response for a rat would include

a. freezing of motor movements.
b. sniffing the fear stimulus.
c. approach to the fear stimulus.
d. eating.
e. grooming.

Answer 125

a. freezing of motor movements.

Question 126

The expression of emotional responses is inhibited by inputs from the

a. lateral amygdala.
b. central nucleus of the amygdala.
c. lateral hypothalamus.
d. ventromedial prefrontal cortex.
e. dorsolateral accumbens.

Answer 126

d. ventromedial prefrontal cortex.

Question 127

In humans, bilateral lesioning of the amygdala results in

a. increased memory of emotional aspects of a narrated story.
b. increased experiences of fear.
c. increased experiences of aggression.
d. unchanged fear but increased aggression.
e. decreased memory of emotional aspects of a narrated story.

Answer 127

e. decreased memory of emotional aspects of a narrated story.

Question 128

Humans report fear upon electrical stimulation of the

a. hypothalamus.
b. ventral tegmental area.
c. periaqueductal gray matter.
d. amygdala.
e. reticular activating system.

Answer 128

d. amygdala.

Question 129

Some careers involve daily exposure to dangerous situations, which can lead to emotional burnout. A person with damage to the amygdala would have a selective advantage for a career as a

a. copy editor for an Iowa newspaper.
b. high-wire artist working on the 4th of July in a rainstorm.
c. teacher.
d. accountant for Exxon.
e. movie critic in Hollywood.

Answer 129

b. high-wire artist working on the 4th of July in a rainstorm.

Question 130

Alzheimer’s disease patients who show degeneration of the ________ are more likely to forget emotionally traumatic events such as the Kobe earthquake in 1995.

a. basal ganglia
b. anterior forebrain
c. cingulum bundle
d. amygdala
e. substantia nigra

Answer 130

d. amygdala

Question 131

The pathway that leads to defensive behavior is the

a. basal nucleus to dorsal PAG.
b. central nucleus to ventral PAG.
c. lateral hypothalamus to ventral PAG.
d. basal nucleus to ventral PAG.
e. central nucleus to dorsal PAG.

Answer 131

a. basal nucleus to dorsal PAG.

Question 132

The _______________ is involved in aggressive attack, predation, and regulation of pain.

a. periaqueductal gray
b. parietal lobe
c. superior colliculus
d. inferior colliculus
e. tectum

Answer 132

a. periaqueductal gray

Question 133

A serotonin antagonist would

a. inhibit aggression.
b. facilitate aggressive attack.
c. promote serotonin synthesis.
d. decrease risk-taking behavior.
e. decrease depression.

Answer 133

b. facilitate aggressive attack.

Question 134

A serotonin agonist would

a. promote aggression.
b. reduce aggressive attack.
c. reduce serotonin synthesis.
d. increase risk-taking behavior.
e. increase depression.

Answer 134

b. reduce aggressive attack.

Question 135

Elevated brain levels of the transmitter ________ function to inhibit aggression.

a. glutamate
b. GABA
c. dopamine
d. serotonin
e. acetylcholine

Answer 135

d. serotonin

Question 136

Electrical stimulation of the ventral periaqueductal gray matter in the cat can produce

a. submissive behavior.
b. defensive behavior.
c. predatory behavior.
d. prey behavior.
e. threat behaviors.

Answer 136

c. predatory behavior

Question 137

Electrical stimulation of the dorsal periaqueductal gray matter in the cat produces

a. submissive behavior.
b. defensive rage behavior.
c. predatory behavior.
d. prey behavior.
e. threat behaviors.

Answer 137

b. defensive rage behavior.

Question 138

Imagine that all members of your class have been tested to determine the level of the serotonin metabolite 5-HIAA in their cerebrospinal fluid. Which of the following would you predict using this information?

a. Male classmates with low 5-HIAA levels are unlikely to be alive ten years from now.
b. Low 5-HIAA levels will be associated with good exam performance.
c. High 5-HIAA levels will be associated with poor sleep patterns in males.
d. Male classmates with high 5-HIAA levels will not be alive ten years from now.
e. Those with low 5-HIAA levels will be the thinnest persons in the class.

Answer 138

a. Male classmates with low 5-HIAA levels are unlikely to be alive ten years from now.

Question 139

Drugs that act as __________ for ____________ might help to reduce aggressive behavior.

a. agonists; serotonin
b. antagonists; serotonin
c. agonists; dopamine
d. antagonists; dopamine
e. agonists; epinephrine

Answer 139

a. agonists; serotonin

Question 140

A human male who has a long record of assault, arson, and murder would be expected to show ________ levels of ________ in his cerebrospinal fluid.

a. elevated; GABA
b. reduced; GABA
c. elevated; 5-HIAA
d. reduced; 5-HIAA
e. elevated; opiates

Answer 140

d. reduced; 5-HIAA

Question 141

Aggressive behavior is most strongly related to

a. feeding.
b. reproduction.
c. termination of pain.
d. pleasure.
e. anxiety.

Answer 141

b. reproduction.

Question 142

Aggressiveness is reduced in adult rodents by castration, whereas injections of testosterone reinstate adult male rodent aggression. These effects are an example of a(n) ________ hormone effect.

a. activational
b. defeminization
c. organizational
d. subcortical
e. biphasic

Answer 142

a. activational

Question 143

The capacity of early testosterone exposure to sensitize brain circuits for aggression is an example of a(n) ________ hormone effect.

a. activational
b. feminization
c. organizational
d. subcortical
e. biphasic

Answer 143

c. organizational

Question 144

Intermale aggression will be reinstated in castrated male rats after implants of testosterone into the

a. ventromedial hypothalamus.
b. substantia nigra.
c. medial preoptic area.
d. lateral geniculate nucleus.
e. spinal cord.

Answer 144

c. medial preoptic area.

Question 145

A male mouse housed alone in a home cage will readily attack a male mouse placed into the home cage, but will not attack a female mouse. Which of the following is a key factor as to whether the resident male mouse decides to attack or not attack the strange male mouse?

a. Male mice are smaller than females (thus size is the issue).
b. The mouse uses ultrasounds to distinguish male from female.
c. Female mice show a hop-dart movement that male mice do not.
d. The mouse must be able to detect male pheromones.
e. The coat color of a female mouse is lighter than that of a male mouse.

Answer 145

d. The mouse must be able to detect male pheromones.

Question 146

Intermale aggression was _____________ in mice by cutting the ________________.

a. increased; vomeronasal nerve
b. decreased; trigeminal nerve
c. abolished; vomeronasal nerve
d. increased; trigeminal nerve
e. increased; vagus nerve

Answer 146

c. abolished; vomeronasal nerve

Question 147

Prenatal androgenization increases aggressive behavior in

a. monkeys.
b. all primates.
c. rats.
d. cats.
e. all species studied to date.

Answer 147

e. all species studied to date.

Question 148

A female mouse given daily injections of ________ for two weeks is more likely than a placebo-treated female to fight with a strange female mouse.

a. estradiol
b. progesterone
c. prolactin
d. testosterone
e. leptin

Answer 148

d. testosterone

Question 149

A female mouse given daily injections of ________ for two weeks is not more likely than a placebo-treated female to fight with a strange female mouse.

a. estradiol
b. progesterone
c. prolactin
d. testosterone
e. leptin

Answer 149

a. estradiol

Question 150

A ___________ female is more likely to exhibit interfemale aggression.

a. 0M
b. 1M
c. 2M
d. 3M
e. 4M

Answer 150

c. 2M

Question 151

Female rhesus monkeys are more likely to engage in fights with male monkeys

a. just prior to menstruation.
b. just after menstruation.
c. only when threatened by the arrival of a new female in the social group.
d. near the time of ovulation.
e. during puberty.

Answer 151

d. near the time of ovulation.

Question 152

Female rhesus monkeys are more likely to engage in fights with other females

a. just prior to menstruation.
b. just after menstruation.
c. only when threatened by the arrival of a new female in the social group.
d. near the time of ovulation.
e. during menopause.

Answer 152

a. just prior to menstruation.

Question 153

Which of the following is true of the impact of testosterone on aggressive behavior in males?

a. Prenatal androgenization decreases aggressiveness in primates.
b. Androgens have organizational effects after puberty.
c. Castration of sex-offenders may reduce aggressive sexual attacks.
d. Testosterone exerts effects on muscles before puberty.
e. Physical castration does not alter aggression.

Answer 153

c. Castration of sex-offenders may reduce aggressive sexual attacks.

Question 154

Prenatal exposure to androgens

a. does not alter aggression but does modify sexual orientation.
b. has effects that are offset by socialization.
c. increases aggressive behavior in all studied species.
d. results in more intense attraction to toys and games preferred by girls.
e. increases aggression behavior in most nonhuman species.

Answer 154

c. increases aggressive behavior in all studied species.

Question 155

Studies of hormone status and antisocial behavior in U.S. military veterans suggest that higher levels of antisocial activity are noted in

a. low socioeconomic status men with high testosterone levels.
b. women with low estrogen levels.
c. men with high socioeconomic status but low testosterone levels.
d. women with high estrogen levels.
e. persons with the longest service records.

Answer 155

a. low socioeconomic status men with high testosterone levels.

Question 156

An example of an environmental effect on testosterone secretion would be when

a. castration reduces sexual aggression.
b. female prisoners with low testosterone levels are more aggressive.
c. increasing blood levels of testosterone produce more aggression.
d. increasing blood levels of testosterone suppress aggression.
e. losing a tennis match results in lowered blood levels of testosterone.

Answer 156

e. losing a tennis match results in lowered blood levels of testosterone.

Question 157

Studies using primates suggest that alcohol promotes aggression but only

a. in submissive male monkeys.
b. in dominant male monkeys during the mating season when testosterone levels are high.
c. in female monkeys at the time of ovulation.
d. in female monkeys just prior to menstruation.
e. when testosterone levels were at their lowest level.

Answer 157

b. in dominant male monkeys during the mating season when testosterone levels are high.

Question 158

The ________ cortical region plays a key role in the analysis of social situations.

a. occipital
b. parietal
c. ventromedial prefrontal
d. temporal
e. cingulate

Answer 158

c. ventromedial prefrontal

Question 159

In a fear inducing situation, individuals who show courage are likely experiencing activation of the

a. subgenual anterior cingulate cortex.
b. orbitofrontal cortex.
c. frontal cortex.
d. posterior cingulate cortex.
e. anterior cingulate cortex.

Answer 159

a. subgenual anterior cingulate cortex.

Question 160

Phineas Gage, who was injured when a steel rod was accidentally driven through his skull, exhibited capricious, emotional behavior (in part) as a result of widespread damage to his

a. occipital cortex.
b. ventromedial prefrontal cortex.
c. cingulate cortex.
d. primary motor cortex.
e. primary sensory cortex.

Answer 160

b. ventromedial prefrontal cortex.

Question 161

Michael, a two-year-old, yells all day. He yells if someone gets near him. He yells if his train falls off the wooden track. He is angry, seemingly, all day. Given his developmental stage, his continuous anger probably comes from a fully developed _________ and an underdeveloped ___________.

a. amygdala; prefrontal cortex
b. prefrontal cortex; amygdala
c. amygdala; granular frontal cortex
d. granular frontal cortex; prefrontal cortex
e. granular frontal cortex; amygdala

Answer 161

a. amygdala; prefrontal cortex

Question 162

The combination of inadequate activation of the ________ and enhanced activation of the ________ may result in excessive anger that results in harm to other persons.

a. cortex; reticular activating system
b. prefrontal cortex; hypothalamus
c. prefrontal cortex; amygdala
d. amygdala; prefrontal cortex
e. noradrenergic system; serotonergic systems

Answer 162

c. prefrontal cortex; amygdala

Question 163

The _____________ plays an important role in provoking anger and violent emotional reactions, and the ____________ plays an important role in suppressing such behavior by making us see its negative consequences.

a. amygdala; prefrontal cortex
b. prefrontal cortex; amygdala
c. amygdala; granular frontal cortex
d. granular frontal cortex; prefrontal cortex
e. granular frontal cortex; amygdala

Answer 163

a. amygdala; prefrontal cortex

Question 164

Research shows people with antisocial personality disorder have an 11 percent reduction in volume of the gray matter of the

a. amygdala.
b. prefrontal cortex.
c. cingulate gyrus.
d. granular frontal cortex.
e. periaqueductal gray.

Answer 164

b. prefrontal cortex

Question 165

Research suggests impulsive behavior is caused by decreased __________ activation in the ____________ prefrontal cortex.

a. serotonergic; medial
b. serotonergic; lateral
c. dopaminergic; medial
d. dopaminergic; lateral
e. cholinergic; medial

Answer 165

a. serotonergic; medial

Question 166

Research indicates that _____________ input to the prefrontal cortex activates this region.

a. serotonergic
b. cholinergic
c. dopaminergic
d. adrenergic
e. serotonergic and dopaminergic

Answer 166

a. serotonergic

Question 167

Impulsive aggression may reflect ________, which can be treated with ________.

a. overactivity of prefrontal neurons; fluoxetine
b. amygdaloid damage; GABA releasers
c. impaired serotonin prefrontal activity; fluoxetine
d. serotonin hypothalamic activity; fluoxetine
e. amygdaloid damage; glutamate releasers

Answer 167

c. impaired serotonin prefrontal activity; fluoxetine

Question 168

Recent research suggests that emotions may play the most important role in the formation of

a. moral judgments.
b. feelings of empathy.
c. career decisions.
d. religious judgments.
e. gambling habits.

Answer 168

a. moral judgments.

Question 169

Functional imaging studies of the brain during decision-making suggest that personal moral dilemmas strongly activate the

a. hypothalamus.
b. hippocampus.
c. ventromedial prefrontal cortex.
d. amygdala.
e. nucleus accumbens.

Answer 169

c. ventromedial prefrontal cortex.

Question 170

________ is an example of a personal moral dilemma.

a. Stealing a bus in order to drive people to safety during a hurricane
b. Allowing a lifeboat to sink to save your own life
c. Stealing a drug to feed your addiction
d. Throwing a switch that diverts a train into a crowd of people
e. Throwing another person onto a grenade in order to save a larger group

Answer 170

e. Throwing another person onto a grenade in order to save a larger group

Question 171

Individuals with lesions to the vmPFC are

a. less likely to feel strong emotional responses in moral judgments.
b. more likely to feel strong emotional responses in moral judgments.
c. less likely to pick sacrificing one person to save five.
d. more likely to find personally killing one individual to save five morally reprehensible.
e. less likely to partake in moral judgments at all.

Answer 171

a. less likely to feel strong emotional responses in moral judgments.

Question 172

When presented with the moral dilemma of whether to physically push Person A onto a trolley track to stop a trolley car from killing 5 other people, individuals with damage to the ____________ will choose to push Person A and stop the trolley, demonstrating no moral dilemma with this choice.

a. ventromedial prefrontal cortex
b. amygdala
c. subgenual anterior cingulate cortex
d. orbitofrontal cortex
e. prefrontal cortex

Answer 172

a. ventromedial prefrontal cortex

Question 173

The proposition that facial expressions of emotion are innate is supported by the observation that

a. blind children show different facial emotional expressions than do sighted persons.
b. facial expressions of emotion vary by culture.
c. the same facial expression for an emotion is observed in all cultures.
d. facial expressions of emotion change over time in a culture.
e. some facial emotion expressions are only expressed in adulthood.

Answer 173

c. the same facial expression for an emotion is observed in all cultures.

Question 174

A child who is born blind will

a. never learn how to smile.
b. have to be told how to move the facial features to elicit a smile.
c. learn to smile on a similar trajectory as sighted children.
d. smile as sighted children do, but will have to be taught how to facially express sadness.
e. smile at birth.

Answer 174

c. learn to smile on a similar trajectory as sighted children.

Question 175

Darwin argued that the expression of emotion in humans

a. varies greatly among individuals.
b. is learned during an early critical period.
c. is unique to each culture.
d. evolved from similar expressions in other animals.
e. involves muscle movements of the hands but not the face.

Answer 175

d. evolved from similar expressions in other animals.

Question 176

A key function of the right hemisphere is

a. the use of visual cues to recognize emotions.
b. the recognition of emotions.
c. the capacity to recognize the emotional content of hand gestures.
d. the ability to discriminate among different facial expressions of emotion.
e. control vocal emotional pitch.

Answer 176

b. the recognition of emotions.

Question 177

The ability to recognize emotions expressed by others is most likely to be impaired after damage to the

a. left hemisphere.
b. basal ganglia.
c. right hemisphere.
d. cerebellum.
e. dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

Answer 177

c. right hemisphere.

Question 178

PET studies indicate that the comprehension of emotion from tone of voice increased the activity of the

a. left frontal cortex.
b. left hemisphere.
c. right hemisphere.
d. anterior potion of the corpus callosum.
e. right frontal cortex.

Answer 178

e. right frontal cortex.

Question 179

Pure word deafness is produced by damage to the ________ cortex.

a. left temporal
b. right orbitofrontal
c. left parietal
d. right temporal
e. right parietal

Answer 179

a. left temporal

Question 180

The observation that a person with ________ cannot understand speech but can infer emotion from ________ suggests that word recognition and emotional vocal recognition are independent functions.

a. pure word deafness; body posture
b. Broca’s aphasia; use of emotional words
c. affective blindsight; body posture
d. pure word deafness; tone of voice
e. word deafness; use of emotional words

Answer 180

d. pure word deafness; tone of voice

Question 181

Which of the following is true of the role of the amygdala for the recognition of emotion?

a. Amygdala damage impairs the ability to use tone of voice cues for emotion recognition.
b. Amygdala damage impairs the ability to use facial expressions for emotion recognition.
c. The amygdala receives input from the visual cortex via the thalamus.
d. Conscious awareness is required for the facial expression of emotion.
e. Activation of the amygdala improves mood and affect.

Answer 181

b. Amygdala damage impairs the ability to use facial expressions for emotion recognition.

Question 182

Because the amygdala receives input from cortical and subcortical sources, a person made blind by cortical damage

a. can recognize body posture.
b. is unable to infer emotion from tone of voice.
c. can recognize object movement.
d. is unable to express their emotion using tone of voice.
e. can recognize facial emotional expressions.

Answer 182

e. can recognize facial emotional expressions.

Question 183

Damage to the amygdala can impair recognition of ________ but not ________.

a. body posture; tone of voice
b. word meaning; the ability to speak a word
c. object identity; object movement
d. facial emotion expression; recognition of emotion using tone of voice
e. tone of voice; facial emotional expressions

Answer 183

d. facial emotion expression; recognition of emotion using tone of voice

Question 184

Rapid recognition of facial emotional expression is mediated by signals carried by the ________ system.

a. koniocellular
b. magnocellular
c. retino-striatal
d. parvocellular
e. retino-tectal

Answer 184

b. magnocellular

Question 185

The emotion of disgust involves activation of neurons within the

a. hypothalamus.
b. left hemisphere.
c. insular cortex.
d. substantia nigra.
e. corpus callosum.

Answer 185

c. insular cortex.

Question 186

People with volitional facial paresis are unable to

a. voluntarily move the facial muscles.
b. cry.
c. comprehend other people’s emotions.
d. recognize facial expressions.
e. use tone of voice to communicate their emotional states.

Answer 186

a. voluntarily move the facial muscles.

Question 187

Which disorder would greatly impair the capacity of a person to succeed in acting?

a. volitional facial paresis
b. unilateral damage to the substantia nigra
c. unilateral damage to the caudate nucleus
d. emotional facial paresis
e. Broca’s aphasia

Answer 187

d. emotional facial paresis

Question 188

With regard to facial emotional expression,

a. the sides of the face are equivalent during emotional expression.
b. positive emotions are more strongly displayed on the right side of the face.
c. negative emotions are more strongly displayed on the right side of the face.
d. positive emotions are more strongly expressed than are negative emotions.
e. negative emotional expressions are more intensely expressed on the left side of the face.

Answer 188

e. negative emotional expressions are more intensely expressed on the left side of the face.

Question 189

The muscular movements that are involved in laughter are controlled by neurons within the

a. hypothalamus.
b. anterior cingulate cortex.
c. insular cortex.
d. substantia nigra.
e. corpus callosum.

Answer 189

b. anterior cingulate cortex.

Question 190

The unique aspect of Patient S.P. is that after removal of her right amygdala, she

a. was unable to recognize individual faces.
b. was unable to recognize her own facial emotional expressions.
c. could accurately judge the age of other persons.
d. lost the ability to show emotion in her facial expressions.
e. could not perceive facial color.

Answer 190

b. was unable to recognize her own facial emotional expressions.

Question 191

A chimeric face

a. is another name for being deceptive.
b. is a happy face.
c. is a wrinkled face.
d. is created by pasting different facial images to form a single unit.
e. shows rapid shifts in emotional state.

Answer 191

d. is created by pasting different facial images to form a single unit.

Question 192

According to the James-Lange theory, feelings of emotions are

a. dependent upon the genetic makeup of an individual.
b. the causes of physiological reactions to events.
c. produced by feedback from the behaviors and physiological responses caused by emotion-producing situations.
d. culturally determined responses to stimuli.
e. produced by activity within the thalamus in response to sensory cues.

Answer 192

c. produced by feedback from the behaviors and physiological responses caused by emotion-producing situations.

Question 193

Which statement best illustrates the James-Lange theory of emotion?

a. Feeling happy causes you to laugh.
b. Laugh and you will be happy.
c. Happiness is the result of excessive release of endorphins.
d. Your frontal lobe causes you to feel happy; your motor cortex causes you to laugh.
e. Feeling happy induces the species-typical reaction we call laughter.

Answer 193

b. Laugh and you will be happy.

Question 194

According to the James-Lange theory of emotion, which of the following is most important for the subjective experience of an emotion?

a. changes in hormone levels provoked by the stimulus
b. the cultural context in which an event occurs
c. one’s own self-report of what is being experienced
d. sensory feedback from muscles and internal organs
e. that the person has an intact thalamus

Answer 194

d. sensory feedback from muscles and internal organs

Question 195

Studies by Ekman and colleagues suggest that

a. simulated facial emotional expression changes sympathetic activity.
b. fear and happiness produce similar changes in the autonomic nervous system.
c. simulated facial emotional expression changes parasympathetic activity.
d. different emotions are expressed in similar ways by the facial muscles.
e. emotions are determined by culture.

Answer 195

a. simulated facial emotional expression changes sympathetic activity.

Question 196

Most studies of emotion have focused on ________ emotions.

Answer 196

negative

Question 197

The ________ nucleus of the amygdala is the most important part of the brain for the expression of emotional responses provoked by aversive stimuli.

Answer 197

central

Question 198

Outputs from the ________ mediate the increased vigilance noted during fear.

Answer 198

locus coeruleus

Question 199

Lesions of the periaqueductal gray matter interfere with the ________ in rats.

Answer 199

freezing response

Question 200

Damage to the ________ cortex impairs the extinction of a conditioned emotional response.

Answer 200

ventromedial prefrontal

Question 201

Feelings of fear in humans are produced by electrical stimulation of the ________.

Answer 201

amygdala

Question 202

________ is one type of behavior that serves to prevent an attack by another animal.

Answer 202

submission

Question 203

The neurotransmitter serotonin typically ________ aggression.

Answer 203

inhibits (or suppresses)

Question 204

Low levels of ________ in the brain are correlated with risky behavior in males.

Answer 204

5-HIAA

Question 205

________ is a drug that can reduce symptoms of irritability and aggressiveness.

Answer 205

Fluoxetine (or any serotonin agonist)

Question 206

The fact that early androgen exposure in rats increases the likelihood of adult aggressive behavior is an example of a(n) ________ hormone effect.

Answer 206

organizational

Question 207

The aggression levels in both males and females are increased by exposure to ________.

Answer 207

androgen

Question 208

Damage to the vmPFC caused by a railroad accident caused ________ to be childish, irresponsible, and whimsical.

Answer 208

phineas gage

Question 209

Deciding whether to throw a person onto a railroad track to save others is an example of a(n) ________ moral dilemma.

Answer 209

personal

Question 210

________ argued that human emotional expression evolved from similar expressions in other animals.

Answer 210

Darwin

Question 211

Disgusting stimuli activate the activity of cells in the ________.

Answer 211

insular cortex

Question 212

Individuals who have ________ have difficulty in moving the facial muscles voluntarily.

Answer 212

volitional facial paresis

Question 213

The ________ half of the face is more expressive than the other half.

Answer 213

left

Question 214

The prominent physiologist ________ strongly criticized the James-Lange theory of emotion.

Answer 214

Walter Cannon

Question 215

Injections of ________ can inhibit facial muscle movement and facial emotional expression.

Answer 215

botox

Question 216

The case of Mrs. R. involved _______ provoked by a tumor located between her frontal lobes.

a. motor seizures
b. partial paralysis
c. mutism
d. a stroke
e. a speech disorder

Answer 216

a. motor seizures

Question 217

A(n) ________ is a mass of cells whose growth is uncontrolled and that serves no useful function in the body.

a. polyp
b. tumor
c. cyst
d. nodule
e. aneurism

Answer 217

b. tumor

Question 218

Which of the following is true of a benign brain tumor?

a. Benign tumors cause damage through glutamate release.
b. Benign tumors damage brain tissue by infiltration.
c. The flow of CSF can be increased by a growing benign tumor.
d. Benign tumors are encapsulated.
e. Benign tumors induce apoptosis cascades which kill neurons.

Answer 218

d. Benign tumors are encapsulated.

Question 219

The key characteristic of a benign tumor is that such a tumor

a. cannot cause brain damage.
b. does not require surgery.
c. has a distinct border.
d. spreads rapidly through infiltration of adjacent tissue.
e. mostly arises from neuron cell types.

Answer 219

c. has a distinct border.

Question 220

The key characteristic of a malignant tumor is that such a tumor

a. does not require surgery.
b. cannot cause brain damage.
c. has a distinct border.
d. spreads rapidly through infiltration of adjacent tissue.
e. can give off cancerous cells that in turn reach distant sites.

Answer 220

e. can give off cancerous cells that in turn reach distant sites.

Question 221

The key distinction between malignant and benign tumors is that

a. malignant tumors mostly appear within structures that are adjacent to large blood vessels.
b. a benign tumor is encapsulated by a distinct border.
c. benign tumors are invariably larger than malignant tumors.
d. malignant tumors arise from neurons rather than glia.
e. benign tumors induce apoptosis but malignant tumors do not.

Answer 221

b. a benign tumor is encapsulated by a distinct border.

Question 222

The toxic action of brain tumors relates to the

a. observation that tumors use up oxygen and glucose, thereby starving brain cells of energy substrates.
b. ability of tumor cells to stimulate the growth/division of adjacent nerve cells.
c. toxic action of oversecretion of the transmitter GABA from tumor cells.
d. ability of brain tumors to compress tissue, leading to cell death.
e. fact that tumors arising from neuron cells grow very rapidly, thus producing tissue compression.

Answer 222

d. ability of brain tumors to compress tissue, leading to cell death.

Question 223

Malignant brain tumors are deadly because such tumors

a. can increase the flow of cerebrospinal fluid, thus causing hydrocephalus.
b. release glutamate.
c. give off cells that travel to other body areas and result in new tumors.
d. release glycine, which kills nearby cells.
e. can only be confirmed at autopsy.

Answer 223

c. give off cells that travel to other body areas and result in new tumors.

Question 224

Malignant brain tumors directly damage brain tissue by

a. compression and infiltration.
b. oversecreting glutamate, which in turns kills adjacent glial cells.
c. oxygen deprivation.
d. inducing hemorrhage.
e. releasing oxygen radicals into brain tissue.

Answer 224

a. compression and infiltration.

Question 225

_______________ cannot form the basis of tumors.

a. Astrocytes
b. Oligodendrocytes
c. Glial cells
d. Nerve cells
e. Cells of the meninges

Answer 225

d. Nerve cells

Question 226

A neurinoma is formed from

a. astrocytes.
b. ependymal cells from the ventricles.
c. Schwann cells.
d. nerve cells.
e. cells of the meninges.

Answer 226

c. Schwann cells.

Question 227

A(n) ________ is an example of a malignant tumor derived from glial cells.

a. meningioma
b. pinealoma
c. angioma
d. metastatic oligodendrocytoma
e. astrocytoma

Answer 227

d. metastatic oligodendrocytoma

Question 228

In the treatment of tumors, ______________ is usually done first, if possible.

a. radiation
b. chemotherapy
c. vitamin treatment
d. drug therapies
e. surgery

Answer 228

e. surgery

Question 229

The FDA has approved the drug ________ to treat rapidly growing tumors.

a. carbachol
b. fluoxetine
c. dilantin
d. lithium
e. bevacizumab

Answer 229

e. bevacizumab

Question 230

________ is characterized by periodic bouts of abnormally high excitation of cerebral neurons.

a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Seizure disorder
c. Tay-Sachs disease
d. Alzheimer’s disease
e. Encephalitis

Answer 230

Seizure disorder

Question 231

A convulsion occurs when a seizure

a. is triggered by oxygen deprivation.
b. involves the motor cortex.
c. has been triggered by a toxic chemical.
d. involves a loss of consciousness.
e. is of the petit mal type in children.

Answer 231

b. involves the motor cortex.

Question 232

An example of a partial seizure is a(n) ___________ seizure.

a. grand mal
b. atonic
c. absence
d. sensory
e. myoclonic

Answer 232

d. sensory

Question 233

An example of a generalized seizure is a(n) _______________ seizure.

a. autonomic
b. absence
c. psychic
d. motor
e. localized motor

Answer 233

b. absence

Question 234

In contrast to simple partial seizures, complex partial seizures involve

a. a loss of consciousness.
b. alteration (but not loss) of consciousness.
c. a definite focus.
d. most of the brain.
e. scarred brain tissue.

Answer 234

a. a loss of consciousness.

Question 235

The nature of an aura experienced during a seizure varies depending on

a. whether the seizure is above or below threshold.
b. whether the motor system is involved.
c. the location of the seizure focus.
d. how long the person has experienced seizure activity.
e. the amount of fear experienced during the seizure.

Answer 235

c. the location of the seizure focus.

Question 236

The tonic phase of a grand mal seizure begins

a. when the cortex is inhibited by messages sent from diencephalic structures.
b. when an aura is produced within the cerebellum.
c. when neurons in the motor cortex contract the body muscles.
d. with an excessive release of glutamate in the hippocampus.
e. with a suppression of glycine release within the brain stem.

Answer 236

c. when neurons in the motor cortex contract the body muscles.

Question 237

During the ________ of a grand mal seizure, the person experiences a(n) _______.

a. tonic phase; contraction of all skeletal muscles
b. clonic phase; aura involving lights
c. clonic phase; contraction of all skeletal muscles
d. tonic phase; eye-rolling and facial grimaces
e. tonic phase; changes in consciousness

Answer 237

a. tonic phase; contraction of all skeletal muscles

Question 238

The ________ seizure disorder is often seen in children and is characterized by a spell of absence.

a. complex
b. petit mal
c. simple partial
d. atonic
e. dystonic

Answer 238

b. petit mal

Question 239

An aura involving the recall of a childhood memory would most likely reflect seizure activity within the

a. occipital lobes.
b. parietal association cortex.
c. temporal lobes.
d. primary motor cortex.
e. primary auditory cortex.

Answer 239

c. temporal lobes.

Question 240

During a grand mal seizure, convulsions occur during the ___________ phase.

a. absence
b. tonic
c. clonic
d. aura
e. petit mal

Answer 240

c. clonic

Question 241

A seizure that starts within the parietal lobe would be expected to produce an aura that involves

a. feelings of being on “pins and needles.”
b. hallucinations that include old memories.
c. flashes of light or color.
d. perceptions of a strong odor.
e. muscle twitches.

Answer 241

a. feelings of being on “pins and needles.”

Question 242

The most common cause of seizure disorder is

a. sudden withdrawal from barbiturate abuse.
b. exposure to toxic chemicals.
c. drug overdose.
d. scarring produced by damage within the brain.
e. sudden withdrawal from opiate abuse.

Answer 242

d. scarring produced by damage within the brain.

Question 243

Hemorrhagic strokes cause brain damage by

a. exerting pressure on surrounding tissue.
b. decreasing the production of cerebrospinal fluid.
c. spreading infection throughout the brain.
d. increasing the production of cerebrospinal fluid.
e. inducing the release of GABA.

Answer 243

a. exerting pressure on surrounding tissue.

Question 244

Chris has a long history of high blood pressure. He takes medications to regulate his blood pressure but he often forgets to take it and doesn’t follow the suggested diet from his doctor. These facts make it more likely that he will suffer from a(n) _____________ stroke.

a. ischemic (thrombus)
b. ischemic (embolus)
c. transient
d. hemorrhagic
e. permanent

Answer 244

d. hemorrhagic

Question 245

In an ischemic stroke, neurons die because

a. they lose their glucose supply.
b. they lose their supply of oxygen.
c. excess glutamate causes an excitotoxic lesion.
d. excess dopamine causes an excitotoxic lesion.
e. the blood clot infiltrates the tissue.

Answer 245

c. excess glutamate causes an excitotoxic lesion.

Question 246

A hemorrhagic stroke involves ________ within the brain.

a. vasodilation
b. bleeding
c. an embolus
d. a thrombus
e. obstruction of blood flow

Answer 246

b. bleeding

Question 247

Prolonged interruption of the blood supply to a region of the brain results in

a. hemorrhage.
b. hyperglycemia.
c. ischemia.
d. galactosemia.
e. vasodilation

Answer 247

c. ischemia.

Question 248

An ischemic stroke involves ________ within the brain.

a. vasodilation
b. bleeding
c. shearing of blood vessels
d. an infection of glial cells
e. obstruction of blood flow

Answer 248

e. obstruction of blood flow

Question 249

A thrombus

a. can be caused by infection in the heart.
b. is composed of debris that lodges in an artery.
c. can result in hemorrhagic stroke.
d. can consist of pieces of thrombi.
e. is a blood clot formed in a blood vessel.

Answer 249

e. is a blood clot formed in a blood vessel.

Question 250

A major cause of obstructive strokes is

a. the failure of weakened blood vessels in response to blood pressure.
b. malformed blood vessels.
c. intracranial bleeding.
d. high blood pressure.
e. a thrombus or an embolus.

Answer 250

e. a thrombus or an embolus.

Question 251

Which of the following most correctly describes the sequence of toxic events that occur in brain during a stroke?

a. increased blood flow –> activation of NA+/K+ transporters –> membrane hyperpolarization –> GABA release –> excessive accumulation of extracellular CA++
b. reduced blood flow –> inactivation of Na+/K+ transporters –> membrane depolarization –> glutamate release –> excessive accumulation of intracellular CA++
c. reduced blood flow –> activation of Na+/K+ transporters –> membrane hyperpolarization –> DA release –> excessive accumulation of intracellular CL-
d. reduced blood flow –> inactivation of Na+/K+ transporters –> membrane hyperpolarization –> GABA release –> excessive accumulation of intracellular CA++
e. increased blood flow –> reduced accumulation of extracellular CA++ –> membrane hyperpolarization –> GABA release

Answer 251

b. reduced blood flow –> inactivation of Na+/K+ transporters –> membrane depolarization –> glutamate release –> excessive accumulation of intracellular CA++

Question 252

A 50-year-old man has experienced a major stroke caused by a thrombus that occluded brain blood vessels. To prevent the occurrence of another stroke, his physicians would most likely

a. administer an anticoagulant.
b. administer drugs that lower blood pressure.
c. cut out the embolus using invasive surgery.
d. use deep brain stimulation to facilitate neuron regrowth.
e. administer massive doses of antibiotics.

Answer 252

a. administer an anticoagulant.

Question 253

When it comes to treatment of a stroke, _____________ helps prevent clotting and does not increase excitotoxicity.

a. tPA
b. 2-DG
c. MP
d. desmoteplase
e. phenobarbital

Answer 253

d. desmoteplase

Question 254

One surgical treatment for stroke, ___________________, is associated with an increased number of future strokes and the death rate following implantation is high.

a. use of carotid stents
b. carotid endarterectomy
c. atherosclerosis
d. sclerosis
e. angioplasty

Answer 254

a. use of carotid stents

Question 255

Which of the following is a therapy for ischemic stroke, but only if given soon after the onset of symptoms?

a. infusion of free radicals into the affected brain region
b. administration of tPA to dissolve blood clots
c. drugs that inactivate GABA receptors
d. drugs that stimulate glutamate receptors
e. drugs that promote inflammatory reactions

Answer 255

b. administration of tPA to dissolve blood clots

Question 256

Atherosclerosis involves

a. the movement of thrombi across the blood-brain barrier.
b. a buildup of plaque within glial cells.
c. surgery on the major brain blood vessels.
d. a buildup of plaque within arteries.
e. a shearing of the walls of arterial vessels.

Answer 256

d. a buildup of plaque within arteries.

Question 257

In constraint-induced therapy, stroke patients

a. used their unaffected limbs to accomplish physical tasks.
b. experienced long-term improvement in the patients’ ability to use their impaired arms.
c. did not improve in their ability to use the impaired limb.
d. experienced a weakening in the constrained arms over time.
e. were able to use their unaffected limb for daily tasks.

Answer 257

b. experienced long-term improvement in the patients’ ability to use their impaired arms.

Question 258

When the skull meets with blunt force trauma to the right side, the brain tissue will experience trauma as it meets the skull. This blow to the brain is known as

a. the coup.
b. the countrecoup.
c. closed-head injury.
d. open-head injury.
e. punch drunk syndrome.

Answer 258

a. the coup.

Question 259

This type of TBI is a neurodegenerative injury from repeated brain trauma, often seen in athletes.

a. coup injury
b. coup-countrecoup injury
c. chronic traumatic encephalopathy
d. mild traumatic brain injury
e. contusion

Answer 259

c. chronic traumatic encephalopathy

Question 260

Brain development in a fetus whose mother contracted German measles early in the pregnancy is impaired because the rubella virus

a. alters chromosome number.
b. induces an error of metabolism within brain cells.
c. produces toxins that interfere with the chemical signals that control brain development.
d. deletes key enzymes within the brain.
e. alters neurotransmitter release in the neural tube.

Answer 260

c. produces toxins that interfere with the chemical signals that control brain development.

Question 261

A key sign that a child born to a mother who consumed alcohol during the pregnancy suffers from fetal alcohol syndrome involves

a. brain swelling.
b. an immature immune system.
c. abnormal facial development.
d. deficient muscle development.
e. an enlarged skull in the affected infant.

Answer 261

c. abnormal facial development.

Question 262

The most serious effect of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder is

a. an unusual facial appearance.
b. malformation of limbs.
c. impaired brain development.
d. that such babies are likely to develop alcoholism as adults.
e. exaggerated startle response.

Answer 262

c. impaired brain development.

Question 263

A baby that has fetal alcohol syndrome would be expected to

a. be smaller than average in size.
b. have abnormal reflexes.
c. have a very large head.
d. be hyperactive.
e. develop more rapidly than his or her normal peers.

Answer 263

a. be smaller than average in size.

Question 264

A key pathway through which alcohol disrupts normal brain development is by interfering with

a. enzymes that break down cell wastes.
b. the conversion of phenylalanine into tyrosine.
c. the processes that terminate the formation of new neurons.
d. a protein that helps guide neuronal growth in the developing brain.
e. the function of glial membrane sodium-potassium transporters.

Answer 264

d. a protein that helps guide neuronal growth in the developing brain.

Question 265

Phenylketonuria is caused by

a. an inherited lack of an enzyme that produces tyrosine.
b. accumulation of waste products in the brain.
c. neurofibrillary tangles.
d. toxic chemicals released by a virus.
e. leakage from glutamate into the brain blood system.

Answer 265

a. an inherited lack of an enzyme that produces tyrosine.

Question 266

Tyra has phenylketonuria. Which of the following statements would be most accurate?

a. Tyra must be on a restricted diet low in phenylalanine for the remainder of her life.
b. Phenylalanine in Tyra’s diet helps to myelinate axons.
c. Tyra can introduce phenylalanine into her diet as an adult.
d. Phenylketonuria results from a missing protein.
e. She will need a complete blood transfusion.

Answer 266

c. Tyra can introduce phenylalanine into her diet as an adult.

Question 267

If a pregnant woman has phenylketonuria

a. the mother must follow a strict diet to safeguard her own brain, but the fetus will be unaffected.
b. the mother must follow a strict diet for the brain development of herself and for the fetus.
c. the mother must follow a strict diet for the fetus to be unaffected, but eating phenylalanine will not likely affect her.
d. the pregnancy will not come to term.
e. neurofibrillary tangles that develop at about 4 years of age.

Answer 267

c. the mother must follow a strict diet for the fetus to be unaffected, but eating phenylalanine will not likely affect her.

Question 268

Untreated __________________ results in damage to cerebral white matter, the thalamus, and the cerebellum.

a. pyridoxine dependency
b. Down syndrome
c. galactosemia
d. phenylketonuria
e. Tay-Sachs disease

Answer 268

a. pyridoxine dependency

Question 269

______________ is a metabolic disorder in which an infant requires larger-than-normal amounts of vitamin B6 to avoid neurological symptoms.

a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Tay-Sachs disease
c. Phenylketonuria
d. Pyridoxine dependency
e. Huntington’s chorea

Answer 269

d. Pyridoxine dependency

Question 270

The term congenital refers to a

a. genetic metabolic error of the brain.
b. condition present at birth.
c. condition in which a fetus has both male and female internal reproductive structures.
d. neurological condition that appears during puberty.
e. condition that is inherited from the mother.

Answer 270

b. condition present at birth.

Question 271

The mental retardation shown in Down syndrome is caused by

a. the absence of the 21st chromosome.
b. a buildup of waste products in the neurons of brain.
c. a genetic error involving a missing vital enzyme.
d. the presence of an extra 21st chromosome.
e. an inherited faulty gene.

Answer 271

d. the presence of an extra 21st chromosome.

Question 272

Whether a fetus will be born with Down syndrome is related to

a. the age of the mother at the time of pregnancy.
b. the presence of specific amino acids in the mother’s diet.
c. overexposure to toxins during pregnancy.
d. ingestion of drugs and alcohol by the father prior to conception.
e. the uterine environment during pregnancy.

Answer 272

a. the age of the mother at the time of pregnancy.

Question 273

Mouse models of Down syndrome suggest that _____________ of ____________ may impair hippocampal synaptic plasticity and associated learning and memory.

a. overactivity; glutamate
b. overactivity; GABA
c. underactivity; glutamate
d. underactivity; GABA
e. overactivity; dopamine

Answer 273

b. overactivity; GABA

Question 274

Which of the following is true of Down syndrome (DS)?

a. The brains of DS people are approximately 10 percent lighter than those of normal people.
b. A DS person may be exceptionally talented in a particular area in spite of general mental retardation.
c. People with DS have no distinguishing physical characteristics.
d. People with DS often fail to learn to talk.
e. The incidence of DS is 1 in 10,000 in the United States.

Answer 274

a. The brains of DS people are approximately 10 percent lighter than those of normal people.

Question 275

The brain of an individual with Down syndrome would be expected to differ from that of a brain of a normal individual in that

a. the superior temporal gyrus is larger in the left hemisphere of the Down syndrome brain.
b. the frontal lobes are larger in the Down syndrome brain.
c. the Down syndrome brain is 10% heavier than the normal brain.
d. the Down syndrome brain has simpler and smaller gyri and sulci.
e. the superior temporal gyrus is larger in the right hemisphere of the Down syndrome brain.

Answer 275

d. the Down syndrome brain has simpler and smaller gyri and sulci.

Question 276

Which of the following is true of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE)?

a. Down syndrome is a form of TSE.
b. In TSE, the ventricles are constricted.
c. PKU is a form of TSE that involves eating human flesh.
d. TSEs are caused by simple proteins termed prions.
e. Parkinson’s disease is caused by eating human flesh.

Answer 276

d. TSEs are caused by simple proteins termed prions.

Question 277

________ is associated with the consumption of tainted human flesh.

a. Kuru
b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
c. Down syndrome
d. Phenylketonuria
e. Parkinson’s disease

Answer 277

a. Kuru

Question 278

Prions kill neurons by

a. releasing glycine.
b. inducing apoptosis.
c. increasing calcium levels in neurons.
d. decreasing glutamate release.
e. compressing nerve cells.

Answer 278

b. inducing apoptosis

Question 279

________ is caused by degeneration of dopamine-secreting neurons of the substantia nigra.

a. Encephalitis
b. Parkinson’s disease
c. Kuru
d. Multiple sclerosis
e. Acute anterior poliomyelitis

Answer 279

b. Parkinson’s disease

Question 280

The cause of Parkinson’s disease has been traced to

a. overproduction of GABA within the caudate nucleus.
b. loss of cholinergic neurons within the frontal cortex.
c. overproduction of dopamine within the basal ganglia.
d. degeneration of dopamine neurons within the nigrostriatal system.
e. the presence of an extra 21st chromosome.

Answer 280

d. degeneration of dopamine neurons within the nigrostriatal system.

Question 281

Loss of dopaminergic neurons and the associated decreased activation of the supplementary motor area result in

a. akinesia.
b. akinetopsia.
c. anomia.
d. ageusia.
e. atonia.

Answer 281

a. akinesia.

Question 282

A unique genetic cause of Parkinson’s disease has been traced to

a. a dominant mutation of a gene on chromosome 4.
b. overproduction of GABA within the caudate nucleus.
c. a recessive gene located on chromosome 8.
d. a loss of cholinergic neurons within the frontal cortex.
e. overproduction of dopamine within the basal ganglia.

Answer 282

a. a dominant mutation of a gene on chromosome 4.

Question 283

A genetic disorder caused by a mutation that produces a protein with toxic consequences would be classified as

a. a toxic gain of function.
b. recessive.
c. a toxic loss of function.
d. congenital.
e. degenerative.

Answer 283

a. a toxic gain of function.

Question 284

A genetic disorder caused by a mutation that fails to produce a protein that is required for normal health would be classified as

a. a toxic gain of function.
b. recessive.
c. a toxic loss of function.
d. congenital.
e. degenerative.

Answer 284

c. a toxic loss of function.

Question 285

Which of the following statements about Parkinson’s disease is accurate?

a. All dopamine neurons are affected by Parkinson’s disease.
b. Dopamine neurons in the mesolimbic system are affected by Parkinson’s disease.
c. If calcium is involved in regulating the spontaneous activity of dopamine cells, these cells are more affected by Parkinson’s disease.
d. Parkinson’s disease is reversible.
e. Parkinson’s disease is not degenerative.

Answer 285

c. If calcium is involved in regulating the spontaneous activity of dopamine cells, these cells are more affected by Parkinson’s disease.

Question 286

The standard drug treatment for Parkinson’s disease is the daily administration of

a. d-amphetamine.
b. L-DOPA.
c. atropine.
d. haloperidol.
e. apomorphine.

Answer 286

b. L-DOPA.

Question 287

A therapy for Parkinson’s disease that alters MAO-B activity in nerve cells involves administration of

a. deprenyl.
b. paraquat.
c. haloperidol.
d. L-DOPA.
e. pimozide.

Answer 287

a. deprenyl.

Question 288

Which of the following represents a therapy for Parkinson’s disease?

a. daily administration of amphetamine or cocaine
b. administration of haloperidol
c. stereotaxically guided destruction of the internal division of the globus pallidus
d. daily administration of the insecticide paraquat
e. stereotaxically-guided destruction of the external division of the globus pallidus

Answer 288

c. stereotaxically guided destruction of the internal division of the globus pallidus

Question 289

The principal output of the basal ganglia is from the

a. internal division of the globus pallidus.
b. internal capsule.
c. lateral caudate nucleus.
d. external division of the globus pallidus.
e. dorsal root ganglion.

Answer 289

a. internal division of the globus pallidus.

Question 290

Surgical removal of the ________ can alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.

a. thalamus
b. putamen
c. basal ganglia
d. globus pallidus
e. primary motor cortex

Answer 290

d. globus pallidus

Question 291

Deep brain stimulation of the ________ can alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.

a. thalamus
b. putamen
c. basal ganglia
d. subthalamic nucleus
e. primary motor cortex

Answer 291

d. subthalamic nucleus

Question 292

A key distinction is that Parkinson’s disease ________, whereas Huntington’s disease ________.

a. symptoms can be cured with drug treatment or surgery; symptoms can be treated with drugs
b. usually occurs in the twenties and thirties; almost always occurs in the fifties and sixties
c. is characterized by a poverty of movement; is characterized by uncontrollable ones
d. is a hereditary disorder; does not usually have genetic origins
e. symptoms cannot be treated; symptoms can be cured with drug treatment or surgery

Answer 292

c. is characterized by a poverty of movement; is characterized by uncontrollable ones

Question 293

Which treatment has the best utility for Huntington’s disease?

a. deep brain stimulation of the caudate
b. deep brain stimulation of the thalamus
c. lesioning the putamen
d. implantation of fetal caudate and putamen cells
e. there is no current treatment for Huntington’s disease

Answer 293

e. there is no current treatment for Huntington’s disease

Question 294

________ is a degenerative disorder involving a defective gene on chromosome 4 that results in jerky uncontrollable movements.

a. Down syndrome
b. Tay-Sachs disease
c. Meissner’s syndrome
d. Huntington’s disease
e. Parkinson’s disease

Answer 294

d. Huntington’s disease

Question 295

The specific cause for Huntington’s disease may involve _______ that kills neurons.

a. inclusion bodies
b. elongated stretches of glutamine
c. suppression of apoptosis
d. excessive release of glutamate
e. loss of L-DOPA function

Answer 295

b. elongated stretches of glutamine

Question 296

. _____________ is the current psychopharmacological treatment for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

a. Riluzole
b. Deprenyl
c. L-DOPA
d. interferon β
e. interferon α

Answer 296

a. Riluzole

Question 297

The key symptom of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is

a. impaired eye movements.
b. loss of short-term memory.
c. spasticity of the muscles.
d. wild, flailing muscle movements.
e. problems with eye movement.

Answer 297

c. spasticity of the muscles.

Question 298

Some 90 percent of cases of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are

a. known to be hereditary.
b. classified as sporadic.
c. due to excessive production of dopamine in brain.
d. cured using anticholinergic drugs.
e. treated using drugs that increase brain glutamate activity.

Answer 298

b. classified as sporadic.

Question 299

An autoimmune reaction that damages ________ is the cause of the multiple sclerosis.

a. the myelin sheaths surrounding nerve cells
b. presynaptic muscarinic receptors
c. acetylcholinergic neurons
d. GABAergic neurons
e. sclerotic plaques

Answer 299

a. the myelin sheaths surrounding nerve cells

Question 300

The etiology of multiple sclerosis may involve

a. lack of an enzyme needed for myelinization.
b. damage to the blood-brain barrier by a virus.
c. the formation of ß-amyloid protein.
d. degeneration of cholinergic cells in the basal forebrain.
e. the formation of neurofibrillary tangles.

Answer 300

b. damage to the blood-brain barrier by a virus.

Question 301

Multiple sclerosis is more common in

a. men relative to women.
b. older people than younger people.
c. people who lived on the equator, versus the poles of the earth, during childhood.
d. people born during late summer.
e. women than in men.

Answer 301

e. women than in men.

Question 302

Multiple sclerosis is most common in

a. men relative to women.
b. older people than younger people.
c. people who lived far from the equator during childhood.
d. people who lived on the equator during childhood.
e. people born during late summer.

Answer 302

c. people who lived far from the equator during childhood.

Question 303

The symptoms of multiple sclerosis can be partially alleviated using

a. administration of interferon A.
b. drugs that block acetylcholinesterase.
c. administration of glatiramer acetate.
d. administration of interferon ß.
e. drugs that block glutamate receptor activity.

Answer 303

d. administration of interferon ß.

Question 304

The term dementia refers to

a. loss of neurons in the cells surrounding the third ventricle.
b. deterioration of intellectual abilities caused by an organic brain disorder.
c. altered cognitive function associated with schizophrenia.
d. demyelinization by autoimmune responses.
e. impaired cell functioning caused by viral toxins.

Answer 304

b. deterioration of intellectual abilities caused by an organic brain disorder.

Question 305

The primary cognitive deficit associated with Alzheimer’s disease involves

a. initial confusion that later develops into a memory impairment.
b. a difficulty in controlling the arms and legs.
c. a progressive loss of memory.
d. impaired appetite function.
e. slowing of cognitive function.

Answer 305

c. a progressive loss of memory.

Question 306

Alzheimer’s disease involves

a. a type of anterograde amnesia similar to that of Korsakoff’s syndrome.
b. severe degeneration of the parietal cortex.
c. an inability to recall childhood events.
d. difficulties in motor coordination.
e. loss of dopaminergic cells with the striatum.

Answer 306

a. a type of anterograde amnesia similar to that of Korsakoff’s syndrome.

Question 307

Which of the following is accurate regarding Alzheimer’s disease?

a. Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are unique to Alzheimer’s disease.
b. Amyloid plaques are dying neurons that contain intracellular accumulations of tau protein.
c. Acetylcholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain are among the first cells to be affected in Alzheimer’s disease.
d. Neurofibrillary tangles are extracellular deposits that consist of a dense core surrounded by degenerating axons and dendrites.
e. Dopaminergic neurons in the basal forebrain are among the first cells to be affected in Alzheimer’s disease.

Answer 307

c. Acetylcholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain are among the first cells to be affected in Alzheimer’s disease.

Question 308

Alzheimer’s disease appears to be caused by excessive levels of ________ in the brain.

a. glutamate
b. the tau protein
c. glycine
d. serotonin
e. the long form of the AB protein

Answer 308

e. the long form of the AB protein

Question 309

Pharmacological treatment of Alzheimer’s patients with ________ can improve cognitive performance relative to that of control patients.

a. inflammatory cytokines
b. antihistamines
c. bee pollen
d. acetylcholinesterase inhibitor drugs
e. paraquat

Answer 309

d. acetylcholinesterase inhibitor drugs

Question 310

Damage to the ___________ produce(s) __________ amnesia in Korsakoff’s syndrome.

a. hippocampus; anterograde
b. hippocampus; retrograde
c. mammillary bodies; anterograde
d. mammillary bodies; retrograde
e. thalamus; retrograde

Answer 310

d. mammillary bodies; retrograde

Question 311

The most common infectious diseases that cause neurological disorders are ________ and ________.

a. encephalitis; meningitis
b. poliomyelitis; AIDS
c. multiple sclerosis; Alzheimer’s disease
d. rabies; herpes simplex
e. poliomyelitis; dementia

Answer 311

a. encephalitis; meningitis

Question 312

Rabies is a type of

a. autoimmune disorder.
b. viral encephalitis.
c. degenerative disorder related to matrix proteins.
d. bacterial infection.
e. sporadic degenerative disease.

Answer 312

b. viral encephalitis.

Question 313

The most common cause of encephalitis is

a. a virus transmitted by mosquitoes.
b. a bacterium transmitted by sexual intercourse
c. a virus found in bird droppings.
d. a virus found in untreated drinking water.
e. consumption of spoiled meat.

Answer 313

a. a virus transmitted by mosquitoes.

Question 314

A key symptom of meningitis is

a. a difficulty swallowing.
b. an impairment in coordination.
c. the experience of a stiff neck.
d. difficulty in the articulation of words.
e. excessive movement of the arms and legs.

Answer 314

c. the experience of a stiff neck.

Question 315

Meningitis leads to damage of the brain because this disease produces

a. damaged secretory cells within the choroid plexus.
b. scar tissue on the meninges.
c. inflammation of the meninges that interferes with the flow of blood or cerebrospinal fluid.
d. a buildup of the long form of ß-amyloid precursor protein.
e. sclerotic plaques.

Answer 315

c. inflammation of the meninges that interferes with the flow of blood or cerebrospinal fluid.