Biopsych Chapters 9, 11, 15 Flashcards by Aliza Kurtz

During sleep, a(n) ______________ is used to measure brain activity.

a. electroencephalogram
b. electromyogram
c. electro-oculogram
d. oximeter probe
e. electroencardiogram

a. electroencephalogram

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During periods of wakefulness, brain waves oscillate between __________ and ____________ waves.

a. alpha; beta
b. delta; beta
c. alpha; delta
d. theta; delta
e. gamma; alpha

a. alpha; beta

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The various stages of sleep are easily distinguished by

a. visible changes in respiration.
b. changes in motor movements involving speech.
c. changes in the electrical activity of the brain.
d. changes in consciousness.
e. the quality and quantity of dreams.

c. changes in the electrical activity of the brain

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The ________ is an instrument used to record electrical potentials from muscles during sleep.

a. myelogram
b. electroencephalogram
c. physiograph
d. electromyogram
e. retinogram

d. electromyogram

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An electro-oculogram is an instrument used in sleep studies to measure

a. blood pressure.
b. skin conductance.
c. heart rate.
d. electrical potentials within the brain.
e. eye movements.

e. eye movements.

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The ________ pattern of EEG activity is characterized by irregular, high-frequency (13-30 Hz), low-voltage waves.

a. beta
b. alpha
c. theta
d. sleep spindles
e. delta

a. beta

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The observation that a person’s brain shows beta wave activity is not a reliable indicator of being awake because

a. this pattern is seen in children but not adults.
b. this brain wave pattern also appears during sleep.
c. this wave form waxes and wanes during the day.
d. it can be induced by certain drugs such as alcohol.
e. drugs can elicit this brain wave pattern.

b. this brain wave pattern also appears during sleep.

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As Jenelle is falling asleep, she has a sensation of walking along. Suddenly, her right leg steps into a hole and her foot jerks in bed, seemingly simulating the experienced fall in her sleeping state. These muscle contractions are

a. sleep spindles.
b. K complexes.
c. alpha wave activity.
d. spastic jerks.
e. hypnic jerks.

e. hypnic jerks.

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The transition between wakefulness and sleep is marked by the appearance of ________ waves in the sleep record.

a. alpha
b. delta
c. gamma
d. theta
e. beta

d. theta

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The theta brain wave pattern is characterized by changes in frequency of electrical activity of

a. 1-3 Hz.
b. 12-14 Hz.
c. 13-30 Hz.
d. less than 3.5 Hz.
e. 3.5-7.5 Hz.

e. 3.5-7.5 Hz.

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You are watching the sleep record of a person whose record contains 85% delta wave activity. Your best guess is that this person is

a. in stage 3 of slow-wave sleep.
b. dreaming.
c. in stage 1 of slow-wave sleep.
d. making the transition from wakefulness to sleep.
e. awake.

a. in stage 3 of slow-wave sleep.

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Deep sleep is characterized by ____________ waves.

a. alpha
b. beta
c. delta
d. theta
e. gamma

c. delta

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As Darius is sleeping, his dog begins to bark. As a result, his brain emits several sudden sharp waveforms known as _____________.

a. hypnic jerks
b. sleep spindles
c. K complexes
d. alpha wave activity
e. delta wave activity

c. K complexes

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Which of the following characterizes REM sleep?

a. When woken up in this stage, people are often groggy and confused.
b. When in this stage people are often able to toss and turn on the bed, moving freely.
c. The person experiences dreams.
d. The person experiences vague sensations or feelings.
e. The person’s eyes are still.

c. The person experiences dreams.

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Another name for sleep stage 3 is ________ sleep.

a. paradoxical
b. high-frequency
c. slow-wave
d. REM
e. rhythmic

c. slow-wave

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Sleep stages 1-3 are termed ________, whereas stages3 is referred to as ________.

a. REM sleep; non-REM sleep
b. non-REM sleep; slow-wave sleep
c. slow-wave sleep; non-REM sleep
d. paradoxical sleep; REM sleep
e. arhythmic sleep; paradoxical sleep

b. non-REM sleep; slow-wave sleep

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Which of the following is a key characteristic of REM sleep?

a. alternating delta and beta EEG activities
b. the presence of delta wave EEG activity
c. rapid eye movements
d. alpha wave brain activity
e. tossing and turning in bed

c. rapid eye movements

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Which of the following is a reason as to why sleep stage 3 is considered to be the deepest sleep stage?

a. A person in this stage is easily roused by meaningful stimuli.
b. A person who awakes from stage 3 is groggy and confused.
c. A person who awakes from this stage is alert and attentive.
d. Only very loud stimuli will awaken a person from stage 3 sleep.
e. The majority of sleep is spent in stage 3 slow-wave sleep.

b. A person who awakes from stage 3 is groggy and confused.

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Which of the following is a key characteristic of non-REM sleep?

a. dreaming in color
b. muscle paralysis
c. genital changes associated with arousal
d. various forms of slow-wave brain activity
e. rapid eye movements

d. various forms of slow-wave brain activity

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A single cycle of non-REM and REM sleep lasts about

a. 10 minutes.
b. 30-40 minutes.
c. 90 minutes.
d. 360 minutes.
e. 8 hours.

c. 90 minutes.

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Which of the following is true of human sleep cycles?

a. Sleep cycles are random across the night.
b. Subjects first enter REM sleep and then transition to non-REM sleep.
c. As the night goes on, the relative length of REM sleep increases in each successive cycle.
d. Stage 3 of slow-wave sleep mostly occurs in the early morning hours.
e. Each non-REM/REM cycle lasts about 45 minutes.

c. As the night goes on, the relative length of REM sleep increases in each successive cycle.

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The predictable changes in blood flow to the male genitals that occur during ________ can be a useful clinical indicator of ________.

a. non-REM sleep; narcolepsy
b. the day hours; hypertension
c. REM sleep; impotence
d. slow-wave sleep; cardiac failure
e. the day hours; cocaine abuse

c. REM sleep; impotence

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Humans show which pattern of blood flow and mental activity during REM sleep?

a. Cortical blood flow is reduced during REM sleep as blood is shunted to the genitals.
b. Cerebral blood flow is low in the primary visual cortex.
c. Cerebral blood flow is very low during color dreaming.
d. Cerebral blood flow is high in the visual association cortex and low in the frontal cortex.
e. Cerebral blood flow is low in the primary auditory cortex.

d. Cerebral blood flow is high in the visual association cortex and low in the frontal cortex.

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Which of the following terms belong together?

a. awake state; EEG synchrony
b. REM sleep; slow-wave EEG pattern
c. slow-wave sleep; marked genital arousal
d. REM sleep; lack of genital activity
e. slow-wave sleep; moderate muscle tonus

e. slow-wave sleep; moderate muscle tonus

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____________ refers to an awareness that the individual is dreaming and not asleep. a. REM sleep awareness b. Aware dreaming c. Lucid dreaming d. Coherent dreaming e. Non-REM sleep awareness

c. Lucid dreaming

Research with transcranial direct current stimulation suggests that the _______________ is involved in lucid dreaming. a. prefrontal cortex b. occipital cortex c. hippocampus d. medulla oblongata e. anterior cingulate cortex

a. prefrontal cortex

During slow-wave sleep, activation of the visual and auditory cortexes is ______________, whereas activation of the ________ and cerebellum is decreased. a. increased; thalamus b. decreased; thalamus c. increased; prefrontal cortex d. decreased; prefrontal cortex e. increased; anterior cingulate cortex

a. increased; thalamus

During REM sleep, there is a high level of activity within the a. visual association cortex. b. prefrontal cortex. c. hippocampus. d. amygdala. e. temporal cortex.

a. visual association cortex.

The sleep pattern of the dolphin is unique in that a. slow-wave sleep is absent from its sleep pattern. b. sleep and waking occur independently in the two hemispheres. c. no eye movements occur in the dolphin during sleep. d. blindness has eliminated the need of the dolphin for sleep. e. this animal does not exhibit slow-wave sleep.

b. sleep and waking occur independently in the two hemispheres.

Sleep deprivation in humans results in a. psychosis. b. impaired physical exercise. c. perceptual distortions. d. secretion of stress hormones. e. depression.

c. perceptual distortions.

Which animal below demonstrates REM sleep? a. squirrels b. snakes c. frogs d. insects e. fish

a. squirrels

The primary function of slow-wave sleep is to a. clear brain waste products produced by REM sleep. b. promote dreaming. c. rest the brain. d. promote brain development. e. facilitate learning.

c. rest the brain.

If you stay awake for 3 days and then fall asleep, you will likely not sleep for the 24 hours of sleep that you missed. Instead, you might sleep 12 hours on the first night. Of the different stages of sleep, you are most likely to make up hours from stage _________. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. REM e. 1 and 3

c. 3

Prolonged sleep deprivation in humans results in a. impaired ability to perform physical labor. b. psychosis. c. some perceptual distortions. d. subsequent rebound recovery of lost slow-wave sleep. e. a mild form of bipolar disorder.

c. some perceptual distortions.

Participants would show greater slow-wave brain activity during sleep after a. studying for finals. b. strenuous physical exercise. c. watching a Netflix marathon. d. resting in bed all day. e. reading a young adult novel.

a. studying for finals.

Persons suffering from fatal familial insomnia resemble sleep-deprived rats in terms of a. weight gain. b. weight loss. c. relaxation. d. mood disorder. e. night-time overeating.

b. weight loss.

Working on a task that demands high levels of mental activity during the day will a. mimic the effects of REM deprivation. b. increase glucose metabolism in the frontal lobes. c. reduce stage 4 sleep. d. impair subsequent learning of complex materials. e. facilitate protein synthesis.

b. increase glucose metabolism in the frontal lobes.

Enforced bed rest for 6 weeks resulted in ________ in healthy subjects. a. decreased slow-wave sleep b. decreased REM sleep c. no change in sleep patterns d. a significant reduction in total sleep time e. signs of REM-sleep behavior disorder

c. no change in sleep patterns

A full day of tourist activities at an amusement park would be expected to a. produce insomnia. b. reduce the amplitude of delta activity in the frontal lobes. c. increase the amount of time spent that night in slow-wave sleep. d. increase the need for REM sleep. e. increase the amount of time spent dreaming.

c. increase the amount of time spent that night in slow-wave sleep.

Deprivation of REM sleep on one night results in an elevated amount of REM sleep on the following night. This rebound phenomenon suggests that a. emotional well-being requires slow-wave sleep. b. REM sleep functions to rest the brain. c. there is a physiological need for stage 1 slow-wave sleep. d. there is a physiological need for a certain amount of REM sleep. e. the brain does not regulate REM sleep.

d. there is a physiological need for a certain amount of REM sleep.

The notion that REM sleep functions to promote brain development is supported by the finding that a. newborn infants spend 70% of their sleep time in slow-wave sleep. b. active phases of brain development are associated with low levels of REM sleep. c. REM sleep increases in college students during exam time. d. the elderly spend 85% of their sleep time in REM. e. infants with well-developed brains spend proportionally less time in REM sleep than infants with poorly developed brains.

e. infants with well-developed brains spend proportionally less time in REM sleep than infants with poorly developed brains.

Recent research suggests that ________ sleep is important for ________ memory. a. slow-wave; nondeclarative b. REM; sensory c. REM; declarative d. slow-wave; sensory e. REM; nondeclarative

e. REM; nondeclarative

An example of nondeclarative memory would be a. recalling where you parked your car. b. learning to drive a car. c. memories you can speak about. d. memories of past events. e. memories of relationships between different stimuli.

b. learning to drive a car.

The notion that sleep or wakefulness is produced by a substance that circulates within the blood is a. proven by studies of the dolphin sleep cycle. b. unlikely given that the cerebral hemispheres of a dolphin sleep at different times. c. unlikely because REM and slow-wave sleep appear to involve independent mechanisms. d. proven by the observation that naps reduce sleep time the following night. e. unlikely given that blood chemistry does not change within the brain.

b. unlikely given that the cerebral hemispheres of a dolphin sleep at different times.

The metabolism of glycogen within astrocytes produces ________, which in turn promotes ________. a. adenosine; wakefulness b. GABA; REM sleep c. adenosine; slow-wave sleep d. a benzodiazepine ligand; slow-wave sleep e. GABA; slow-wave sleep

c. adenosine; slow-wave sleep

Adenosine receptors are blocked by ________, which in turn promotes ________. a. ethanol; euphoria b. caffeine; wakefulness c. nicotine; sleepiness d. caffeine; sleepiness e. glutamate; learning and memory

b. caffeine; wakefulness

Electrical stimulation of brain neurons that release ________ produces cortical arousal. a. glycine b. GABA c. serotonin d. acetylcholine e. adenosine

d. acetylcholine

Microdialysis studies indicate that the synaptic level of acetylcholine within the ________ is elevated during waking as well as during REM sleep. a. hypothalamus b. raphe nuclei c. cerebral cortex d. amygdala e. ventral pons

c. cerebral cortex

The increased arousal and sleeplessness produced by amphetamine is related to the release of a. norepinephrine. b. serotonin. c. acetylcholine. d. dopamine. e. GABA.

a. norepinephrine.

A key source of noradrenergic neurons in the brain is the a. nucleus accumbens. b. hippocampus. c. raphe nuclei. d. striatum. e. locus coeruleus.

e. locus coeruleus.

If acetylcholine activity is high, a. the animal is likely feeling drowsy or beginning to sleep. b. there is decreased EEG-measured cortical arousal. c. the brain waves are likely highly synchronized. d. the brain waves are likely desynchronized. e. nothing happens.

d. the brain waves are likely desynchronized.

The firing rates of noradrenergic cells within the locus coeruleus a. are suppressed by sleeping pills. b. decrease during sleep and increase at awakening. c. are unrelated to behavioral arousal. d. in turn alter EEG cortical arousal. e. are highest during REM sleep.

b. decrease during sleep and increase at awakening.

Most of the serotonin neurons in the brain are located within the a. nucleus accumbens. b. reticular formation. c. raphe nuclei. d. striatum. e. locus coeruleus.

c. raphe nuclei.

Which of the following treatments in rats would be expected to increase locomotion and enhance the amount of cortical arousal evident in an EEG record? a. electrical stimulation of the frontal cortex b. damage to the locus coeruleus c. damage to the raphe nuclei d. electrical stimulation of the raphe nuclei e. injection of high levels of GABA into the raphe nuclei

d. electrical stimulation of the raphe nuclei

The sleep disorder known as ________ can be produced by degeneration of hypocretin neurons in the brain. a. narcolepsy b. iatrogenic insomnia c. sleep apnea d. night terrors e. insomnia

a. narcolepsy

Hypocretin neurons are more active during ________ but are inactive during ________. a. eating; drinking b. normal waking; sleep c. sexual behavior; feeding d. reinforcement; punishment e. slow-wave sleep; REM sleep

b. normal waking; sleep

Damage to the ventrolateral preoptic area would be expected to a. impair the control of temperature regulation. b. reproduce the symptoms of narcolepsy. c. produce insomnia. d. produce persistent REM sleep. e. alter male reproductive behavior.

c. produce insomnia.

Which of the following are true of neurons within the ventrolateral preoptic area (vlPOA)? a. Damage to vlPOA neurons produces sleepiness. b. Excitotoxic lesions of the vlPOA increase sleep in cats. c. vlPOA neurons have a low firing rate during sleep. d. Electrical stimulation of vlPOA neurons produces signs of drowsiness. e. vlPOA neurons secrete glutamate to excite regions that control arousal.

d. Electrical stimulation of vlPOA neurons produces signs of drowsiness.

Which of the following is true of neurons within the ventrolateral preoptic area (vlPOA)? a. vlPOA neurons receive inhibitory input from noradrenergic, serotonergic, and histaminergic neurons. b. Excitotoxic lesions of the vlPOA increase sleep in cats. c. vlPOA neurons have a low firing rate during sleep. d. Electrical stimulation of vlPOA neurons produces insomnia. e. vlPOA neurons secrete glutamate to excite regions that control arousal.

a. vlPOA neurons receive inhibitory input from noradrenergic, serotonergic, and histaminergic neurons.

The capacity of circuits involving the vlPOA and the locus coeruleus, raphe nuclei, and dorsal pons to show mutual inhibition may result in a. the transitions between eating and drinking in the rat. b. alternating motor search behaviors in a maze. c. shifts of attention. d. stepping behavior. e. the alternation between sleep and waking.

e. the alternation between sleep and waking.

In the flip-flop circuit that controls sleep and arousal, the ___________ neurons are the stabilizing force, pushing the circuit toward arousal. a. orexinergic b. serotonergic c. noradrenergic d. cholinergic e. dopaminergic

a. orexinergic

________ would be expected to promote wakefulness. a. An adenosine agonist b. A histamine antagonist c. Activation of hypocretin neurons d. Stimulation of the ventrolateral preoptic area e. Inactivation of histamine neurons

c. Activation of hypocretin neurons

The “on” portion of the flip-flop mechanism for REM sleep is located within the a. dorsal pons. b. occipital cortex. c. suprachiasmatic nucleus. d. globus pallidus. e. preoptic area.

a. dorsal pons.

REM-ON neurons are located within the ________, whereas REM-OFF neurons are located within the ________. a. ventrolateral pons; dorsal PAG b. dorsal PAG; ventrolateral preoptic area c. ventrolateral preoptic area; sublateral dorsal nucleus d. anterior thalamus; posterior hypothalamus e. sublateral dorsal nucleus; ventrolateral PAG

e. sublateral dorsal nucleus; ventrolateral PAG

________ during REM sleep may be controlled by projections from the dorsal pons to the ________. a. Muscle paralysis; thalamic relay nuclei b. Eye movements; cingulate cortex c. Cortical arousal; lateral geniculate d. Muscle paralysis; basal forebrain e. Eye movements; tectum

e. Eye movements; tectum

About ________ percent of the population experiences insomnia as a persistent problem, while ________ percent experiences this on occasion. a. 1; 3 b. 15; 52 c. 27; 45 d. 7; 19 e. 9; 25

e. 9; 25

Insomnia is defined a. as the inability to fall asleep within 5 minutes of going to bed. b. as awakening four or more times during the night. c. as a problem in rapidly reaching REM sleep. d. in relation to a person’s particular sleep needs. e. as a relative lack of slow-wave sleep compared to REM sleep.

d. in relation to a person’s particular sleep needs.

The difference between primary and secondary insomnia is a. the length of time the insomnia has lasted. b. the cause of the difficulty of falling asleep. c. the age of onset. d. the likelihood of being affected at a given time of year (seasonal). e. the time of the night that the sleeplessness occurs.

b. the cause of the difficulty of falling asleep.

__________ is one of the few medical problems that physicians treat without having physical evidence for its existence. a. Narcolepsy b. Insomnia c. Bipolar disorder d. Diabetes e. Hypertension

b. Insomnia

John has periods during the night where he stops breathing, causing carbon dioxide levels in his blood to rise. Once the levels get too high, he wakes up, gasping for breath. John suffers from a. insomnia. b. sleep apnea. c. narcolepsy. d. night terrors. e. sleeplessness.

b. sleep apnea.

Chronic sleep deprivation can lead to a. blocked airways. b. obesity and diabetes. c. psychosis. d. mood disorder. e. bipolar disorder.

b. obesity and diabetes.

Doris works a stressful job, has difficulty falling asleep, and she often wakes up early. After several weeks, she agrees to participate in a sleep study to determine whether she has insomnia. It is likely that the results of her sleep study show Doris a. spends less time sleeping as people who do not complain of insomnia. b. is lacking in the substances that promote and maintain sleep. c. spends as much time sleeping as people who do not complain of insomnia. d. has an excess of arousal-producing neurochemicals. e. does not have insomnia.

c. spends as much time sleeping as people who do not complain of insomnia.

A common treatment for sleep apnea is a. surgical modification of the throat airways. b. the administration of sleeping medication. c. maintaining the person in bright light for 20 hours per day. d. the administration of L-DOPA. e. electroconvulsive shock therapy.

a. surgical modification of the throat airways.

A buildup of carbon dioxide in the blood is a characteristic of the sleep disorder known as a. iatrogenic. b. sleep apnea. c. narcolepsy. d. situational insomnia. e. cataplexy.

b. sleep apnea.

The key feature of narcolepsy is a. nightmares while awake. b. sleep attacks. c. nocturnal enuresis. d. hypnagogic hallucinations. e. feeling refreshed after an episode of sleep attack.

b. sleep attacks

A key symptom of human narcolepsy relates to a. impulsive drug-taking. b. abnormal slow-wave sleep. c. recurring nightmares. d. sleeping during the day. e. dreaming while awake.

d. sleeping during the day.

A person who exhibits sudden paralysis but remains conscious may be suffering from a. REM without atonia. b. somnambulism. c. a sleep attack. d. situational insomnia. e. an episode of cataplexy.

e. an episode of cataplexy.

____________, a symptom of narcolepsy, is when a fully conscious person appears to be paralyzed. a. Sleep apnea b. Sleep attack c. Insomnia d. Cataplexy e. Anoxia

d. Cataplexy

________ refers to the vivid dreams that may occur during sleep paralysis. a. Apnea b. Hypnagogic hallucination c. Cataplexy d. Night terror e. Somnambulism

b. Hypnagogic hallucination

The notion that narcolepsy involves faulty brain regulation of sleep is supported by the observation that a. mania commonly occurs with narcolepsy. b. people with narcolepsy show no problems in staying asleep. c. people with narcolepsy generally enter REM sleep directly from the waking state. d. slow-wave sleep intrudes into the awake state in people with narcolepsy. e. people with narcolepsy show problems in eye-tracking similar to those noted in alcoholism.

c. people with narcolepsy generally enter REM sleep directly from the waking state.

The symptom known as ________ is an abnormality of REM sleep. a. insomnia b. theta reversal c. cataplexy d. night terror e. enuresis

c. cataplexy

Human narcolepsy a. can be treated using sleep-inducing drugs. b. involves an absence of orexin in most people with narcolepsy. c. involves the intrusion of slow-wave sleep components into the awake state. d. is a psychological disorder. e. is treated using lithium salts.

b. involves an absence of orexin in most people with narcolepsy.

A genetic mutation of the hypocretin gene in mice results in a. intrusion of slow-wave sleep during the awake period. b. symptoms of narcolepsy. c. undereating and weight loss. d. prolonged sleeping. e. overeating.

b. symptoms of narcolepsy.

The occurrence of sleep attacks in narcolepsy can be alleviated by drugs that a. impair the release of hypocretins in the brain. b. facilitate brain serotonin synaptic activity. c. act as catecholamine agonists. d. facilitate both serotonin and catecholamine brain activity. e. block hypocretin 2 receptors in the hypothalamus.

c. act as catecholamine agonists.

Symptoms of narcolepsy involving REM sleep (such as cataplexy) are effectively treated by drugs that a. block serotonin receptors. b. impair the release of hypocretins in brain. c. act as catecholamine agonists. d. facilitate both serotonin and catecholamine activity. e. block hypocretin 2 receptors.

d. facilitate both serotonin and catecholamine activity.

The disorder known as ________ shares common attributes (symptoms as well as treatments) with those of narcolepsy. a. anxiety disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. mania d. panic attack e. depression

e. depression

REM sleep behavior disorder is the opposite of narcolepsy in that a. people have “awake attacks” rather that sleep attacks. b. REM sleep behavior disorder is not linked to degenerative disorders. c. REM sleep behavior disorder involves bouts of insomnia. d. instead of muscle paralysis during waking hours, those with REM sleep behavior disorder lack muscle paralysis during sleep. e. REM sleep behavior disorder is caused by too much hypocretin.

d. instead of muscle paralysis during waking hours, those with REM sleep behavior disorder lack muscle paralysis during sleep.

A key symptom of REM sleep behavior disorder is a. attacks of catalepsy. b. a depressed mood upon awakening. c. the occurrence of motor movements during slow-wave sleep. d. a lack of paralysis during REM sleep. e. the loss of dreams during REM sleep.

d. a lack of paralysis during REM sleep.

The symptoms of REM sleep behavior disorder are opposite to those noted in a. cataplexy. b. situational insomnia. c. somnambulism. d. nocturnal enuresis. e. manic-depression.

a. cataplexy.

An effective treatment for REM sleep behavior disorder is the administration of a. antidepressant drugs. b. the drug clonazepam. c. drugs that block serotonin receptors. d. drugs that facilitate both serotonin and catecholamine activity. e. drugs that block hypocretin 2 receptors.

b. the drug clonazepam.

Somnambulism is synonymous with a. sleep attack. b. dreaming while awake. c. sleepwalking. d. cataplexy. e. night terrors.

c. sleepwalking.

Which of the following is seen more often in adults than children? a. insomnia b. sleepwalking c. bedwetting d. night terrors e. nightmares

a. insomnia

A person who experiences the sleep disorder symptom known as pavor nocturnus would be said to be a. releasing urine during sleep. b. dreaming while awake. c. sleepwalking. d. having a sleep attack. e. experiencing night terrors.

e. experiencing night terrors.

Weight gain is a common outcome for a person suffering from a. anorexia nervosa. b. somnabulimia. c. sleep-related eating disorder. d. hyperbulimia. e. REM sleep behavior disorder.

c. sleep-related eating disorder.

Sleep-related eating disorder can be triggered by a. stress. b. alcohol abuse. c. the sleeping pill zolpidem. d. weight loss. e. eating.

c. the sleeping pill zolpidem.

Circadian rhythms are a. endogenous cycles of activity over the course of a day. b. not found in plants. c. learned patterns of daily activity. d. annual changes in behavior (such as migration). e. monthly cycles of reproductive activity.

a. endogenous cycles of activity over the course of a day.

A hamster, when put in endless darkness, will display activity that fits a 23-hour day. This rhythm that the hamster is displaying is a(n) a. endogenous rhythm. b. pacemaker. c. entrained rhythm. d. internal rhythm. e. external rhythm.

a. endogenous rhythm.

Damage to the rat’s ________ would be expected to disrupt circadian rhythms related to a. vlPOA b. nucleus accumbens c. thalamus d. SCN e. hippocampus

d. SCN

Which of the following is true of melanopsin? a. Melanopsin is found within rods but not cones. b. Melanopsin is found within cones but not rods. c. Melanopsin activity is suppressed by light. d. Melanopsin is found within ganglion cells. e. Melanopsin in rods is a cue that resets SCN clock cells

d. Melanopsin is found within ganglion cells.

Hamster A has a 24-hour rhythm. Hamster A has its SCN removed and replaced with the SCN of Hamster B, which has an endogenous rhythm of 20 hours. What is the resultant rhythm of Hamster A? a. 20 hours b. 22 hours c. 24 hours d. 26 hours e. 27 hours

a. 20 hours

The “ticking” of a clock cell within the SCN appears to involve a. feedback loops of intracellular protein production. b. the rhythmic opening of sodium channels in the membrane. c. interactions between two adjacent clock cells. d. the rhythmic opening of calcium channels in the membrane. e. the buildup of sodium in the clock cell over time.

a. feedback loops of intracellular protein production.

Seasonal rhythms are under the control of ________ secreted by cells within the ________. a. melatonin; pineal gland b. dopamine; hypothalamus c. melanopsin; preoptic hypothalamus d. oxytocin; pituitary e. melatonin; retina

a. melatonin; pineal gland

For animals that are seasonal breeders, they will experience anti-gonadal function during ____________ due to ____________ melatonin levels. a. spring; increased b. winter; increased c. winter; decreased d. summer; increased e. summer; decreased

b. winter; increased

A gorilla beats on its chest in a dominance display when threatened. This act is the __________ component of emotion. a. behavioral b. autonomic c. somatic d. hormonal e. emotional

a. behavioral

The text author asserts that ________ have key consequences for survival and reproduction. a. emotional behaviors b. emotional feelings c. internal stirred-up states d. moods e. brief perturbations of affect

a. emotional behaviors

The major components of an emotional response include a. feelings and behavior. b. behavior and moods. c. hormonal secretions and cognition. d. behavior, autonomic activity, and hormonal secretions. e. autonomic activity, moods, and behaviors.

d. behavior, autonomic activity, and hormonal secretions

When it is your turn to read your poem aloud in the class, your heart starts to thump in your chest and your palms get sweaty. This act is the ____________ component of emotion. a. behavioral b. autonomic c. somatic d. hormonal e. emotional

b. autonomic

Which of the following is a key function of the hormonal secretions that accompany an emotion? a. formation of glucose within the muscles b. decreased blood flow to the muscles c. formation of glycogen within the muscles d. increased blood flow to the digestive organs e. stimulation of defecation

a. formation of glucose within the muscles

Most of the research on emotions has focused on a. those associated with reproductive behaviors. b. those associated with success or anger. c. fear and euphoria. d. anger and fear. e. those experienced during a good meal.

d. anger and fear.

The emotional components that comprise fear are integrated by neurons within the a. amygdala. b. medial hypothalamus. c. orbitofrontal cortex. d. thalamus. e. reticular activating system.

a. amygdala.

In the amygdala, the basal nucleus receives information from the a. lateral nucleus. b. central nucleus. c. lateral and central nuclei. d. amygdaloid complex. e. thalamus.

a. lateral nucleus.

Neurons within the amygdala are activated by a. ascending tactile signals. b. texture cues within the environment. c. detection of emotionally relevant stimuli. d. motor signals arising from the caudate nucleus. e. all classes of sensory signals.

c. detection of emotionally relevant stimuli.

The amygdala is located in the ____________ lobe(s). a. occipital b. parietal c. temporal d. frontal e. prefrontal

c. temporal

Activation of the ________ nucleus of the amygdala elicits an emotional response. a. medial b. lateral c. cortical d. central e. postero-lateral

d. central

The ________ amygdaloid nucleus is the single most important part of the brain for the expression of emotional responses evolved by aversive stimuli. a. cortical b. lateral c. medial d. central e. postero-lateral

d. central

If the central nucleus of the amygdala were stimulated, a monkey will a. show fear towards a snake. b. show fear, regardless of the target. c. not respond fearfully to a snake. d. not show fear, regardless of the target. e. show fear to another monkey.

b. show fear, regardless of the target.

Based on the evidence cited in your text, which brain region would be considered as a key target for pharmacological modification to provide relief for a person suffering from overly intense emotional reactions? a. the central nucleus of the amygdala b. the ventromedial hypothalamus c. the medial nucleus of the thalamus d. the corpus callosum e. the entire basal forebrain

a. the central nucleus of the amygdala

Infusion of excitatory amino acid glutamate into the central nucleus of the amygdala of a rat would be expected to elicit a. behavioral signs of fear. b. agitation but not fear. c. timidness when handled by humans. d. lower levels of stress hormones. e. reduced secretion of gastric acid.

a. behavioral signs of fear.

In a laboratory setting, a rat has experienced shock each time it has been placed inside Chamber A. Over time, the rat shows a fear response as soon as it is placed in the chamber. After the destruction of the ____________ of the amygdala, the animal no longer shows a fear response when placed in the chamber. a. central nucleus b. lateral nucleus c. basal nucleus d. dorsal nucleus e. medial nucleus

a. central nucleus

A rat experiences a shock paired with the sound of a bell. The animal now experiences fear, demonstrated by freezing behavior, when it hears a bell. The bell is the a. unconditioned stimulus. b. conditioned stimulus. c. unconditioned response. d. conditioned response. e. neutral stimulus.

b. conditioned stimulus.

Infusion of ________ into the central nucleus of the amygdala would be expected to promote fear and agitation. a. Prozac b. glutamate c. an opiate receptor antagonist d. a cholinergic receptor agonist e. a benzodiazepine receptor agonist

b. glutamate

An intact ________ is required in order for a conditioned emotional response to alter blood pressure. a. orbitofrontal cortex b. lateral hippocampus c. lateral hypothalamus d. medial nucleus of the amygdala e. periaqueductal gray matter

c. lateral hypothalamus

In experiments on classically conditioned emotional responses in rats, the conditioned stimulus is a. a loud tone. b. foot shock. c. a food pellet. d. a bright light. e. a heat stimulus.

a. a loud tone.

Rats previously exposed to a tone followed by a brief intense electrical shock will show ________ when subsequently exposed to the tone (without shock). a. reduced fear b. an unconditional emotional response c. reduced plasma levels of stress hormones d. behavioral arrest (freezing) e. grooming behavior

d. behavioral arrest (freezing)

A species-typical defensive response for a rat would include a. freezing of motor movements. b. sniffing the fear stimulus. c. approach to the fear stimulus. d. eating. e. grooming.

a. freezing of motor movements.

The expression of emotional responses is inhibited by inputs from the a. lateral amygdala. b. central nucleus of the amygdala. c. lateral hypothalamus. d. ventromedial prefrontal cortex. e. dorsolateral accumbens.

d. ventromedial prefrontal cortex.

In humans, bilateral lesioning of the amygdala results in a. increased memory of emotional aspects of a narrated story. b. increased experiences of fear. c. increased experiences of aggression. d. unchanged fear but increased aggression. e. decreased memory of emotional aspects of a narrated story.

e. decreased memory of emotional aspects of a narrated story.

Humans report fear upon electrical stimulation of the a. hypothalamus. b. ventral tegmental area. c. periaqueductal gray matter. d. amygdala. e. reticular activating system.

d. amygdala.

Some careers involve daily exposure to dangerous situations, which can lead to emotional burnout. A person with damage to the amygdala would have a selective advantage for a career as a a. copy editor for an Iowa newspaper. b. high-wire artist working on the 4th of July in a rainstorm. c. teacher. d. accountant for Exxon. e. movie critic in Hollywood.

b. high-wire artist working on the 4th of July in a rainstorm.

Alzheimer’s disease patients who show degeneration of the ________ are more likely to forget emotionally traumatic events such as the Kobe earthquake in 1995. a. basal ganglia b. anterior forebrain c. cingulum bundle d. amygdala e. substantia nigra

d. amygdala

The pathway that leads to defensive behavior is the a. basal nucleus to dorsal PAG. b. central nucleus to ventral PAG. c. lateral hypothalamus to ventral PAG. d. basal nucleus to ventral PAG. e. central nucleus to dorsal PAG.

a. basal nucleus to dorsal PAG.

The _______________ is involved in aggressive attack, predation, and regulation of pain. a. periaqueductal gray b. parietal lobe c. superior colliculus d. inferior colliculus e. tectum

a. periaqueductal gray

A serotonin antagonist would a. inhibit aggression. b. facilitate aggressive attack. c. promote serotonin synthesis. d. decrease risk-taking behavior. e. decrease depression.

b. facilitate aggressive attack.

A serotonin agonist would a. promote aggression. b. reduce aggressive attack. c. reduce serotonin synthesis. d. increase risk-taking behavior. e. increase depression.

b. reduce aggressive attack.

Elevated brain levels of the transmitter ________ function to inhibit aggression. a. glutamate b. GABA c. dopamine d. serotonin e. acetylcholine

d. serotonin

Electrical stimulation of the ventral periaqueductal gray matter in the cat can produce a. submissive behavior. b. defensive behavior. c. predatory behavior. d. prey behavior. e. threat behaviors.

c. predatory behavior

Electrical stimulation of the dorsal periaqueductal gray matter in the cat produces a. submissive behavior. b. defensive rage behavior. c. predatory behavior. d. prey behavior. e. threat behaviors.

b. defensive rage behavior.

Imagine that all members of your class have been tested to determine the level of the serotonin metabolite 5-HIAA in their cerebrospinal fluid. Which of the following would you predict using this information? a. Male classmates with low 5-HIAA levels are unlikely to be alive ten years from now. b. Low 5-HIAA levels will be associated with good exam performance. c. High 5-HIAA levels will be associated with poor sleep patterns in males. d. Male classmates with high 5-HIAA levels will not be alive ten years from now. e. Those with low 5-HIAA levels will be the thinnest persons in the class.

a. Male classmates with low 5-HIAA levels are unlikely to be alive ten years from now.

Drugs that act as __________ for ____________ might help to reduce aggressive behavior. a. agonists; serotonin b. antagonists; serotonin c. agonists; dopamine d. antagonists; dopamine e. agonists; epinephrine

a. agonists; serotonin

A human male who has a long record of assault, arson, and murder would be expected to show ________ levels of ________ in his cerebrospinal fluid. a. elevated; GABA b. reduced; GABA c. elevated; 5-HIAA d. reduced; 5-HIAA e. elevated; opiates

d. reduced; 5-HIAA

Aggressive behavior is most strongly related to a. feeding. b. reproduction. c. termination of pain. d. pleasure. e. anxiety.

b. reproduction.

Aggressiveness is reduced in adult rodents by castration, whereas injections of testosterone reinstate adult male rodent aggression. These effects are an example of a(n) ________ hormone effect. a. activational b. defeminization c. organizational d. subcortical e. biphasic

a. activational

The capacity of early testosterone exposure to sensitize brain circuits for aggression is an example of a(n) ________ hormone effect. a. activational b. feminization c. organizational d. subcortical e. biphasic

c. organizational

Intermale aggression will be reinstated in castrated male rats after implants of testosterone into the a. ventromedial hypothalamus. b. substantia nigra. c. medial preoptic area. d. lateral geniculate nucleus. e. spinal cord.

c. medial preoptic area.

A male mouse housed alone in a home cage will readily attack a male mouse placed into the home cage, but will not attack a female mouse. Which of the following is a key factor as to whether the resident male mouse decides to attack or not attack the strange male mouse? a. Male mice are smaller than females (thus size is the issue). b. The mouse uses ultrasounds to distinguish male from female. c. Female mice show a hop-dart movement that male mice do not. d. The mouse must be able to detect male pheromones. e. The coat color of a female mouse is lighter than that of a male mouse.

d. The mouse must be able to detect male pheromones.

Intermale aggression was _____________ in mice by cutting the ________________. a. increased; vomeronasal nerve b. decreased; trigeminal nerve c. abolished; vomeronasal nerve d. increased; trigeminal nerve e. increased; vagus nerve

c. abolished; vomeronasal nerve

Prenatal androgenization increases aggressive behavior in a. monkeys. b. all primates. c. rats. d. cats. e. all species studied to date.

e. all species studied to date.

A female mouse given daily injections of ________ for two weeks is more likely than a placebo-treated female to fight with a strange female mouse. a. estradiol b. progesterone c. prolactin d. testosterone e. leptin

d. testosterone

A female mouse given daily injections of ________ for two weeks is not more likely than a placebo-treated female to fight with a strange female mouse. a. estradiol b. progesterone c. prolactin d. testosterone e. leptin

a. estradiol

A ___________ female is more likely to exhibit interfemale aggression. a. 0M b. 1M c. 2M d. 3M e. 4M

c. 2M

Female rhesus monkeys are more likely to engage in fights with male monkeys a. just prior to menstruation. b. just after menstruation. c. only when threatened by the arrival of a new female in the social group. d. near the time of ovulation. e. during puberty.

d. near the time of ovulation.

Female rhesus monkeys are more likely to engage in fights with other females a. just prior to menstruation. b. just after menstruation. c. only when threatened by the arrival of a new female in the social group. d. near the time of ovulation. e. during menopause.

a. just prior to menstruation.

Which of the following is true of the impact of testosterone on aggressive behavior in males? a. Prenatal androgenization decreases aggressiveness in primates. b. Androgens have organizational effects after puberty. c. Castration of sex-offenders may reduce aggressive sexual attacks. d. Testosterone exerts effects on muscles before puberty. e. Physical castration does not alter aggression.

c. Castration of sex-offenders may reduce aggressive sexual attacks.

Prenatal exposure to androgens a. does not alter aggression but does modify sexual orientation. b. has effects that are offset by socialization. c. increases aggressive behavior in all studied species. d. results in more intense attraction to toys and games preferred by girls. e. increases aggression behavior in most nonhuman species.

c. increases aggressive behavior in all studied species.

Studies of hormone status and antisocial behavior in U.S. military veterans suggest that higher levels of antisocial activity are noted in a. low socioeconomic status men with high testosterone levels. b. women with low estrogen levels. c. men with high socioeconomic status but low testosterone levels. d. women with high estrogen levels. e. persons with the longest service records.

a. low socioeconomic status men with high testosterone levels.

An example of an environmental effect on testosterone secretion would be when a. castration reduces sexual aggression. b. female prisoners with low testosterone levels are more aggressive. c. increasing blood levels of testosterone produce more aggression. d. increasing blood levels of testosterone suppress aggression. e. losing a tennis match results in lowered blood levels of testosterone.

e. losing a tennis match results in lowered blood levels of testosterone.

Studies using primates suggest that alcohol promotes aggression but only a. in submissive male monkeys. b. in dominant male monkeys during the mating season when testosterone levels are high. c. in female monkeys at the time of ovulation. d. in female monkeys just prior to menstruation. e. when testosterone levels were at their lowest level.

b. in dominant male monkeys during the mating season when testosterone levels are high.

The ________ cortical region plays a key role in the analysis of social situations. a. occipital b. parietal c. ventromedial prefrontal d. temporal e. cingulate

c. ventromedial prefrontal

In a fear inducing situation, individuals who show courage are likely experiencing activation of the a. subgenual anterior cingulate cortex. b. orbitofrontal cortex. c. frontal cortex. d. posterior cingulate cortex. e. anterior cingulate cortex.

a. subgenual anterior cingulate cortex.

Phineas Gage, who was injured when a steel rod was accidentally driven through his skull, exhibited capricious, emotional behavior (in part) as a result of widespread damage to his a. occipital cortex. b. ventromedial prefrontal cortex. c. cingulate cortex. d. primary motor cortex. e. primary sensory cortex.

b. ventromedial prefrontal cortex.

Michael, a two-year-old, yells all day. He yells if someone gets near him. He yells if his train falls off the wooden track. He is angry, seemingly, all day. Given his developmental stage, his continuous anger probably comes from a fully developed _________ and an underdeveloped ___________. a. amygdala; prefrontal cortex b. prefrontal cortex; amygdala c. amygdala; granular frontal cortex d. granular frontal cortex; prefrontal cortex e. granular frontal cortex; amygdala

a. amygdala; prefrontal cortex

The combination of inadequate activation of the ________ and enhanced activation of the ________ may result in excessive anger that results in harm to other persons. a. cortex; reticular activating system b. prefrontal cortex; hypothalamus c. prefrontal cortex; amygdala d. amygdala; prefrontal cortex e. noradrenergic system; serotonergic systems

c. prefrontal cortex; amygdala

The _____________ plays an important role in provoking anger and violent emotional reactions, and the ____________ plays an important role in suppressing such behavior by making us see its negative consequences. a. amygdala; prefrontal cortex b. prefrontal cortex; amygdala c. amygdala; granular frontal cortex d. granular frontal cortex; prefrontal cortex e. granular frontal cortex; amygdala

a. amygdala; prefrontal cortex

Research shows people with antisocial personality disorder have an 11 percent reduction in volume of the gray matter of the a. amygdala. b. prefrontal cortex. c. cingulate gyrus. d. granular frontal cortex. e. periaqueductal gray.

b. prefrontal cortex

Research suggests impulsive behavior is caused by decreased __________ activation in the ____________ prefrontal cortex. a. serotonergic; medial b. serotonergic; lateral c. dopaminergic; medial d. dopaminergic; lateral e. cholinergic; medial

a. serotonergic; medial

Research indicates that _____________ input to the prefrontal cortex activates this region. a. serotonergic b. cholinergic c. dopaminergic d. adrenergic e. serotonergic and dopaminergic

a. serotonergic

Impulsive aggression may reflect ________, which can be treated with ________. a. overactivity of prefrontal neurons; fluoxetine b. amygdaloid damage; GABA releasers c. impaired serotonin prefrontal activity; fluoxetine d. serotonin hypothalamic activity; fluoxetine e. amygdaloid damage; glutamate releasers

c. impaired serotonin prefrontal activity; fluoxetine

Recent research suggests that emotions may play the most important role in the formation of a. moral judgments. b. feelings of empathy. c. career decisions. d. religious judgments. e. gambling habits.

a. moral judgments.

Functional imaging studies of the brain during decision-making suggest that personal moral dilemmas strongly activate the a. hypothalamus. b. hippocampus. c. ventromedial prefrontal cortex. d. amygdala. e. nucleus accumbens.

c. ventromedial prefrontal cortex.

________ is an example of a personal moral dilemma. a. Stealing a bus in order to drive people to safety during a hurricane b. Allowing a lifeboat to sink to save your own life c. Stealing a drug to feed your addiction d. Throwing a switch that diverts a train into a crowd of people e. Throwing another person onto a grenade in order to save a larger group

e. Throwing another person onto a grenade in order to save a larger group

Individuals with lesions to the vmPFC are a. less likely to feel strong emotional responses in moral judgments. b. more likely to feel strong emotional responses in moral judgments. c. less likely to pick sacrificing one person to save five. d. more likely to find personally killing one individual to save five morally reprehensible. e. less likely to partake in moral judgments at all.

a. less likely to feel strong emotional responses in moral judgments.

When presented with the moral dilemma of whether to physically push Person A onto a trolley track to stop a trolley car from killing 5 other people, individuals with damage to the ____________ will choose to push Person A and stop the trolley, demonstrating no moral dilemma with this choice. a. ventromedial prefrontal cortex b. amygdala c. subgenual anterior cingulate cortex d. orbitofrontal cortex e. prefrontal cortex

a. ventromedial prefrontal cortex

The proposition that facial expressions of emotion are innate is supported by the observation that a. blind children show different facial emotional expressions than do sighted persons. b. facial expressions of emotion vary by culture. c. the same facial expression for an emotion is observed in all cultures. d. facial expressions of emotion change over time in a culture. e. some facial emotion expressions are only expressed in adulthood.

c. the same facial expression for an emotion is observed in all cultures.

A child who is born blind will a. never learn how to smile. b. have to be told how to move the facial features to elicit a smile. c. learn to smile on a similar trajectory as sighted children. d. smile as sighted children do, but will have to be taught how to facially express sadness. e. smile at birth.

c. learn to smile on a similar trajectory as sighted children.

Darwin argued that the expression of emotion in humans a. varies greatly among individuals. b. is learned during an early critical period. c. is unique to each culture. d. evolved from similar expressions in other animals. e. involves muscle movements of the hands but not the face.

d. evolved from similar expressions in other animals.

A key function of the right hemisphere is a. the use of visual cues to recognize emotions. b. the recognition of emotions. c. the capacity to recognize the emotional content of hand gestures. d. the ability to discriminate among different facial expressions of emotion. e. control vocal emotional pitch.

b. the recognition of emotions.

The ability to recognize emotions expressed by others is most likely to be impaired after damage to the a. left hemisphere. b. basal ganglia. c. right hemisphere. d. cerebellum. e. dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

c. right hemisphere.

PET studies indicate that the comprehension of emotion from tone of voice increased the activity of the a. left frontal cortex. b. left hemisphere. c. right hemisphere. d. anterior potion of the corpus callosum. e. right frontal cortex.

e. right frontal cortex.

Pure word deafness is produced by damage to the ________ cortex. a. left temporal b. right orbitofrontal c. left parietal d. right temporal e. right parietal

a. left temporal

The observation that a person with ________ cannot understand speech but can infer emotion from ________ suggests that word recognition and emotional vocal recognition are independent functions. a. pure word deafness; body posture b. Broca’s aphasia; use of emotional words c. affective blindsight; body posture d. pure word deafness; tone of voice e. word deafness; use of emotional words

d. pure word deafness; tone of voice

Which of the following is true of the role of the amygdala for the recognition of emotion? a. Amygdala damage impairs the ability to use tone of voice cues for emotion recognition. b. Amygdala damage impairs the ability to use facial expressions for emotion recognition. c. The amygdala receives input from the visual cortex via the thalamus. d. Conscious awareness is required for the facial expression of emotion. e. Activation of the amygdala improves mood and affect.

b. Amygdala damage impairs the ability to use facial expressions for emotion recognition.

Because the amygdala receives input from cortical and subcortical sources, a person made blind by cortical damage a. can recognize body posture. b. is unable to infer emotion from tone of voice. c. can recognize object movement. d. is unable to express their emotion using tone of voice. e. can recognize facial emotional expressions.

e. can recognize facial emotional expressions.

Damage to the amygdala can impair recognition of ________ but not ________. a. body posture; tone of voice b. word meaning; the ability to speak a word c. object identity; object movement d. facial emotion expression; recognition of emotion using tone of voice e. tone of voice; facial emotional expressions

d. facial emotion expression; recognition of emotion using tone of voice

Rapid recognition of facial emotional expression is mediated by signals carried by the ________ system. a. koniocellular b. magnocellular c. retino-striatal d. parvocellular e. retino-tectal

b. magnocellular

The emotion of disgust involves activation of neurons within the a. hypothalamus. b. left hemisphere. c. insular cortex. d. substantia nigra. e. corpus callosum.

c. insular cortex.

People with volitional facial paresis are unable to a. voluntarily move the facial muscles. b. cry. c. comprehend other people’s emotions. d. recognize facial expressions. e. use tone of voice to communicate their emotional states.

a. voluntarily move the facial muscles.

Which disorder would greatly impair the capacity of a person to succeed in acting? a. volitional facial paresis b. unilateral damage to the substantia nigra c. unilateral damage to the caudate nucleus d. emotional facial paresis e. Broca’s aphasia

d. emotional facial paresis

With regard to facial emotional expression, a. the sides of the face are equivalent during emotional expression. b. positive emotions are more strongly displayed on the right side of the face. c. negative emotions are more strongly displayed on the right side of the face. d. positive emotions are more strongly expressed than are negative emotions. e. negative emotional expressions are more intensely expressed on the left side of the face.

e. negative emotional expressions are more intensely expressed on the left side of the face.

The muscular movements that are involved in laughter are controlled by neurons within the a. hypothalamus. b. anterior cingulate cortex. c. insular cortex. d. substantia nigra. e. corpus callosum.

b. anterior cingulate cortex.

The unique aspect of Patient S.P. is that after removal of her right amygdala, she a. was unable to recognize individual faces. b. was unable to recognize her own facial emotional expressions. c. could accurately judge the age of other persons. d. lost the ability to show emotion in her facial expressions. e. could not perceive facial color.

b. was unable to recognize her own facial emotional expressions.

A chimeric face a. is another name for being deceptive. b. is a happy face. c. is a wrinkled face. d. is created by pasting different facial images to form a single unit. e. shows rapid shifts in emotional state.

d. is created by pasting different facial images to form a single unit.

According to the James-Lange theory, feelings of emotions are a. dependent upon the genetic makeup of an individual. b. the causes of physiological reactions to events. c. produced by feedback from the behaviors and physiological responses caused by emotion-producing situations. d. culturally determined responses to stimuli. e. produced by activity within the thalamus in response to sensory cues.

c. produced by feedback from the behaviors and physiological responses caused by emotion-producing situations.

Which statement best illustrates the James-Lange theory of emotion? a. Feeling happy causes you to laugh. b. Laugh and you will be happy. c. Happiness is the result of excessive release of endorphins. d. Your frontal lobe causes you to feel happy; your motor cortex causes you to laugh. e. Feeling happy induces the species-typical reaction we call laughter.

b. Laugh and you will be happy.

According to the James-Lange theory of emotion, which of the following is most important for the subjective experience of an emotion? a. changes in hormone levels provoked by the stimulus b. the cultural context in which an event occurs c. one’s own self-report of what is being experienced d. sensory feedback from muscles and internal organs e. that the person has an intact thalamus

d. sensory feedback from muscles and internal organs

Studies by Ekman and colleagues suggest that a. simulated facial emotional expression changes sympathetic activity. b. fear and happiness produce similar changes in the autonomic nervous system. c. simulated facial emotional expression changes parasympathetic activity. d. different emotions are expressed in similar ways by the facial muscles. e. emotions are determined by culture.

a. simulated facial emotional expression changes sympathetic activity.

Most studies of emotion have focused on ________ emotions.

negative

The ________ nucleus of the amygdala is the most important part of the brain for the expression of emotional responses provoked by aversive stimuli.

central

Outputs from the ________ mediate the increased vigilance noted during fear.

locus coeruleus

Lesions of the periaqueductal gray matter interfere with the ________ in rats.

freezing response

Damage to the ________ cortex impairs the extinction of a conditioned emotional response.

ventromedial prefrontal

Feelings of fear in humans are produced by electrical stimulation of the ________.

amygdala

________ is one type of behavior that serves to prevent an attack by another animal.

submission

The neurotransmitter serotonin typically ________ aggression.

inhibits (or suppresses)

Low levels of ________ in the brain are correlated with risky behavior in males.

5-HIAA

________ is a drug that can reduce symptoms of irritability and aggressiveness.

Fluoxetine (or any serotonin agonist)

The fact that early androgen exposure in rats increases the likelihood of adult aggressive behavior is an example of a(n) ________ hormone effect.

organizational

The aggression levels in both males and females are increased by exposure to ________.

androgen

Damage to the vmPFC caused by a railroad accident caused ________ to be childish, irresponsible, and whimsical.

phineas gage

Deciding whether to throw a person onto a railroad track to save others is an example of a(n) ________ moral dilemma.

personal

________ argued that human emotional expression evolved from similar expressions in other animals.

Darwin

Disgusting stimuli activate the activity of cells in the ________.

insular cortex

Individuals who have ________ have difficulty in moving the facial muscles voluntarily.

volitional facial paresis

The ________ half of the face is more expressive than the other half.

left

The prominent physiologist ________ strongly criticized the James-Lange theory of emotion.

Walter Cannon

Injections of ________ can inhibit facial muscle movement and facial emotional expression.

botox

The case of Mrs. R. involved _______ provoked by a tumor located between her frontal lobes. a. motor seizures b. partial paralysis c. mutism d. a stroke e. a speech disorder

a. motor seizures

A(n) ________ is a mass of cells whose growth is uncontrolled and that serves no useful function in the body. a. polyp b. tumor c. cyst d. nodule e. aneurism

b. tumor

Which of the following is true of a benign brain tumor? a. Benign tumors cause damage through glutamate release. b. Benign tumors damage brain tissue by infiltration. c. The flow of CSF can be increased by a growing benign tumor. d. Benign tumors are encapsulated. e. Benign tumors induce apoptosis cascades which kill neurons.

d. Benign tumors are encapsulated.

The key characteristic of a benign tumor is that such a tumor a. cannot cause brain damage. b. does not require surgery. c. has a distinct border. d. spreads rapidly through infiltration of adjacent tissue. e. mostly arises from neuron cell types.

c. has a distinct border.

The key characteristic of a malignant tumor is that such a tumor a. does not require surgery. b. cannot cause brain damage. c. has a distinct border. d. spreads rapidly through infiltration of adjacent tissue. e. can give off cancerous cells that in turn reach distant sites.

e. can give off cancerous cells that in turn reach distant sites.

The key distinction between malignant and benign tumors is that a. malignant tumors mostly appear within structures that are adjacent to large blood vessels. b. a benign tumor is encapsulated by a distinct border. c. benign tumors are invariably larger than malignant tumors. d. malignant tumors arise from neurons rather than glia. e. benign tumors induce apoptosis but malignant tumors do not.

b. a benign tumor is encapsulated by a distinct border.

The toxic action of brain tumors relates to the a. observation that tumors use up oxygen and glucose, thereby starving brain cells of energy substrates. b. ability of tumor cells to stimulate the growth/division of adjacent nerve cells. c. toxic action of oversecretion of the transmitter GABA from tumor cells. d. ability of brain tumors to compress tissue, leading to cell death. e. fact that tumors arising from neuron cells grow very rapidly, thus producing tissue compression.

d. ability of brain tumors to compress tissue, leading to cell death.

Malignant brain tumors are deadly because such tumors a. can increase the flow of cerebrospinal fluid, thus causing hydrocephalus. b. release glutamate. c. give off cells that travel to other body areas and result in new tumors. d. release glycine, which kills nearby cells. e. can only be confirmed at autopsy.

c. give off cells that travel to other body areas and result in new tumors.

Malignant brain tumors directly damage brain tissue by a. compression and infiltration. b. oversecreting glutamate, which in turns kills adjacent glial cells. c. oxygen deprivation. d. inducing hemorrhage. e. releasing oxygen radicals into brain tissue.

a. compression and infiltration.

_______________ cannot form the basis of tumors. a. Astrocytes b. Oligodendrocytes c. Glial cells d. Nerve cells e. Cells of the meninges

d. Nerve cells

A neurinoma is formed from a. astrocytes. b. ependymal cells from the ventricles. c. Schwann cells. d. nerve cells. e. cells of the meninges.

c. Schwann cells.

A(n) ________ is an example of a malignant tumor derived from glial cells. a. meningioma b. pinealoma c. angioma d. metastatic oligodendrocytoma e. astrocytoma

d. metastatic oligodendrocytoma

In the treatment of tumors, ______________ is usually done first, if possible. a. radiation b. chemotherapy c. vitamin treatment d. drug therapies e. surgery

e. surgery

The FDA has approved the drug ________ to treat rapidly growing tumors. a. carbachol b. fluoxetine c. dilantin d. lithium e. bevacizumab

e. bevacizumab

________ is characterized by periodic bouts of abnormally high excitation of cerebral neurons. a. Parkinson’s disease b. Seizure disorder c. Tay-Sachs disease d. Alzheimer’s disease e. Encephalitis

Seizure disorder

A convulsion occurs when a seizure a. is triggered by oxygen deprivation. b. involves the motor cortex. c. has been triggered by a toxic chemical. d. involves a loss of consciousness. e. is of the petit mal type in children.

b. involves the motor cortex.

An example of a partial seizure is a(n) ___________ seizure. a. grand mal b. atonic c. absence d. sensory e. myoclonic

d. sensory

An example of a generalized seizure is a(n) _______________ seizure. a. autonomic b. absence c. psychic d. motor e. localized motor

b. absence

In contrast to simple partial seizures, complex partial seizures involve a. a loss of consciousness. b. alteration (but not loss) of consciousness. c. a definite focus. d. most of the brain. e. scarred brain tissue.

a. a loss of consciousness.

The nature of an aura experienced during a seizure varies depending on a. whether the seizure is above or below threshold. b. whether the motor system is involved. c. the location of the seizure focus. d. how long the person has experienced seizure activity. e. the amount of fear experienced during the seizure.

c. the location of the seizure focus.

The tonic phase of a grand mal seizure begins a. when the cortex is inhibited by messages sent from diencephalic structures. b. when an aura is produced within the cerebellum. c. when neurons in the motor cortex contract the body muscles. d. with an excessive release of glutamate in the hippocampus. e. with a suppression of glycine release within the brain stem.

c. when neurons in the motor cortex contract the body muscles.

During the ________ of a grand mal seizure, the person experiences a(n) _______. a. tonic phase; contraction of all skeletal muscles b. clonic phase; aura involving lights c. clonic phase; contraction of all skeletal muscles d. tonic phase; eye-rolling and facial grimaces e. tonic phase; changes in consciousness

a. tonic phase; contraction of all skeletal muscles

The ________ seizure disorder is often seen in children and is characterized by a spell of absence. a. complex b. petit mal c. simple partial d. atonic e. dystonic

b. petit mal

An aura involving the recall of a childhood memory would most likely reflect seizure activity within the a. occipital lobes. b. parietal association cortex. c. temporal lobes. d. primary motor cortex. e. primary auditory cortex.

c. temporal lobes.

During a grand mal seizure, convulsions occur during the ___________ phase. a. absence b. tonic c. clonic d. aura e. petit mal

c. clonic

A seizure that starts within the parietal lobe would be expected to produce an aura that involves a. feelings of being on “pins and needles.” b. hallucinations that include old memories. c. flashes of light or color. d. perceptions of a strong odor. e. muscle twitches.

a. feelings of being on “pins and needles.”

The most common cause of seizure disorder is a. sudden withdrawal from barbiturate abuse. b. exposure to toxic chemicals. c. drug overdose. d. scarring produced by damage within the brain. e. sudden withdrawal from opiate abuse.

d. scarring produced by damage within the brain.

Hemorrhagic strokes cause brain damage by a. exerting pressure on surrounding tissue. b. decreasing the production of cerebrospinal fluid. c. spreading infection throughout the brain. d. increasing the production of cerebrospinal fluid. e. inducing the release of GABA.

a. exerting pressure on surrounding tissue.

Chris has a long history of high blood pressure. He takes medications to regulate his blood pressure but he often forgets to take it and doesn’t follow the suggested diet from his doctor. These facts make it more likely that he will suffer from a(n) _____________ stroke. a. ischemic (thrombus) b. ischemic (embolus) c. transient d. hemorrhagic e. permanent

d. hemorrhagic

In an ischemic stroke, neurons die because a. they lose their glucose supply. b. they lose their supply of oxygen. c. excess glutamate causes an excitotoxic lesion. d. excess dopamine causes an excitotoxic lesion. e. the blood clot infiltrates the tissue.

c. excess glutamate causes an excitotoxic lesion.

A hemorrhagic stroke involves ________ within the brain. a. vasodilation b. bleeding c. an embolus d. a thrombus e. obstruction of blood flow

b. bleeding

Prolonged interruption of the blood supply to a region of the brain results in a. hemorrhage. b. hyperglycemia. c. ischemia. d. galactosemia. e. vasodilation

c. ischemia.

An ischemic stroke involves ________ within the brain. a. vasodilation b. bleeding c. shearing of blood vessels d. an infection of glial cells e. obstruction of blood flow

e. obstruction of blood flow

A thrombus a. can be caused by infection in the heart. b. is composed of debris that lodges in an artery. c. can result in hemorrhagic stroke. d. can consist of pieces of thrombi. e. is a blood clot formed in a blood vessel.

e. is a blood clot formed in a blood vessel.

A major cause of obstructive strokes is a. the failure of weakened blood vessels in response to blood pressure. b. malformed blood vessels. c. intracranial bleeding. d. high blood pressure. e. a thrombus or an embolus.

e. a thrombus or an embolus.

Which of the following most correctly describes the sequence of toxic events that occur in brain during a stroke? a. increased blood flow –> activation of NA+/K+ transporters –> membrane hyperpolarization –> GABA release –> excessive accumulation of extracellular CA++ b. reduced blood flow –> inactivation of Na+/K+ transporters –> membrane depolarization –> glutamate release –> excessive accumulation of intracellular CA++ c. reduced blood flow –> activation of Na+/K+ transporters –> membrane hyperpolarization –> DA release –> excessive accumulation of intracellular CL- d. reduced blood flow –> inactivation of Na+/K+ transporters –> membrane hyperpolarization –> GABA release –> excessive accumulation of intracellular CA++ e. increased blood flow –> reduced accumulation of extracellular CA++ –> membrane hyperpolarization –> GABA release

b. reduced blood flow –> inactivation of Na+/K+ transporters –> membrane depolarization –> glutamate release –> excessive accumulation of intracellular CA++

A 50-year-old man has experienced a major stroke caused by a thrombus that occluded brain blood vessels. To prevent the occurrence of another stroke, his physicians would most likely a. administer an anticoagulant. b. administer drugs that lower blood pressure. c. cut out the embolus using invasive surgery. d. use deep brain stimulation to facilitate neuron regrowth. e. administer massive doses of antibiotics.

a. administer an anticoagulant.

When it comes to treatment of a stroke, _____________ helps prevent clotting and does not increase excitotoxicity. a. tPA b. 2-DG c. MP d. desmoteplase e. phenobarbital

d. desmoteplase

One surgical treatment for stroke, ___________________, is associated with an increased number of future strokes and the death rate following implantation is high. a. use of carotid stents b. carotid endarterectomy c. atherosclerosis d. sclerosis e. angioplasty

a. use of carotid stents

Which of the following is a therapy for ischemic stroke, but only if given soon after the onset of symptoms? a. infusion of free radicals into the affected brain region b. administration of tPA to dissolve blood clots c. drugs that inactivate GABA receptors d. drugs that stimulate glutamate receptors e. drugs that promote inflammatory reactions

b. administration of tPA to dissolve blood clots

Atherosclerosis involves a. the movement of thrombi across the blood-brain barrier. b. a buildup of plaque within glial cells. c. surgery on the major brain blood vessels. d. a buildup of plaque within arteries. e. a shearing of the walls of arterial vessels.

d. a buildup of plaque within arteries.

In constraint-induced therapy, stroke patients a. used their unaffected limbs to accomplish physical tasks. b. experienced long-term improvement in the patients’ ability to use their impaired arms. c. did not improve in their ability to use the impaired limb. d. experienced a weakening in the constrained arms over time. e. were able to use their unaffected limb for daily tasks.

b. experienced long-term improvement in the patients’ ability to use their impaired arms.

When the skull meets with blunt force trauma to the right side, the brain tissue will experience trauma as it meets the skull. This blow to the brain is known as a. the coup. b. the countrecoup. c. closed-head injury. d. open-head injury. e. punch drunk syndrome.

a. the coup.

This type of TBI is a neurodegenerative injury from repeated brain trauma, often seen in athletes. a. coup injury b. coup-countrecoup injury c. chronic traumatic encephalopathy d. mild traumatic brain injury e. contusion

c. chronic traumatic encephalopathy

Brain development in a fetus whose mother contracted German measles early in the pregnancy is impaired because the rubella virus a. alters chromosome number. b. induces an error of metabolism within brain cells. c. produces toxins that interfere with the chemical signals that control brain development. d. deletes key enzymes within the brain. e. alters neurotransmitter release in the neural tube.

c. produces toxins that interfere with the chemical signals that control brain development.

A key sign that a child born to a mother who consumed alcohol during the pregnancy suffers from fetal alcohol syndrome involves a. brain swelling. b. an immature immune system. c. abnormal facial development. d. deficient muscle development. e. an enlarged skull in the affected infant.

c. abnormal facial development.

The most serious effect of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder is a. an unusual facial appearance. b. malformation of limbs. c. impaired brain development. d. that such babies are likely to develop alcoholism as adults. e. exaggerated startle response.

c. impaired brain development.

A baby that has fetal alcohol syndrome would be expected to a. be smaller than average in size. b. have abnormal reflexes. c. have a very large head. d. be hyperactive. e. develop more rapidly than his or her normal peers.

a. be smaller than average in size.

A key pathway through which alcohol disrupts normal brain development is by interfering with a. enzymes that break down cell wastes. b. the conversion of phenylalanine into tyrosine. c. the processes that terminate the formation of new neurons. d. a protein that helps guide neuronal growth in the developing brain. e. the function of glial membrane sodium-potassium transporters.

d. a protein that helps guide neuronal growth in the developing brain.

Phenylketonuria is caused by a. an inherited lack of an enzyme that produces tyrosine. b. accumulation of waste products in the brain. c. neurofibrillary tangles. d. toxic chemicals released by a virus. e. leakage from glutamate into the brain blood system.

a. an inherited lack of an enzyme that produces tyrosine.

Tyra has phenylketonuria. Which of the following statements would be most accurate? a. Tyra must be on a restricted diet low in phenylalanine for the remainder of her life. b. Phenylalanine in Tyra’s diet helps to myelinate axons. c. Tyra can introduce phenylalanine into her diet as an adult. d. Phenylketonuria results from a missing protein. e. She will need a complete blood transfusion.

c. Tyra can introduce phenylalanine into her diet as an adult.

If a pregnant woman has phenylketonuria a. the mother must follow a strict diet to safeguard her own brain, but the fetus will be unaffected. b. the mother must follow a strict diet for the brain development of herself and for the fetus. c. the mother must follow a strict diet for the fetus to be unaffected, but eating phenylalanine will not likely affect her. d. the pregnancy will not come to term. e. neurofibrillary tangles that develop at about 4 years of age.

c. the mother must follow a strict diet for the fetus to be unaffected, but eating phenylalanine will not likely affect her.

Untreated __________________ results in damage to cerebral white matter, the thalamus, and the cerebellum. a. pyridoxine dependency b. Down syndrome c. galactosemia d. phenylketonuria e. Tay-Sachs disease

a. pyridoxine dependency

______________ is a metabolic disorder in which an infant requires larger-than-normal amounts of vitamin B6 to avoid neurological symptoms. a. Parkinson’s disease b. Tay-Sachs disease c. Phenylketonuria d. Pyridoxine dependency e. Huntington’s chorea

d. Pyridoxine dependency

The term congenital refers to a a. genetic metabolic error of the brain. b. condition present at birth. c. condition in which a fetus has both male and female internal reproductive structures. d. neurological condition that appears during puberty. e. condition that is inherited from the mother.

b. condition present at birth.

The mental retardation shown in Down syndrome is caused by a. the absence of the 21st chromosome. b. a buildup of waste products in the neurons of brain. c. a genetic error involving a missing vital enzyme. d. the presence of an extra 21st chromosome. e. an inherited faulty gene.

d. the presence of an extra 21st chromosome.

Whether a fetus will be born with Down syndrome is related to a. the age of the mother at the time of pregnancy. b. the presence of specific amino acids in the mother’s diet. c. overexposure to toxins during pregnancy. d. ingestion of drugs and alcohol by the father prior to conception. e. the uterine environment during pregnancy.

a. the age of the mother at the time of pregnancy.

Mouse models of Down syndrome suggest that _____________ of ____________ may impair hippocampal synaptic plasticity and associated learning and memory. a. overactivity; glutamate b. overactivity; GABA c. underactivity; glutamate d. underactivity; GABA e. overactivity; dopamine

b. overactivity; GABA

Which of the following is true of Down syndrome (DS)? a. The brains of DS people are approximately 10 percent lighter than those of normal people. b. A DS person may be exceptionally talented in a particular area in spite of general mental retardation. c. People with DS have no distinguishing physical characteristics. d. People with DS often fail to learn to talk. e. The incidence of DS is 1 in 10,000 in the United States.

a. The brains of DS people are approximately 10 percent lighter than those of normal people.

The brain of an individual with Down syndrome would be expected to differ from that of a brain of a normal individual in that a. the superior temporal gyrus is larger in the left hemisphere of the Down syndrome brain. b. the frontal lobes are larger in the Down syndrome brain. c. the Down syndrome brain is 10% heavier than the normal brain. d. the Down syndrome brain has simpler and smaller gyri and sulci. e. the superior temporal gyrus is larger in the right hemisphere of the Down syndrome brain.

d. the Down syndrome brain has simpler and smaller gyri and sulci.

Which of the following is true of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE)? a. Down syndrome is a form of TSE. b. In TSE, the ventricles are constricted. c. PKU is a form of TSE that involves eating human flesh. d. TSEs are caused by simple proteins termed prions. e. Parkinson’s disease is caused by eating human flesh.

d. TSEs are caused by simple proteins termed prions.

________ is associated with the consumption of tainted human flesh. a. Kuru b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease c. Down syndrome d. Phenylketonuria e. Parkinson’s disease

a. Kuru

Prions kill neurons by a. releasing glycine. b. inducing apoptosis. c. increasing calcium levels in neurons. d. decreasing glutamate release. e. compressing nerve cells.

b. inducing apoptosis

________ is caused by degeneration of dopamine-secreting neurons of the substantia nigra. a. Encephalitis b. Parkinson’s disease c. Kuru d. Multiple sclerosis e. Acute anterior poliomyelitis

b. Parkinson’s disease

The cause of Parkinson’s disease has been traced to a. overproduction of GABA within the caudate nucleus. b. loss of cholinergic neurons within the frontal cortex. c. overproduction of dopamine within the basal ganglia. d. degeneration of dopamine neurons within the nigrostriatal system. e. the presence of an extra 21st chromosome.

d. degeneration of dopamine neurons within the nigrostriatal system.

Loss of dopaminergic neurons and the associated decreased activation of the supplementary motor area result in a. akinesia. b. akinetopsia. c. anomia. d. ageusia. e. atonia.

a. akinesia.

A unique genetic cause of Parkinson’s disease has been traced to a. a dominant mutation of a gene on chromosome 4. b. overproduction of GABA within the caudate nucleus. c. a recessive gene located on chromosome 8. d. a loss of cholinergic neurons within the frontal cortex. e. overproduction of dopamine within the basal ganglia.

a. a dominant mutation of a gene on chromosome 4.

A genetic disorder caused by a mutation that produces a protein with toxic consequences would be classified as a. a toxic gain of function. b. recessive. c. a toxic loss of function. d. congenital. e. degenerative.

a. a toxic gain of function.

A genetic disorder caused by a mutation that fails to produce a protein that is required for normal health would be classified as a. a toxic gain of function. b. recessive. c. a toxic loss of function. d. congenital. e. degenerative.

c. a toxic loss of function.

Which of the following statements about Parkinson’s disease is accurate? a. All dopamine neurons are affected by Parkinson’s disease. b. Dopamine neurons in the mesolimbic system are affected by Parkinson’s disease. c. If calcium is involved in regulating the spontaneous activity of dopamine cells, these cells are more affected by Parkinson’s disease. d. Parkinson’s disease is reversible. e. Parkinson’s disease is not degenerative.

c. If calcium is involved in regulating the spontaneous activity of dopamine cells, these cells are more affected by Parkinson’s disease.

The standard drug treatment for Parkinson’s disease is the daily administration of a. d-amphetamine. b. L-DOPA. c. atropine. d. haloperidol. e. apomorphine.

b. L-DOPA.

A therapy for Parkinson’s disease that alters MAO-B activity in nerve cells involves administration of a. deprenyl. b. paraquat. c. haloperidol. d. L-DOPA. e. pimozide.

a. deprenyl.

Which of the following represents a therapy for Parkinson’s disease? a. daily administration of amphetamine or cocaine b. administration of haloperidol c. stereotaxically guided destruction of the internal division of the globus pallidus d. daily administration of the insecticide paraquat e. stereotaxically-guided destruction of the external division of the globus pallidus

c. stereotaxically guided destruction of the internal division of the globus pallidus

The principal output of the basal ganglia is from the a. internal division of the globus pallidus. b. internal capsule. c. lateral caudate nucleus. d. external division of the globus pallidus. e. dorsal root ganglion.

a. internal division of the globus pallidus.

Surgical removal of the ________ can alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. a. thalamus b. putamen c. basal ganglia d. globus pallidus e. primary motor cortex

d. globus pallidus

Deep brain stimulation of the ________ can alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. a. thalamus b. putamen c. basal ganglia d. subthalamic nucleus e. primary motor cortex

d. subthalamic nucleus

A key distinction is that Parkinson’s disease ________, whereas Huntington’s disease ________. a. symptoms can be cured with drug treatment or surgery; symptoms can be treated with drugs b. usually occurs in the twenties and thirties; almost always occurs in the fifties and sixties c. is characterized by a poverty of movement; is characterized by uncontrollable ones d. is a hereditary disorder; does not usually have genetic origins e. symptoms cannot be treated; symptoms can be cured with drug treatment or surgery

c. is characterized by a poverty of movement; is characterized by uncontrollable ones

Which treatment has the best utility for Huntington’s disease? a. deep brain stimulation of the caudate b. deep brain stimulation of the thalamus c. lesioning the putamen d. implantation of fetal caudate and putamen cells e. there is no current treatment for Huntington’s disease

e. there is no current treatment for Huntington’s disease

________ is a degenerative disorder involving a defective gene on chromosome 4 that results in jerky uncontrollable movements. a. Down syndrome b. Tay-Sachs disease c. Meissner’s syndrome d. Huntington’s disease e. Parkinson’s disease

d. Huntington’s disease

The specific cause for Huntington’s disease may involve _______ that kills neurons. a. inclusion bodies b. elongated stretches of glutamine c. suppression of apoptosis d. excessive release of glutamate e. loss of L-DOPA function

b. elongated stretches of glutamine

. _____________ is the current psychopharmacological treatment for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. a. Riluzole b. Deprenyl c. L-DOPA d. interferon β e. interferon α

a. Riluzole

The key symptom of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is a. impaired eye movements. b. loss of short-term memory. c. spasticity of the muscles. d. wild, flailing muscle movements. e. problems with eye movement.

c. spasticity of the muscles.

Some 90 percent of cases of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are a. known to be hereditary. b. classified as sporadic. c. due to excessive production of dopamine in brain. d. cured using anticholinergic drugs. e. treated using drugs that increase brain glutamate activity.

b. classified as sporadic.

An autoimmune reaction that damages ________ is the cause of the multiple sclerosis. a. the myelin sheaths surrounding nerve cells b. presynaptic muscarinic receptors c. acetylcholinergic neurons d. GABAergic neurons e. sclerotic plaques

a. the myelin sheaths surrounding nerve cells

The etiology of multiple sclerosis may involve a. lack of an enzyme needed for myelinization. b. damage to the blood-brain barrier by a virus. c. the formation of ß-amyloid protein. d. degeneration of cholinergic cells in the basal forebrain. e. the formation of neurofibrillary tangles.

b. damage to the blood-brain barrier by a virus.

Multiple sclerosis is more common in a. men relative to women. b. older people than younger people. c. people who lived on the equator, versus the poles of the earth, during childhood. d. people born during late summer. e. women than in men.

e. women than in men.

Multiple sclerosis is most common in a. men relative to women. b. older people than younger people. c. people who lived far from the equator during childhood. d. people who lived on the equator during childhood. e. people born during late summer.

c. people who lived far from the equator during childhood.

The symptoms of multiple sclerosis can be partially alleviated using a. administration of interferon A. b. drugs that block acetylcholinesterase. c. administration of glatiramer acetate. d. administration of interferon ß. e. drugs that block glutamate receptor activity.

d. administration of interferon ß.

The term dementia refers to a. loss of neurons in the cells surrounding the third ventricle. b. deterioration of intellectual abilities caused by an organic brain disorder. c. altered cognitive function associated with schizophrenia. d. demyelinization by autoimmune responses. e. impaired cell functioning caused by viral toxins.

b. deterioration of intellectual abilities caused by an organic brain disorder.

The primary cognitive deficit associated with Alzheimer’s disease involves a. initial confusion that later develops into a memory impairment. b. a difficulty in controlling the arms and legs. c. a progressive loss of memory. d. impaired appetite function. e. slowing of cognitive function.

c. a progressive loss of memory.

Alzheimer’s disease involves a. a type of anterograde amnesia similar to that of Korsakoff’s syndrome. b. severe degeneration of the parietal cortex. c. an inability to recall childhood events. d. difficulties in motor coordination. e. loss of dopaminergic cells with the striatum.

a. a type of anterograde amnesia similar to that of Korsakoff’s syndrome.

Which of the following is accurate regarding Alzheimer’s disease? a. Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are unique to Alzheimer’s disease. b. Amyloid plaques are dying neurons that contain intracellular accumulations of tau protein. c. Acetylcholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain are among the first cells to be affected in Alzheimer’s disease. d. Neurofibrillary tangles are extracellular deposits that consist of a dense core surrounded by degenerating axons and dendrites. e. Dopaminergic neurons in the basal forebrain are among the first cells to be affected in Alzheimer’s disease.

c. Acetylcholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain are among the first cells to be affected in Alzheimer’s disease.

Alzheimer’s disease appears to be caused by excessive levels of ________ in the brain. a. glutamate b. the tau protein c. glycine d. serotonin e. the long form of the AB protein

e. the long form of the AB protein

Pharmacological treatment of Alzheimer’s patients with ________ can improve cognitive performance relative to that of control patients. a. inflammatory cytokines b. antihistamines c. bee pollen d. acetylcholinesterase inhibitor drugs e. paraquat

d. acetylcholinesterase inhibitor drugs

Damage to the ___________ produce(s) __________ amnesia in Korsakoff’s syndrome. a. hippocampus; anterograde b. hippocampus; retrograde c. mammillary bodies; anterograde d. mammillary bodies; retrograde e. thalamus; retrograde

d. mammillary bodies; retrograde

The most common infectious diseases that cause neurological disorders are ________ and ________. a. encephalitis; meningitis b. poliomyelitis; AIDS c. multiple sclerosis; Alzheimer’s disease d. rabies; herpes simplex e. poliomyelitis; dementia

a. encephalitis; meningitis

Rabies is a type of a. autoimmune disorder. b. viral encephalitis. c. degenerative disorder related to matrix proteins. d. bacterial infection. e. sporadic degenerative disease.

b. viral encephalitis.

The most common cause of encephalitis is a. a virus transmitted by mosquitoes. b. a bacterium transmitted by sexual intercourse c. a virus found in bird droppings. d. a virus found in untreated drinking water. e. consumption of spoiled meat.

a. a virus transmitted by mosquitoes.

A key symptom of meningitis is a. a difficulty swallowing. b. an impairment in coordination. c. the experience of a stiff neck. d. difficulty in the articulation of words. e. excessive movement of the arms and legs.

c. the experience of a stiff neck.

Meningitis leads to damage of the brain because this disease produces a. damaged secretory cells within the choroid plexus. b. scar tissue on the meninges. c. inflammation of the meninges that interferes with the flow of blood or cerebrospinal fluid. d. a buildup of the long form of ß-amyloid precursor protein. e. sclerotic plaques.

c. inflammation of the meninges that interferes with the flow of blood or cerebrospinal fluid.