Biopsych Chapters 1-4

Question 1

The key deficit suffered by Jeremiah in the chapter vignette was _______________ caused by _____________.

a. excessive movements; seizures
b. impaired movements; seizures
c. excessive movements; stroke
d. impaired movements; stroke
e. visual difficulties; stroke

Answer 1

d. impaired movements; stroke

Question 2

To improve his deficit, Jeremiah’s non-affected limb was constrained, forcing him to use the affected limb. This therapy is called

a. constraint-applied therapy.
b. constraint-induced movement therapy.
c. restraint therapy.
d. restraint-applied therapy.
e. forced movement therapy.

Answer 2

b. constraint-induced movement therapy.

Question 3

Constraint-induced movement therapy involves

a. using both limbs to perform complex tasks.
b. constraining the patient’s stroke-affected limb to promote rewiring of the brain.
c. constraining the patient’s non-affected limb to promote rewiring of the brain.
d. engaging in whole body movements.
e. repeated physical therapy on both limbs.

Answer 3

c. constraining the patient’s non-affected limb to promote rewiring of the brain.

Question 4

“You can’t teach an old dog new tricks” was commonly believed, since it was assumed that neurons cannot be generated past a certain age. Recent research, however, suggests that _______________ is less limited than previously thought.

a. neurogenesis
b. brain grafting
c. connectionism
d. collateral sprouting
e. neural migration

Answer 4

a. neurogenesis

Question 5

A scientist who holds a monistic philosophy would be comfortable with which of the following statements?

a. The universe is a mental construction.
b. The left hemisphere of the brain is the location of the mind.
c. The mind is not composed of matter.
d. Everything is made of matter and energy.
e. The body is physical whereas the mind is spiritual.

Answer 5

d. Everything is made of matter and energy.

Question 6

________ is the belief that the mind and body are separate entities.

a. Contralateral neglect
b. Monism
c. Blindsight
d. Dualism
e. Animism

Answer 6

d. Dualism

Question 7

Which of the following statements is consistent with the monistic view of the mind-body question?

a. Mind and body are separate.
b. The body can influence the mind through the actions of the pineal gland.
c. The mind is spiritual, while the body is made from matter.
d. The mind can exist apart from the body.
e. The mind is generated through the physical actions of the brain.

Answer 7

e. The mind is generated through the physical actions of the brain.

Question 8

The mind-body question

a. asks about the nature of the mind and the body.
b. was originally posed by neuroscientists.
c. has been solved.
d. usually involves choosing a dualistic view.
e. is no longer relevant to behavioral neuroscience.

Answer 8

a. asks about the nature of the mind and the body.

Question 9

The author of the first psychology text was ________ and the text was entitled ________.

a. Rene Descartes; A Primer of Psychology
b. Sigmund Freud; Dream Interpretation After Cocaine Ingestion
c. Neil Carlson; Foundations of Physiological Psychology
d. Luigi Galvani; Frog Legs and Psychologic Function
e. Wilhelm Wundt; Principles of Physiological Psychology

Answer 9

e. Wilhelm Wundt; Principles of Physiological Psychology

Question 10

Your textbook author asserts that the primary function of the brain is to

a. allow us to appreciate art and music.
b. allow for the experience of emotions.
c. control movement.
d. create memories of our experiences.
e. interpret our sensory experiences.

Answer 10

c. control movement

Question 11

________ represent explanations used by all scientists.

a. Generalizations
b. Falsifications
c. Hallucinations
d. Syllogisms
e. Rationalizations

Answer 11

a. Generalizations

Question 12

Generalization is to __________, whereas reductionism is to __________.

a. identify general rules that govern behavior across multiple organisms; identify simple causes of complex behaviors
b. identify simple causes of complex behaviors; identify general rules that govern behavior across multiple organisms
c. organize data in terms of general rules; identify the smallest piece of a neuron
d. identify the smallest piece of a neuron; organize data in terms of general rules
e. organize data in terms of general rules; identify general rules that govern behavior across multiple organisms

Answer 12

a. identify general rules that govern behavior across multiple organisms; identify simple causes of complex behaviors

Question 13

Research in neuroscience should focus on

a. reductionism, generalization, and functionalism.
b. reductionism.
c. generalization.
d. functionism.
e. evolution.

Answer 13

a. reductionism, generalization, and functionalism.

Question 14

A neuroscientist removes the eyes of a frog to determine if the frog will still respond to light and dark in the environment. This experiment would be an example of

a. generalization.
b. reductionism.
c. separatism.
d. functionalism.
e. validity.

Answer 14

b. reductionism.

Question 15

A researcher explains aspects of post-traumatic stress disorder as an example of general laws that apply to all people. This situation fits

a. generalization.
b. reductionism.
c. separatism.
d. functionalism.
e. validity.

Answer 15

a. generalization.

Question 16

Imagine that you now experience such an overly strong fear of dogs that you refuse to leave your house for fear of encountering a dog. A learning theorist would suggest that the roots of your fear can be attributed to past classical conditioning, in which you associated the sight and sound of a dog with some aversive experience. This type of explanation would involve the process of

a. rationalization.
b. pseudoscience.
c. reductionism.
d. generalization.
e. dualism.

Answer 16

c. reductionism.

Question 17

A scientific explanation of a complex phenomenon that is cast in terms of a simpler one involves the process of

a. rationalization.
b. falsification.
c. generalization.
d. deduction.
e. reduction.

Answer 17

e. reduction.

Question 18

You notice that your roommate has difficulty sleeping after consuming heavily caffeinated drinks. You know from your courses that caffeine can stimulate brain neurons that produce arousal (and that such arousal disturbs sleep function). If you suggest to your roommate that his/her insomnia reflects the action of caffeine on brain function, your explanation would involve the process of

a. reduction.
b. superordinate causality.
c. generalization.
d. induction.
e. falsification.

Answer 18

a. reduction.

Question 19

Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Reduction uses complicated processes to explain simple ones.
b. The goal of reduction is to predict a phenomenon under study.
c. Generalization and reduction are important tools in science.
d. Scientists only use reductionistic explanations.
e. Most scientific studies use on-human experimental subjects.

Answer 19

c. Generalization and reduction are important tools in science.

Question 20

Ancient Greek culture before Hippocrates considered the ________ to be the seat of thought and emotion.

a. gut
b. heart
c. brain
d. pineal gland
e. stomach

Answer 20

b. heart

Question 21

The philosopher ________ attributed thought and emotion to the brain, whereas ________ considered the function of the brain as important for cooling the heart.

a. Aristotle; Hippocrates
b. Galen; Aristotle
c. Hippocrates; Aristotle
d. Plato; Galen
e. Hippocrates; Plato

Answer 21

c. Hippocrates; Aristotle

Question 22

Which of the following comments on brain function would be most likely to be made by Aristotle?

a. The mind acts through the pineal body to control the body.
b. The brain serves to cool the passions of the heart.
c. The brain is the seat of emotion, but not thought.
d. The brain routes sensory information to the heart
e. Injury to the brain alters emotion and thought.

Answer 22

b. The brain serves to cool the passions of the heart.

Question 23

René Descartes asserted that

a. humans cannot understand the nature of the real world.
b. the heart is the seat of thought and emotion.
c. the brain acts to cool the passions of the heart.
d. animals are mechanical creatures controlled by environmental stimuli.
e. the mind is an emergent property of the brain.

Answer 23

d. animals are mechanical creatures controlled by environmental stimuli.

Question 24

Descartes, who first described and studied reflexes, was a

a. monist.
b. reductionist.
c. pluralist.
d. dualist.
e. animist.

Answer 24

d. dualist.

Question 25

René Descartes would be considered to hold a ________ view of the mind-body problem.

a. monist
b. reductionist
c. pluralist
d. dualist
e. animist

Answer 25

d. dualist

Question 26

Descartes’s view of the mind-body was unique in that he argued that

a. the heart is the organ that controls emotions.
b. the muscles are activated by electrical nerve signals.
c. unlike animals, human bodies do not show reflexes.
d. a reflex is a process controlled by the mind.
e. the mind controls the movements of the body.

Answer 26

e. the mind controls the movements of the body.

Question 27

Descartes argued that

a. the heart is the organ that controls emotions.
b. the muscles are activated by electrical nerve signals.
c. unlike animals, human bodies do not show reflexes.
d. nerves produce bodily movements by inflating muscles with fluid.
e. the mind is not linked to the brain.

Answer 27

d. nerves produce bodily movements by inflating muscles with fluid.

Question 28

According to Descartes, the ________ was the point of interaction in the brain where the mind controlled the physical body.

a. hypothalamus
b. corpus callosum
c. amygdala
d. hippocampus
e. pineal body

Answer 28

e. pineal body

Question 29

In a simple experiment, Galvani disproved the hydraulic nerve-muscle model proposed by Descartes. Galvani removed a nerve and its attached muscle fibers from a frog and showed that ________ of the nerve caused ________ of the muscle.

a. electrical stimulation; relaxation
b. electrical stimulation; contraction
c. chemical stimulation; contraction
d. pressurization; relaxation
e. chemical stimulation; relaxation

Answer 29

b. electrical stimulation; contraction

Question 30

Galvani’s experiment involving a frog leg proved that

a. the heart is the organ that controls emotions.
b. the muscles are activated by electrical nerve signals.
c. unlike animals, human bodies do not possess reflexes.
d. a reflex is a process controlled by the mind.
e. the pineal gland pushes fluid through nerves into the muscles.

Answer 30

b. the muscles are activated by electrical nerve signals.

Question 31

Which of the following statements is consistent with Descartes’s explanation of the mind-body question?

a. The brain contains air-filled chambers.
b. Nerves are filled with air and are under minimal pressure.
c. Muscle activation requires no input from the brain.
d. Electrical stimulation of a nerve evokes contraction of a detached muscle.
e. The pineal body controls the body muscles.

Answer 31

e. The pineal body controls the body muscles

Question 32

. ________ was a physiologist who proposed the doctrine of specific nerve energies.

a. Johannes Müller
b. Paul Broca
c. Rene Descartes
d. Ivan Pavlov
e. Wilhelm Wundt

Answer 32

a. Johannes Müller

Question 33

Which of the following is consistent with the doctrine of specific nerve energies?

a. Electrical stimulation of a sensory nerve can evoke a specific sensation.
b. All nerves carry dissimilar electrical messages.
c. Exerting pressure on the eyeball can evoke the sensation of sound.
d. Nerves can be activated by psychological stimuli.
e. The height of the action potential depends on which sensory system has been activated.

Answer 33

a. Electrical stimulation of a sensory nerve can evoke a specific sensation.

Question 34

Which scientist was among the first to advocate the use of experimental techniques in the study of physiology?

a. John Watson
b. Rene Descartes
c. Aristotle
d. Johannes Müller
e. Charles Darwin

Answer 34

d. Johannes Müller

Question 35

Johannes Müller proposed

a. an important role for natural selection in the evolution of behavior.
b. that language is a function of the right hemisphere.
c. that the brain is divided into different functional areas with each receiving signals from a different set of nerves.
d. that the pineal body allows the brain to control the mind.
e. that the heart is the seat of thought and emotion

Answer 35

c. that the brain is divided into different functional areas with each receiving signals from a different set of nerves.

Question 36

Pierre Flourens is known

a. for his use of the experimental ablation technique to examine brain function.
b. as the father of modern philosophy.
c. for proposing the theory of evolution.
d. for his study of language abilities in stroke victims.
e. as a dualist philosopher.

Answer 36

a. for his use of the experimental ablation technique to examine brain function.

Question 37

The technique of experimental ablation involves

a. comparing the relative size of brains across different species.
b. measurements of conduction velocity rates in damaged and intact nerves.
c. chronic chemical stimulation of the brain.
d. low-level electrical stimulation of the brain.
e. assessment of behavioral changes after the intentional damage to a portion of the brain.

Answer 37

e. assessment of behavioral changes after the intentional damage to a portion of the brain.

Question 38

The doctrine of specific nerve energies was proposed by

a. Rene Descartes.
b. Sigmund Freud.
c. Pierre Flourens.
d. Johannes Müller.
e. Paul Broca.

Answer 38

d. Johannes Müller.

Question 39

Paul Broca performed an autopsy of the brain of a patient who had been unable to speak after suffering a stroke. Broca concluded that

a. the control of speech is a function of the left hemisphere.
b. the pineal body controls speech production.
c. damage to the right hemisphere impairs speech.
d. muscle atrophy after a stroke is the result of a fluid pressure drop in the ventricles.
e. the corpus callosum is critical for speech production.

Answer 39

a. the control of speech is a function of the left hemisphere.

Question 40

_________ conducted experimental ablation in animals, whereas ________ applied the concept experimental ablation to humans.

a. Flourens; Broca
b. Broca; Flourens
c. Müller; Flourens
d. Müller; Broca
e. Broca; Müller

Answer 40

a. Flourens; Broca

Question 41

In 1870, Fritsch and Hitzig reported that electrical stimulation of the ________ in dogs resulted in muscle contractions of ________.

a. pineal gland; the facial muscles
b. parietal cortex; the opposite side of the body
c. corpus callosum; both hind legs
d. primary motor cortex; the opposite side of the body
e. globus pallidus; the same side of the body

Answer 41

d. primary motor cortex; the opposite side of the body

Question 42

Hermann von Helmholtz is known for

a. his contributions to the study of philosophy.
b. his contributions to the study of learning and memory.
c. his invention of the electroencephalograph.
d. measuring the speed of light.
e. his measurements of nerve cell conduction velocity.

Answer 42

e. his measurements of nerve cell conduction velocity.

Question 43

In his studies of nerve conduction velocity, Hermann von Helmholtz noted that

a. electrical signal speeds differ from nerve to nerve.
b. nerve conduction velocity is at the speed of light.
c. nerves conduct signals faster than do electrical wires.
d. the velocity of nerve conduction is slower in nerves than in wires.
e. different sensory systems use different conduction speeds.

Answer 43

d. the velocity of nerve conduction is slower in nerves than in wires.

Question 44

Which is the correct match between scientist and idea?

a. Paul Broca; doctrine of specific nerve energies
b. Pierre Flourens; use of ablation to study brain-behavior relations
c. Fritsch and Hitzig; language is localized within the left hemisphere
d. Rene Descartes; doctrine of specific nerve energies
e. Sigmund Freud; use of ablation to study brain-behavior relations

Answer 44

b. Pierre Flourens; use of ablation to study brain-behavior relations

Question 45

Hermann von Helmholtz estimated that nerve conduction velocity is about

a. 9 feet/second.
b. 90 feet/second.
c. 900 feet/second.
d. 9000 feet/second.
e. 90,000 feet/second.

Answer 45

b. 90 feet/second.

Question 46

This scientist discovered neurons that terminated on cardiac cells that were responsible for controlling contractions of the heart.

a. Jan Purkinje
b. Hermann von Helmholtz
c. Luigi Galvani
d. Johannes Müller
e. Pierre Flourens

Answer 46

a. Jan Purkinje

Question 47

Purkinje cells can be found in the

a. medulla.
b. cerebral cortex.
c. tegmentum.
d. cerebellum.
e. amygdala.

Answer 47

d. cerebellum.

Question 48

Neurons that terminated on cardiac cells that were responsible for controlling contractions of the heart are known as

a. cardiac cells.
b. neurofibrillary cells.
c. Purkinje fibers.
d. myocardium fibers.
e. cardiac fibers.

Answer 48

c. Purkinje fibers.

Question 49

________________ used the Golgi staining technique to examine individual neurons in the brain.

a. Camillo Golgi
b. Jan Purkinje
c. Hermann von Helmholtz
d. Luigi Galvani
e. Santiago y Cajal

Answer 49

e. Santiago y Cajal

Question 50

. ____________________ won a Nobel Prize in 1906 for his work in describing the structure of the nervous system.

a. Camillo Golgi
b. Jan Purkinje
c. Hermann von Helmholtz
d. Luigi Galvani
e. Santiago y Cajal

Answer 50

e. Santiago y Cajal

Question 51

John O’Keefe, May-Britt Moser, and Edvard Moser were awarded the 2014 Nobel Prize for

a. developing amplifiers to detect weak electrical signals.
b. developing neurochemical techniques to analyze chemical changes within cells.
c. discovering mirror neurons.
d. discovering a spatial positioning system in the brain.
e. treating depression with deep brain stimulation.

Answer 51

d. discovering a spatial positioning system in the brain.

Question 52

Charles Darwin proposed the principle of

a. specific nerve energy.
b. primary motor cortex.
c. experimental ablation.
d. natural selection.
e. functionalism

Answer 52

d. natural selection.

Question 53

. _____________ refers to a situation when a particular characteristic allows an organism to be more reproductively successful, causing the characteristic to become more prevalent.

a. Darwinism
b. Natural selection
c. Artificial selection
d. Mutation
e. Selective advantage

Answer 53

b. Natural selection

Question 54

The belief that the natural characteristics of an organism exert useful effects is termed

a. reductionism.
b. positivism.
c. functionalism.
d. consolidation.
e. adaptation.

Answer 54

c. functionalism.

Question 55

Functionalism is demonstrated by

a. no brain differences between different songbird species.
b. same-sized spatial reasoning areas in the brains in a species that primarily hunts and one that does not.
c. more activity in the amygdala in an aggressive species.
d. equal levels of activity in the amygdala for calm and aggressive species.
e. no differences in degree of development of the cerebral cortex between dolphins and snakes.

Answer 55

c. more activity in the amygdala in an aggressive species.

Question 56

The physiological mechanisms of an organism that give rise to certain behaviors

a. can be said to have purpose.
b. can be understood in terms of whether the behaviors produce useful functions.
c. are thought to be different from species to species.
d. are not subject to evolutionary principles.
e. are present at birth and do not require environmental stimulation for complete expression.

Answer 56

b. can be understood in terms of whether the behaviors produce useful functions.

Question 57

The principle of natural selection proposes that certain characteristics that ________ will become more prevalent in a species.

a. are associated with multiple genetic mutations
b. inhibit reproductive behaviors
c. increase reproductive success
d. impair adaption to the local environment
e. reduce reproductive success

Answer 57

c. increase reproductive success

Question 58

Over successive generations, moths develop spots that resemble eyes on their wings that scare off predators. This characteristic would be a ___________.

a. selective advantage
b. genetic susceptibility
c. general advantage
d. selective disadvantage
e. genetic predisposition

Answer 58

a. selective advantage

Question 59

Praying mantises are typically green or brown in color to allow them to blend into their surroundings. If a group of praying mantises were born a different color, they would be at a disadvantage. This change, although not advantageous for the mantis, could happen naturally through

a. mutation.
b. gene splicing.
c. genetic alteration.
d. natural selection.
e. genetic predisposition.

Answer 59

a. mutation.

Question 60

Mutations involve

a. adverse neural development caused by drug ingestion in adulthood.
b. accidental changes in the genetic information of the chromosomes.
c. poor adaptation to the environment.
d. improved reproductive success.
e. only beneficial changes in the characteristics of an organism.

Answer 60

b. accidental changes in the genetic information of the chromosomes.

Question 61

Genetic mutations

a. have mostly beneficial effects.
b. usually increase the survivability of offspring.
c. rarely result in problems for the offspring.
d. are usually deleterious.
e. always confer selective advantages to the offspring

Answer 61

d. are usually deleterious.

Question 62

The key benefit of genetic diversity for a species is that

a. diversity allows the species to adapt to different environments.
b. mutations are kept to a minimum.
c. diversity promotes neural development.
d. diversity reduces reproductive success.
e. harmful mutations are increased in the species.

Answer 62

a. diversity allows the species to adapt to different environments.

Question 63

Traits that can be altered via genetic mutations

a. are beneficial.
b. are unobservable.
c. are physical.
d. exert direct actions on behavior.
e. mostly involve psychological function.

Answer 63

c. are physical.

Question 64

The process of evolution

a. does not involve genetic mutations.
b. can occur in the absence of natural selection.
c. rests on the doctrine of specific nerve energies.
d. refers to a gradual change in the structure and function of a species.
e. was proven correct by experimental ablation experiments.

Answer 64

d. refers to a gradual change in the structure and function of a species.

Question 65

________ is thought to be an advantage associated with the development of color vision in primates.

a. The ability to breed at night
b. The ability to move in the forest at night
c. The capacity to discriminate ripe from unripe fruit
d. The capacity to communicate using symbols
e. Rapid nerve conduction

Answer 65

c. The capacity to discriminate ripe from unripe fruit

Question 66

The development of perception that allowed for color differentiation was a functional development; not all animals have this ability. What made it functional?

a. It allowed the ability to breed at night.
b. It allowed for night vision.
c. It allowed for differentiation of ripe fruits.
d. It enabled bipedalism.
e. It allowed for contrast detection

Answer 66

c. It allowed for differentiation of ripe fruits.

Question 67

Which of the following was the key characteristic of early humans that allowed them to effectively out-compete other species?

a. Color vision allowed for the detection of ripe fruit and game.
b. Mastery of fire allowed for provision of warmth in shelters.
c. Agile hands allowed for the creation and use of tools.
d. Mastery of fire allowed food to be cooked.
e. A larger brain allowed for more complicated behavior.

Answer 67

e. A larger brain allowed for more complicated behavior.

Question 68

With regard to the surviving members of the primate family tree,

a. members of the family tree share 78.8% of their DNA.
b. members of the family tree share 98.8% of their DNA.
c. chimpanzees and gorillas share 50% of their genes.
d. humans share only 1.2% of their genes with other members of the family tree.
e. there is little genetic similarity between primate groups.

Answer 68

b. members of the family tree share 98.8% of their DNA.

Question 69

Which of the following is true of the hominid species?

a. Homo sapiens left Africa around 1.7 million years ago.
b. Homo erectus made tools from stone.
c. Homo sapiens eventually killed off Homo neanderthalis through armed conflicts.
d. Modern humans are known as Homo sapiens.
e. Homo sapiens evolved directly from Homo neanderthalis.

Answer 69

d. Modern humans are known as Homo sapiens.

Question 70

Which of the following is correct with regard to the relation between brain size and body size?

a. Human brains are larger than other species when expressed relative to total body weight.
b. Human brains are larger than elephant brains in terms of absolute size.
c. The human brain is more than 5% of total body weight.
d. The elephant brain is larger than the human brain in terms of percent of body weight.
e. Larger brains require smaller bodies

Answer 70

a. Human brains are larger than other species when expressed relative to total body weight.

Question 71

Recent research has shown that intelligence is dictated by

a. the number of neurons not dedicated to set functions, like walking.
b. the number of neurons dedicated to movement and other set functions.
c. ratio of larger brain to body size.
d. ratio of smaller brain to body size.
e. degree of connections between neurons.

Answer 71

a. the number of neurons not dedicated to set functions, like walking.

Question 72

. ________ refers to the concept that human brain maturation takes a long time relative to that of other species.

a. Adaptation
b. Mutational drift
c. Schizotemy
d. Neoteny
e. Maladaptation

Answer 72

d. Neoteny

Question 73

An adult human brain undergoes a ______-fold increase in weight relative to that of the newborn brain.

a. two
b. four
c. six
d. eight
e. ten

Answer 73

b. four

Question 74

In humans, the brain reaches adult size by

a. adolescence.
b. infancy.
c. early childhood.
d. middle childhood.
e. old age.

Answer 74

a. adolescence.

Question 75

Which of the following is an argument made by the text author regarding the use of animals by humans?

a. Owning a pet requires permission from a veterinarian.
b. Pet homes are regularly inspected by the government.
c. More suffering occurs with pet owning than with research.
d. More animals die in research projects than when used as pets.
e. No animal research has been useful for understanding and treating human disease.

Answer 75

c. More suffering occurs with pet owning than with research.

Question 76

Animal rights activists are most concerned with the

a. issue of hunting and trapping of animals.
b. eating of animals as food.
c. use of animals as companions to humans.
d. use of animals as a source of fur for human clothing.
e. use of animals as subjects for research.

Answer 76

e. use of animals as subjects for research.

Question 77

Which of the following statements would LEAST likely be made by an animal rights activist?

a. Animal research is unethical.
b. Animals have the same degree of rights as do humans.
c. The use of animals in research can be justified by the benefits of such research.
d. Animal research must be supervised by veterinarians.
e. There should be limits to the types of studies that are done using animals.

Answer 77

c. The use of animals in research can be justified by the benefits of such research.

Question 78

Your textbook author views ________ as an indispensable use of animals.

a. research for the treatment of human disease
b. use as a source of food
c. use as companions to humans
d. use as a source of fur
e. value as entertainment

Answer 78

a. research for the treatment of human disease

Question 79

A benefit of using animals for research purposes includes

a. the ability of the researcher to mistreat the research animals.
b. the ability to test hypotheses in a non-controlled environment.
c. the ability to control the history of the animals.
d. the ability to experimentally produce ailments in humans.

Answer 79

c. the ability to control the history of the animals.

Question 80

Research with animals is

a. highly regulated.
b. largely unregulated because animals are not viewed as having rights.
c. only partially regulated with chimpanzees having greatest protections.
d. only partially regulated with marine life having greatest protections.
e. only partially regulated with rodents having greatest protections.

Answer 80

a. highly regulated.

Question 81

A stroke induces brain damage because of

a. compression of glial cells.
b. reduced blood flow to a region of the brain.
c. increased cranial pressure.
d. increased nutrient flow to brain tissue.
e. increased blood flow to a region of the brain.

Answer 81

b. reduced blood flow to a region of the brain.

Question 82

Research with monkeys in the 1990s indicated that damaged nerves could be regenerated over time. This finding supports which concept of brain?

a. flexibility
b. rigidity
c. plasticity
d. stasis
e. transformability

Answer 82

c. plasticity

Question 83

A friend of yours was asked to be a research participant for a study investigating the effect of a pain reliever on muscle tears. In order to test the effectiveness of the drug, your friend will need to engage in physical activity that results in small tears in the muscles of the forearm. You caution that all studies involving human subjects must include

a. freedom from risks.
b. monetary benefits for participants.
c. informed consent.
d. parental consent even if over the age of 18 years.
e. freedom from benefits.

Answer 83

c. informed consent.

Question 84

A statement in which the researcher informs any potential participant about the nature of the study, how the data will be collected and stored, and what the anticipated benefits and costs will be for participating is called

a. right to withdraw.
b. agreement.
c. research agreement.
d. informed consent.
e. informed agreement.

Answer 84

d. informed consent.

Question 85

You should not sign an informed consent if it is missing

a. the researcher’s hypothesis.
b. background literature about the study.
c. risks and benefits.
d. the researcher’s opinion about the literature.

Answer 85

c. risks and benefits.

Question 86

The board of scientists and laypeople who review studies with human participants to determine if they protect human rights is called the

a. Institutional Research Board.
b. University Research Board.
c. Institutional Review Board.
d. Institutional Research Review Board.
e. University Review Board.

Answer 86

c. Institutional Review Board.

Question 87

Which of the following would have to undergo IRB review?

a. recording whether or not men make remarks to a woman who is walking down the street
b. watching people at the mall to see if they are friendly when passing each other
c. providing depression medication to an experimental group
d. unobtrusively timing how long it takes women to urinate
e. observing whether individuals open the door for others

Answer 87

c. providing depression medication to an experimental group

Question 88

In 2010, a case of vague informed consent led to legal and financial consequences for the research group who conducted the study. What was the case?

a. Havasupai Tribe v. Arizona Board of Regents
b. Havasupai Tribe v. Arizona Board of Researchers
c. Havasupai Tribe v. University of Minnesota
d. GlaxoSmithKline (GSK) v. Havasupai Tribe
e. Havasupai Tribe v. Miami Children’s Hospital Research Institute

Answer 88

a. Havasupai Tribe v. Arizona Board of Regents

Question 89

In a case of vague informed consent, Havasupai Tribe members gave blood samples for the purposes of research on ______________ but the blood samples were actually used for contested research involving factors related to _______________.

a. diabetes; syphilis
b. syphilis; diabetes
c. diabetes; schizophrenia
d. schizophrenia; diabetes
e. syphilis; schizophrenia

Answer 89

c. diabetes; schizophrenia

Question 90

An emerging interdisciplinary field, ______________, is devoted to better understanding the implications of and developing best practices in ethics for neuroscience.

a. neuroscience ethics
b. bioethics
c. biology ethics
d. neuroethics
e. ethics for behavioral neuroscience

Answer 90

d. neuroethics

Question 91

Neuroethics is concerned with

a. ensuring that individuals over 18 years of age have parental consent to participate in research.
b. privacy of brain imaging information.
c. informed consent statements that include detailed background information on the study being conducted.
d. ensuring that research participation does not last longer than 1 hour.
e. ensuring that all studies include some form of imaging.

Answer 91

b. privacy of brain imaging information.

Question 92

________ is the original name for the field that involves the study of the physiology of behavior.

a. Behavioral neuroscience
b. Biopsychology
c. Psychobiology
d. Physiological psychology
e. Biological pseudoscience

Answer 92

d. Physiological psychology

Question 93

________ is the common name used today for the area that involves the study the physiology of behavior.

a. Behavioral neuroscience
b. Biopsychology
c. Psychobiology
d. Physiological psychology
e. Biological pseudoscience

Answer 93

a. Behavioral neuroscience

Question 94

________ are physicians trained to diagnose and to treat central nervous system diseases.

a. Psychologists
b. Neurologists
c. Anatomists
d. Behavioral neuroscientists
e. Experimental neuropsychologists

Answer 94

b. Neurologists

Question 95

Being a neuroscientist typically requires a

a. PhD degree.
b. Master’s degree.
c. technical degree.
d. Bachelor’s degree.
e. associate degree.

Answer 95

a. PhD degree.

Question 96

Professionals in neuroscience can be from which background(s)?

a. biology
b. biology or psychology
c. chemistry or psychology
d. biology, psychology, or chemistry
e. biology, psychology, chemistry, or computer science

Answer 96

e. biology, psychology, chemistry, or computer science

Question 97

Individuals with a Ph.D., usually in psychology, who study the behavior of people whose brains have been damaged by natural causes are

a. neurologists.
b. neuroscientists.
c. cognitive neuroscientists.
d. behavioral researchers.
e. physiological psychologists.

Answer 97

c. cognitive neuroscientists.

Question 98

The primary symptom shown by Kathryn D. was

a. severe nausea.
b. inability to sleep.
c. muscle weakness.
d. distortions of memory.
e. difficulty in recognizing facial displays of emotion

Answer 98

c. muscle weakness.

Question 99

The official diagnosis that Kathryn D. received was

a. lupus.
b. multiple sclerosis.
c. myasthenia gravis.
d. muscular dystrophy.
e. Lambert-Eaton syndrome.

Answer 99

c. myasthenia gravis.

Question 100

_______ neurons gather information from the environment related to light, odors, and contact of our skin with objects.

a. Sensory
b. Motor
c. Inter-
d. Relay inter-
e. Local inter-

Answer 100

a. Sensory

Question 101

_______ neurons function to contract muscles.

a. Sensory
b. Motor
c. Inter-
d. Relay
e. Local

Answer 101

b. Motor

Question 102

_______ are located only within the central nervous system.

a. Sensory
b. Motor
c. Relay interneurons
d. Projection neurons
e. Schwann cells

Answer 102

c. Relay interneurons

Question 103

You reach out and touch a piece of cloth, feeling its texture. The cells that gather this sensory information are part of the __________ nervous system.

a. central
b. peripheral
c. autonomic
d. parasympathetic
e. sympathetic

Answer 103

b. peripheral

Question 104

Sally’s stomach begins to rumble, reminding her that she skipped breakfast this morning. This hunger signal is sent to the brain, which is part of the __________ nervous system.

a. peripheral
b. central
c. enteric
d. human
e. local circuit

Answer 104

b. central

Question 105

The _______ system is that portion of the nervous system that lies outside of the brain and spinal cord.

a. extraspinal
b. central nervous
c. enteric nervous
d. human nervous
e. peripheral nervous

Answer 105

e. peripheral nervous

Question 106

The nucleus of the nerve cell is located within the

a. soma.
b. axon.
c. axon terminals.
d. dendrites.
e. mitochondria.

Answer 106

a. soma.

Question 107

The portion of a neuron that carries information toward the cell body is the

a. dendrite.
b. axon terminal.
c. presynaptic membrane.
d. soma.
e. glial membrane.

Answer 107

a. dendrite.

Question 108

When an impulse enters a neuron, it is received by the _________ and passed to the next cell via the ____________.

a. dendrite; axon
b. axon; dendrite
c. soma; axon
d. soma; dendrite
e. axon; soma

Answer 108

a. dendrite; axon

Question 109

When substances are transported from the terminal buttons at the end of the axon back to the soma, this process is referred to as ____________.

a. retrograde axoplasmic transport
b. systemic axoplasmic transport
c. anterograde axoplasmic transport
d. peripheral axoplasmic transport
e. anterograde somatoplasmic transport

Answer 109

a. retrograde axoplasmic transport

Question 110

When substances are transported from the soma to the terminal buttons at the end of the axon, this process is referred to as ____________.

a. retrograde axoplasmic transport
b. systemic axoplasmic transport
c. anterograde axoplasmic transport
d. peripheral axoplasmic transport
e. anterograde somatoplasmic transport

Answer 110

c. anterograde axoplasmic transport

Question 111

In order to cross the synapse between two cells, a substance called ___________ is released from the first cell (pre-synapse) to activate or inhibit the second cell (post-synapse).

a. a neurotransmitter
b. protein
c. kinesin
d. dynein
e. mitochondria

Answer 111

a. a neurotransmitter

Question 112

The membrane of a nerve cell is comprised of

a. protein molecules.
b. vesicle remnants.
c. a double layer of lipid molecules.
d. cytoplasm.
e. a single layer of lipid molecules interfaced with a layer of protein molecules.

Answer 112

c. a double layer of lipid molecules.

Question 113

Neurotransmitter molecules are most commonly secreted from the

a. glial cell.
b. dendrite.
c. axon terminal.
d. dendritic apposition.
e. soma.

Answer 113

c. axon terminal.

Question 114

A key function of specialized lipid molecules located in the nerve cell is to

a. detect the presence of hormones outside the cell.
b. form the membrane.
c. form channels to carry ions in and out of the cell.
d. transport molecules into the cell.
e. transport vesicles within the neuron.

Answer 114

b. form the membrane.

Question 115

Match up the internal cell structure with the function most closely associated with that structure.

a. nucleolus; production of cytoplasm
b. ribosomes; production of DNA
c. lipid bilayer; production of ribosomes
d. nucleolus; production of ribosomes
e. mRNA; production of cytoplasm

Answer 115

d. nucleolus; production of ribosomes

Question 116

Which of the following structures is the site of production of proteins?

a. vesicles
b. ribosomes
c. genes
d. myeline
e. the nucleolus

Answer 116

b. ribosomes

Question 117

Which of the following represents a correct match between a neuronal organelle and its function?

a. mitochondria; extraction of energy
b. Golgi apparatus; extraction of energy
c. endoplasmic reticulum; breakdown of proteins
d. microtubules; transport of chemicals through the cell membrane
e. mitochondria; formation of vesicles

Answer 117

a. mitochondria; extraction of energy

Question 118

Match the correct function with the neuronal organelle.

a. mitochondria; production of fat-like molecules
b. mitochondria; formation of vesicles
c. endoplasmic reticulum; breakdown of proteins
d. microtubules; transport of molecules between the soma and the axon terminals
e. Golgi apparatus; extraction of energy for cell use

Answer 118

d. microtubules; transport of molecules between the soma and the axon terminals

Question 119

Proteins are produced within the neuron cytoplasm by

a. mitochondria.
b. ribosomes.
c. lysosomes.
d. the cytoskeleton.
e. nucleoli.

Answer 119

b. ribosomes.

Question 120

Surplus substances within the cytoplasm are degraded by

a. mitochondria.
b. ribosomes.
c. lysosomes.
d. the cytoskeleton.
e. cytoskeletal proteins.

Answer 120

c. lysosomes.

Question 121

A key function of lysosomes is to

a. move vesicles from the soma to the axon terminal.
b. produce proteins.
c. degrade surplus cellular materials.
d. provide energy to the neuron.
e. transport vesicles within the neuron.

Answer 121

c. degrade surplus cellular materials.

Question 122

Which of the following is correct regarding axoplasmic transport?

a. The dynein molecule is involved in anterograde axoplasmic transport.
b. Retrograde axoplasmic transport involves moving substances from the soma to the axon terminals.
c. The kinesin molecule is involved in retrograde axoplasmic transport.
d. Retrograde transport is half as fast as anterograde axoplasmic transport.
e. Transport of materials occurs only in one direction.

Answer 122

d. Retrograde transport is half as fast as anterograde axoplasmic transport.

Question 123

Which of the following is correct regarding axoplasmic transport?

a. Dendrograde transport involves moving substances from the dendrites to the soma.
b. Retrograde transport involves moving substances from the soma to the axon terminals.
c. The kinesin molecule is involved in anterograde transport.
d. Retrograde transport is twice as fast as anterograde transport.
e. The dynein molecule is involved in anterograde transport.

Answer 123

c. The kinesin molecule is involved in anterograde transport.

Question 124

Movement of cargo from one end of the axon to the other involves _______ along the _______.

a. axoplasmic transport; myelin sheath
b. facilitated diffusion; exterior of the cell membrane
c. facilitated diffusion; neurofilaments
d. protein synthesis; microtubules
e. axoplasmic transport; microtubules

Answer 124

e. axoplasmic transport; microtubules

Question 125

What is true about axons?

a. They receive information from other neurons.
b. Axons can only be two inches long.
c. Axons house the Golgi apparatus.
d. Axons generate the energy of the cell.
e. The longest axon in a human stretches from the foot to a region located in the base of the brain.

Answer 125

e. The longest axon in a human stretches from the foot to a region located in the base of the brain.

Question 126

Neurons of the central nervous system are provided nutrients, oxygen, and physical support by _______ cells.

a. Schwann
b. glial or neuroglial
c. Golgi
d. stem
e. microtubule

Answer 126

b. glial or neuroglial

Question 127

. ____________ are supporting cells that can provide myelination to multiple axons at once.

a. Schwann
b. Astrocytes
c. Microglia
d. Oligodendrocytes
e. Microtubules

Answer 127

d. Oligodendrocytes

Question 128

___________ are multi-function glial cells that participate in phagocytosis, provide lactate for cells, and structurally support neurons in the brain.

a. Schwann
b. Astrocytes
c. Microglia
d. Oligodendrocytes
e. Microtubules

Answer 128

b. Astrocytes

Question 129

Which of the following is a key a function of the glial cells?

a. protection of the outer surface of the brain
b. removal of physical debris from the brain
c. secretion of CSF in the brain
d. movement of vesicles along the axon
e. the conduction of action potentials

Answer 129

b. removal of physical debris from the brain

Question 130

Nerve cells are able to rapidly metabolize fuel because

a. of their capacity to store glucose in the cytoplasm.
b. neurons receive lactate from astrocytes.
c. glial cells can transfer ATP into neurons.
d. brain blood vessels can convert glucose into lactate for neuron use.
e. glial cell mitochondria process fuel for the neuron.

Answer 130

b. neurons receive lactate from astrocytes.

Question 131

The _______ are the key supply source of energy for neurons.

a. phagocytes
b. Schwann cells
c. dendrocytes
d. astrocytes
e. microtubules

Answer 131

d. astrocytes

Question 132

A drug that specifically killed the _______ cells would be expected to alter the physical and nutritional support of brain cells.

a. phagocyte
b. Schwann
c. microglia
d. astrocyte
e. microtubule

Answer 132

d. astrocyte

Question 133

The process of phagocytosis involves

a. the removal of neuronal debris.
b. the transfer of lactate from a glial cell to a neuron.
c. the wrapping of fatty material around an axon membrane.
d. structural support of a nerve cell.
e. the degradation of transmitter molecules within the synapse.

Answer 133

a. the removal of neuronal debris.

Question 134

The scar tissue generated in the brain by _______ cells acts to impede the regrowth of nerve cells.

a. astrocytes
b. microglia
c. Schwann cells
d. axon terminals
e. phagocytes

Answer 134

a. astrocytes

Question 135

Myelination of brain nerve axon membranes is accomplished by

a. oligodendrocytes.
b. microglia.
c. astrocytes.
d. neurocytes.
e. Schwann cells.

Answer 135

a. oligodendrocytes.

Question 136

A key feature for the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis in Dr. C. was

a. focal damage to a single brain region evident in a CT scan.
b. diverse neurological symptoms that appeared at different times.
c. the excess production of myelin in the nervous system.
d. the occurrence of small strokes that impair brain function.
e. an autoimmune disease that attacks the myelin found in the peripheral nervous system.

Answer 136

b. diverse neurological symptoms that appeared at different times.

Question 137

The _______ mediates the inflammatory reaction that follows brain damage.

a. Schwann cell
b. phagocyte
c. dendrocyte
d. astrocyte
e. microglia

Answer 137

e. microglia

Question 138

Which of the following is true of Schwann cells?

a. Schwann cells provide myelin for peripheral nerve cells.
b. Schwann cells are found within the brain.
c. A single Schwann cell wraps multiple segments around a peripheral nerve cell.
d. A single Schwann cell can myelinate up to 50 segments of axon membrane.
e. Schwann cells remove the cellular debris left by dead neurons in brain.

Answer 138

a. Schwann cells provide myelin for peripheral nerve cells.

Question 139

Regrowth of a damaged axon can occur more readily in the peripheral nervous system than in the brain because

a. Schwann cells form barriers to axon regrowth.
b. Schwann cells form cylinders through which new axons can grow and reinnervate a target cell nerve cell.
c. Schwann cells generate a chemical signal that instructs nerve cells to die.
d. Astrocytes form cylinders through which new axons can grow and reinnervate a target cell nerve cell.
e. Oligodendroglia form barriers to axon regrowth.

Answer 139

b. Schwann cells form cylinders through which new axons can grow and reinnervate a target cell nerve cell.

Question 140

A scan shows that a particular substance has spread throughout the body via the bloodstream but has not entered the brain. This finding demonstrates the existence of

a. the blood-brain barrier.
b. blood efficacy.
c. medicine effects.
d. the lipid bilayer.
e. the doctrine of specific nerve energies.

Answer 140

a. the blood-brain barrier

Question 141

Which of the following is true of the blood-brain barrier?

a. The barrier is uniform, protecting all brain structures.
b. The barrier pumps glucose out of the brain into the bloodstream.
c. The barrier functions to regulate the chemical composition of the extracellular fluid surrounding the brain cells.
d. The barrier is formed by cells that line the capillaries of the brain.
e. The ventricles have a blood-brain barrier.

Answer 141

c. The barrier functions to regulate the chemical composition of the extracellular fluid surrounding the brain cells.

Question 142

Activation of cells within the _______ by a poison in the blood would be predicted to produce _______.

a. nucleus accumbens; visual hallucinations
b. hippocampus; locomotion
c. hypothalamus; vomiting
d. area postrema; vomiting
e. hippocampus; vomiting

Answer 142

d. area postrema; vomiting

Question 143

The normal order of activation during neuronal transmission is

a. axon –> dendrite –> cell body –> axon terminals.
b. axon terminals –> cell body –> axon –> dendrite.
c. dendrite –> cell body –> axon –> terminal button.
d. cell body –> axon –> dendrite –> axon terminal.
e. dendrite –> axon terminal –> cell body –> axon.

Answer 143

c. dendrite –> cell body –> axon –> terminal button.

Question 144

Susie takes a huge drink of her coffee, assuming that it is tolerable, and the heat sears her mouth. Although the pain is so great that her reflex is to spit out the coffee, she does not do so. The reflex to spit out the coffee is inhibited at the

a. sensory neuron.
b. interneuron.
c. motor neuron.
d. glial cell.
e. astrocyte.

Answer 144

c. motor neuron.

Question 145

As you study for your neuroscience exam, you feel a tickle on your arm. You look and see a large spider and you jerk your arm automatically. What might be the neural path for this action?

a. sensory neuron –> interneuron –> motor neuron –> muscle
b. interneuron –> sensory neuron –> motor neuron –> muscle
c. motor neuron –> sensory neuron –> interneuron –> muscle
d. sensory neuron –> motor neuron –> interneuron –> muscle
e. motor neuron –> interneuron –> sensory neuron –> muscle

Answer 145

a. sensory neuron –> interneuron –> motor neuron –> muscle

Question 146

A key function of the giant squid axon is the

a. integration of sensory messages regarding the environment.
b. planning of feeding-related movements.
c. contraction of the squid mantle, which propels the squid away from danger.
d. coordination of general sensory-motor function.
e. contraction of the oral region to produce chewing movements.

Answer 146

c. contraction of the squid mantle, which propels the squid away from danger.

Question 147

The function of a _______ in a giant squid physiology experiment is to _______.

a. microelectrode; inject potassium ions into the axon
b. voltmeter; stimulate the interior of the axon
c. microelectrode; compare the electric charge of the interior with that of the exterior
d. voltmeter; compare the electric charge of the interior with that of the exterior
e. microelectrode; dampen the electric charge within the axon

Answer 147

d. voltmeter; compare the electric charge of the interior with that of the exterior

Question 148

The interior of a neuron at rest

a. has the same ionic concentrations as the outside.
b. is at the same voltage potential as the outside.
c. has a higher sodium concentration than outside.
d. is negatively charged relative to the outside.
e. has a lower potassium concentration than outside

Answer 148

d. is negatively charged relative to the outside.

Question 149

The difference in electrical charge between the inside and the outside of the axon membrane is defined as the _______ potential.

a. membrane
b. local
c. glial
d. action
e. axon

Answer 149

a. membrane

Question 150

The _______ potential is defined as the difference in electrical charge between the inside and the outside of an undisturbed axon membrane.

a. resting membrane
b. local
c. resting
d. action
e. axon

Answer 150

a. resting membrane

Question 151

A change in the axon membrane potential from -70 mV to -90 mV would be termed a(n)

a. depolarization.
b. threshold potential.
c. action potential.
d. hyperpolarization.
e. excitatory local potential.

Answer 151

d. hyperpolarization.

Question 152

A neuron membrane potential moves from -90 mV to -80 mV in response to a brief stimulation. We would term this change in potential as a(n)

a. depolarization.
b. resting potential.
c. action potential.
d. hyperpolarization.
e. inhibitory local potential.

Answer 152

a. depolarization.

Question 153

If the inner voltage of a cell is -70 mV and application of stimulation results in a -95 mV charge, the stimulation had a ____________ effect. On the other hand, a resultant charge of +40 mV would be a ___________ effect.

a. hyperpolarizing; depolarizing
b. depolarizing; hyperpolarizing
c. repolarizing; depolarizing
d. repolarizing; hyperpolarizing
e. hyperpolarizing; repolarizing

Answer 153

a. hyperpolarizing; depolarizing

Question 154

A(n) _______ will be recorded from a nerve cell whose membrane potential rises above threshold.

a. action potential
b. local potential
c. downward shift of the threshold of excitation
d. upward shift of the membrane threshold
e. long-term change in the membrane potential

Answer 154

a. action potential

Question 155

The _______ is the voltage level at which an action potential is triggered in a patch of axon membrane.

a. resting membrane potential
b. hyperpolarization event
c. threshold of excitation
d. rate level
e. refractory period

Answer 155

c. threshold of excitation

Question 156

A cup of sugar is dumped into a gallon of hot water. After 30 minutes, we will expect that the process of _______ will ensure that the sugar molecules are evenly distributed throughout the water.

a. retrograde transport
b. diffusion
c. anterograde transport
d. electrostatic pressure
e. salinity

Answer 156

b. diffusion

Question 157

A substance that forms oppositely charged particles when dissolved into water would be termed a(n)

a. ion.
b. molecule.
c. electrolyte.
d. cation.
e. anion.

Answer 157

c. electrolyte.

Question 158

_______ are charged particles formed when an electrolyte dissolves in water.

a. Ions
b. Solvents
c. Transmitters
d. Electrons
e. Solutes

Answer 158

a. Ions

Question 159

A cation would be attracted to

a. another cation.
b. an anion.
c. a sodium ion.
d. a potassium ion.
e. a calcium ion.

Answer 159

b. an anion.

Question 160

_______ are negatively charged particles.

a. Transmitters
b. Solvents
c. Electrolytes
d. Cations
e. Anions

Answer 160

e. Anions

Question 161

The process by which similarly charged particles repel each other and are thus moved within a medium is termed

a. diffusion.
b. carrier-mediated transport.
c. refraction.
d. electrostatic pressure.
e. diffraction.

Answer 161

d. electrostatic pressure.

Question 162

Which of the following is true of ion distribution across the axon membrane?

a. Chloride ions are more concentrated inside the axon membrane.
b. Potassium ions are more concentrated outside the cell membrane.
c. The action potential is the balance point between diffusion and electrostatic pressure.
d. Sodium ions are more concentrated outside the axon membrane.
e. Sodium ions are more concentrated inside the axon membrane.

Answer 162

d. Sodium ions are more concentrated outside the axon membrane.

Question 163

Movement of _______ ions _______ the axon would be induced by the force of diffusion.

a. chloride; out of
b. sodium; into
c. potassium; into
d. organic; into
e. sodium; out of

Answer 163

b. sodium; into

Question 164

Sodium ions move out of the axon because of

a. the opening of sodium channels.
b. the opening of voltage-gated channels.
c. kinesin.
d. electrostatic pressure.
e. the sodium-potassium transporter.

Answer 164

e. the sodium-potassium transporter.

Question 165

As a consequence of the activity of the sodium-potassium transporters,

a. extracellular sodium concentrations are kept low.
b. intracellular sodium concentrations are kept very high.
c. extracellular potassium concentrations are kept very high.
d. intracellular sodium concentrations are kept low.
e. very little energy is required to maintain ionic differences across the membrane.

Answer 165

d. intracellular sodium concentrations are kept low.

Question 166

The Na+/K+ pump removes ______ Na+ ions and adds _______ K+ ions.

a. 3; 2
b. 2; 3
c. 3; 4
d. 2; 4
e. 4; 3

Answer 166

a. 3; 2

Question 167

When students enter a class, they tend to spread themselves out (provided there are enough desks to do so). In biological terms, this effect would be

a. electrostatic pressure.
b. ionic movement.
c. diffusion.
d. antisocialism.
e. ionic static.

Answer 167

c. diffusion.

Question 168

Which of the following is true regarding the action potential (AP)?

a. The AP is conducted along the dendrite.
b. The AP is conducted faster in unmyelinated nerve cells.
c. The AP is an all-or-none electrical event.
d. The AP amplitude is higher for an intense signal.
e. The AP amplitude depends on its location along the axon.

Answer 168

c. The AP is an all-or-none electrical event.

Question 169

The specialized protein molecules located in the axon membrane that can open or close are termed

a. receptors.
b. voltage transporters.
c. autoreceptors.
d. ion channels
e. sodium-potassium transporters.

Answer 169

d. ion channels

Question 170

Which of the following is true of the action potential?

a. More sodium channels are opened at a lower voltage level than are the potassium channels.
b. The action potential requires 10 msec for completion.
c. The action potential requires the activity of the sodium-potassium transporters during the rising phase.
d. More potassium channels are opened at a lower voltage than are sodium channels.
e. The overshoot is due to a prolonged change in sodium conductance.

Answer 170

a. More sodium channels are opened at a lower voltage level than are the potassium channels.

Question 171

Sodium ions will be pushed into a resting neuron by the forces of

a. inactivation of potassium channels; diffusion.
b. electrostatic pressure; sodium-potassium pump activation.
c. sodium-potassium pump activation; diffusion.
d. ion channel inactivation; diffusion.
e. diffusion; electrostatic pressure.

Answer 171

e. diffusion; electrostatic pressure.

Question 172

Match the ion channel action with its resulting change in membrane potential.

a. entry of a negative ion; hyperpolarization
b. entry of a positive ion; hyperpolarization
c. exit of a positive ion; depolarization
d. exit of a negative ion; hyperpolarization
e. inactivation of sodium-potassium transporters; depolarization

Answer 172

a. entry of a negative ion; hyperpolarization

Question 173

Which of the following events restores the membrane potential from the peak of the action potential back down to the resting level?

a. Sodium ions move into the cell.
b. Potassium ions move out of the cell.
c. Potassium ions move into the cell.
d. Chloride ions move into the cell.
e. Protein anions move out of the cell.

Answer 173

b. Potassium ions move out of the cell.

Question 174

Which of the following sets of terms do NOT belong together?

a. saltatory conduction; faster conduction speeds in smaller neurons
b. open sodium channels; membrane depolarization
c. saltatory conduction; slower conduction speeds in smaller neurons
d. open potassium channels; membrane repolarization
e. sodium-potassium pump; restoration of the normal concentrations of these ions

Answer 174

c. saltatory conduction; slower conduction speeds in smaller neurons

Question 175

Which of the following is consistent with the “all-or-none” law?

a. The action potential will diminish to near 0 mV when transmitted down a long axon.
b. The action potential fires at the same rate regardless of the inputs to the neuron.
c. The action potential is conducted more rapidly down the axon as it reaches the axon terminal.
d. The action potential is produced whenever the membrane potential reaches threshold.
e. The action potential travels only in one direction.

Answer 175

d. The action potential is produced whenever the membrane potential reaches threshold.

Question 176

The nervous system codes for variation in the intensity of incoming sensory stimuli by variations in the _______ of a neuron.

a. repolarization rate
b. resting membrane potential
c. speed of conduction of action potentials
d. total amplitude of the action potential
e. firing rate

Answer 176

e. firing rate

Question 177

If a bowling ball fell on your foot, the action potentials would differ from a feather falling on your foot. The action potentials for the bowling ball would be

a. larger in size and faster in occurrence.
b. the same size as for the feather but they would be slower in occurrence.
c. the same size as for the feather but they would be faster in occurrence.
d. larger in size and slower in occurrence.
e. smaller in size and faster in occurrence.

Answer 177

c. the same size as for the feather but they would be faster in occurrence.

Question 178

In a myelinated axon, ions can enter and leave the axonal membrane only at

a. the terminal buttons.
b. the soma.
c. the nodes of Ranvier.
d. the segment of membrane under the Schwann cell wrapping.
e. every point along the axonal membrane.

Answer 178

c. the nodes of Ranvier.

Question 179

Which of the following is an important advantage associated with saltatory conduction?

a. More sodium ions have to be pumped out of the cell after an action potential.
b. Myelin allows the nerve cell to recycle neurotransmitter molecules.
c. Less transmitter is required to send a message across the next synapse.
d. Myelin speeds up the velocity at which an axon can conduct an action potential.
e. Myelin requires that nerve cell axons be larger in order to conduct a signal rapidly.

Answer 179

d. Myelin speeds up the velocity at which an axon can conduct an action potential.

Question 180

Which of the following was suggested as an advantage associated with myelination?

a. Myelin changes the height of the action potential.
b. Myelin increases the energy requirements of the nerve cell.
c. Myelin slows down conduction speed.
d. Myelin reduces the threshold for induction of an action potential.
e. Myelin speeds up axon conduction speed.

Answer 180

e. Myelin speeds up axon conduction speed.

Question 181

Saltatory conduction is rapid because

a. cable properties carry the signal under the myelin sheath.
b. myelinated cells have more leakage through the membrane.
c. myelinated axons are larger in diameter.
d. myelinated cells have more ion channels per unit area than do non-myelinated cells.
e. myelinated fibers have a lower threshold of activation.

Answer 181

a. cable properties carry the signal under the myelin sheath.

Question 182

The term _______ is derived from the word meaning “little bladder.”

a. vesicle
b. neurite
c. cisternae
d. mitochondria
e. storage pool

Answer 182

a. vesicle

Question 183

Small synaptic vesicles contain ___________, whereas large synaptic vesicles contain __________.

a. neurotransmitters; peptides
b. peptides; neurotransmitters
c. proteins; peptides
d. peptides; proteins
e. neurotransmitters; proteins

Answer 183

a. neurotransmitters; peptides

Question 184

Signals are carried across the synapse by

a. direct electrical connections between the two cells.
b. the secretion of transmitter molecules into the synapse.
c. the transfer of ions from one cell to another.
d. carrier molecules.
e. the sodium-potassium pump.

Answer 184

b. the secretion of transmitter molecules into the synapse.

Question 185

Communication of neural signals across the synapse involves

a. the opening of transmitter-gated channels in the axon terminal.
b. voltage changes that open chloride channels in the presynaptic membrane.
c. vesicles that take up transmitter molecules into the axon terminal.
d. the binding of transmitter at postsynaptic receptors triggering membrane potentials.
e. direct electrical contact of the pre- and post-synaptic membranes

Answer 185

d. the binding of transmitter at postsynaptic receptors triggering membrane potentials.

Question 186

The largest number of small vesicles would be expected to be located within the _______ of a neuron.

a. dendritic spines
b. soma
c. postsynaptic membrane
d. release zone
e. axon hillock

Answer 186

d. release zone

Question 187

A large, dense-core vesicle found in the axon terminal is likely to contain

a. peptide neurotransmitters
b. neurotransmitter receptors.
c. enzymes that degrade transmitter molecules.
d. synthesis peptides.
e. nonpeptide transmitter molecules.

Answer 187

a. peptide neurotransmitters

Question 188

Synaptic vesicles are produced in the _______.

a. neuron soma
b. dendrites
c. glial cells
d. neuron lysosomes
e. astrocytes

Answer 188

a. neuron soma

Question 189

Ca++ enters the cell when an action potential is generated. Diffision and electrostatic pressures push Ca++ into the cell. Ca++ channels are

a. passive.
b. chemically-gated.
c. voltage-gated.
d. always open.
e. chemically-gated and voltage-gated.

Answer 189

e. chemically-gated and voltage-gated.

Question 190

Placing neurons and their synaptic contacts into a medium containing no calcium ions would be expected to

a. decrease the time required to move sodium ions out of the axon terminal.
b. enhance the voltage changes associated with the action potential.
c. increase the number of transmitter molecules released from the axon terminal.
d. prolong the refractory period of the action potential.
e. prevent the release of neurotransmitter into the synapse.

Answer 190

e. prevent the release of neurotransmitter into the synapse.

Question 191

If Ca++ was blocked,

a. Na+ would be stuck inside of the cell.
b. neurotransmitters could not be released from the cell.
c. voltage-gated ion channels would remain closed.
d. passive channels would close.
e. passive channels would open.

Answer 191

b. neurotransmitters could not be released from the cell.

Question 192

Which of the following is true of receptors?

a. The effects of hormones do not involve receptor activation.
b. Neurotransmitters act on binding sites on receptors to exert their effects.
c. Receptors are insensitive to drugs.
d. Neuromodulators are ligands that come from outside the body.
e. Hormone receptors are found in all tissues except brain

Answer 192

b. Neurotransmitters act on binding sites on receptors to exert their effects.

Question 193

In order to produce a depolarization or hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane, neurotransmitters

a. diffuse widely in the brain to exert changes in metabolism.
b. act through ionotropic receptors to activate a second-messenger.
c. are released into the synapse from the cisternae.
d. open ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane.
e. alter ion channel activity for minutes.

Answer 193

d. open ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane.

Question 194

After a vesicle fuses with the presynaptic membrane and releases its contents into the synaptic cleft, the membrane is

a. destroyed by astrocytes.
b. incorporated into the postsynaptic membrane.
c. recycled to form new vesicles.
d. degraded and the debris removed from the axon terminal.
e. incorporated into the mitochondria.

Answer 194

c. recycled to form new vesicles.

Question 195

Match up the correct receptor type and effect.

a. metabotropic; direct opening of an ion channel
b. ionotropic; more time required to open an ion channel
c. metabotropic; G protein activation leads to activation of a second-messenger
d. metabotropic; rapid opening of a single ion channel
e. metabotropic; rapid short-lived effects on ion channels

Answer 195

c. metabotropic; G protein activation leads to activation of a second-messenger

Question 196

In comparison to ionotropic receptors, metabotropic receptors

a. have effects that occur quicker.
b. have effects that occur slower.
c. have effects that last an instant.
d. have effects that last for a limited duration.
e. act directly on ion channels.

Answer 196

b. have effects that occur slower.

Question 197

With regard to release of neurotransmitter in the brain, “kiss and run” refers to the situation in which the vesicle

a. releases most of its contents into the cleft and the vesicle remains attached to the presynaptic membrane.
b. closes before releasing any molecules and then moves to the cell interior.
c. remains open until the next action potential.
d. releases most of its contents into the cleft, after which the vesicle breaks away from the presynaptic membrane and is refilled.
e. merges completely with the presynaptic membrane.

Answer 197

d. releases most of its contents into the cleft, after which the vesicle breaks away from the presynaptic membrane and is refilled.

Question 198

Match up the correct receptor type and effect.

a. ionotropic; direct opening of an ion channel
b. ionotropic; more time required to open an ion channel
c. ionotropic; G protein activation leads to activation of a second-messenger
d. metabotropic; second-messenger effects are specific to neuronal communication
e. metabotropic; rapid short-lived effects on ion channels

Answer 198

a. ionotropic; direct opening of an ion channel

Question 199

Influx of ____ or _____ ions result in EPSPs.

a. Na+; Ca++
b. Cl-; Na+
c. Ca++; Cl-
d. Cl-; K+
e. A-; K+

Answer 199

a. Na+; Ca++

Question 200

An IPSP will be produced when a ligand

a. closes a sodium channel.
b. opens a sodium channel.
c. opens a potassium channel.
d. closes a calcium channel.
e. opens a calcium channel.

Answer 200

c. opens a potassium channel.

Question 201

The postsynaptic potentials induced by most neurotransmitters are ended by

a. disruption of the postsynaptic receptor.
b. enzymatic degradation of the transmitter molecule.
c. inhibition of transmitter synthesis.
d. facilitation of transmitter release.
e. reuptake of the molecule into the axon terminal.

Answer 201

e. reuptake of the molecule into the axon terminal.

Question 202

The postsynaptic potentials induced by acetylcholine are ended via

a. disruption of the nicotinic postsynaptic receptor.
b. enzymatic degradation via acetylcholinesterase.
c. inhibition of acetylcholine synthesis.
d. facilitation of acetylcholine release.
e. reuptake of acetylcholine.

Answer 202

b. enzymatic degradation via acetylcholinesterase.

Question 203

Autoreceptors are located on the ___________.

a. Golgi apparatus
b. presynaptic membrane
c. endoplasmic reticulum
d. postsynaptic membrane
e. mitochondria

Answer 203

b. presynaptic membrane

Question 204

Action potentials are generated at the _______ and are conducted along the _______.

a. axon hillock; axon
b. axon; dendrite
c. terminal buttons; dendrite
d. dendrite; glial membrane
e. axon button; glial membrane

Answer 204

a. axon hillock; axon

Question 205

Neuromodulators are

a. rarely of a peptide form.
b. secreted from neurons, but dispersed widely in the brain.
c. inevitably inhibitory.
d. secreted from a neuron and only affect an adjacent neuron.
e. typically secreted in very small amounts compared to neurotransmitters.

Answer 205

b. secreted from neurons, but dispersed widely in the brain.

Question 206

Most _______ are secreted into the extracellular fluid from endocrine glands or tissues.

a. neurotransmitters
b. neuropeptides
c. modulators
d. hormones
e. pheromones

Answer 206

d. hormones

Question 207

In the opening vignette, Ryan B. undergoes neurosurgery to remove a portion of his _______ in order to treat his worsening epilepsy.

a. cerebellum
b. limbic system
c. medial temporal lobe
d. amygdala
e. parietal lobe

Answer 207

c. medial temporal lobe

Question 208

Early anatomists named observable brain features

a. for the similarity of the structure to everyday objects.
b. using a formal naming system.
c. in honor of their parents.
d. in honor of the early gods.
e. using Greek numerals.

Answer 208

a. for the similarity of the structure to everyday objects.

Question 209

The term “neuraxis” refers to

a. the cross-sectional diameter of the spinal cord.
b. a plane that divides the two hemispheres into right and left halves.
c. an imaginary line drawn through the spinal cord up to the front of the brain.
d. a plane that divides the brain into top and bottom halves.
e. the frontal portions of the brain.

Answer 209

c. an imaginary line drawn through the spinal cord up to the front of the brain.

Question 210

The term “rostral” means

a. toward the tail.
b. superior.
c. toward the beak or snout.
d. away from the midline.
e. toward the midline.

Answer 210

c. toward the beak or snout.

Question 211

The nose is ___________ whereas the back of the head is __________.

a. rostral; caudal
b. caudal; rostral
c. dorsal; ventral
d. ventral; dorsal
e. medial; lateral

Answer 211

a. rostral; caudal

Question 212

The parietal lobe would be considered ____________ to the temporal lobe.

a. ventral
b. dorsal
c. anterior
d. lateral
e. posterior

Answer 212

b. dorsal

Question 213

The term _______ refers to structures that are found on the same side of the body.

a. contralateral
b. contramedial
c. ipsilateral
d. bilateral
e. parasagittal

Answer 213

c. ipsilateral

Question 214

Which of the following terms means “above” when referring to the human brain?

a. superior
b. lateral
c. medial
d. contralateral
e. inferior

Answer 214

a. superior

Question 215

The right half of the brain controls the left half of the body. In order words, motor control is

a. contralateral.
b. transverse.
c. ipsilateral.
d. bilateral.
e. parasagittal.

Answer 215

a. contralateral.

Question 216

A brain region that is anterior and dorsal to the thalamus could also be described as _______ and _______ to the thalamus.

a. caudal; inferior
b. lateral; medial
c. ipsilateral; contralateral
d. rostral; superior
e. caudal; superior

Answer 216

d. rostral; superior

Question 217

Assume that electrical stimulation of the right motor cortex elicits limb movements on the left side of the body. In this instance, we would describe this as a(n) ___________ organization of motor cortex and the muscles of the body.

a. contralateral
b. contramedial
c. ipsilateral
d. bilateral
e. contrasagittal

Answer 217

a. contralateral

Question 218

Cross sections that resemble those of a slice of bread and are perpendicular to the neuraxis are produced by a _______ section of the human brain.

a. transverse
b. horizontal
c. sagittal
d. midsagittal
e. parasagittal

Answer 218

a. transverse

Question 219

In which view of the brain would one be able to note the presence of a specific structure in both hemispheres?

a. cross-medial
b. frontal
c. sagittal
d. parasagittal
e. ipsilateral

Answer 219

b. frontal

Question 220

A _______ section is made through the human brain and is parallel to the ground, and a _______ section through the spinal cord is parallel to the ground.

a. transverse; horizontal
b. horizontal; transverse
c. sagittal; midsagittal
d. frontal; coronal
e. parasagittal; midsagittal

Answer 220

b. horizontal; transverse

Question 221

A neuroscientist cuts a brain in half, along the division between the hemispheres. This cut is referred to as a _____________ cut.

a. parasagittal
b. horizontal
c. midsagittal
d. frontal
e. transverse

Answer 221

c. midsagittal

Question 222

The order of the meningeal layers from the surface of the brain outward are

a. dura, pia, arachnoid.
b. arachnoid, dura, pia.
c. pia, dura, arachnoid.
d. pia, arachnoid, dura.
e. dura, arachnoid, pia.

Answer 222

d. pia, arachnoid, dura.

Question 223

The ___________ layer(s) is/are missing from the meninges in the peripheral nervous system.

a. pia
b. dura
c. arachnoid
d. pia and arachnoid
e. dura and arachnoid

Answer 223

c. arachnoid

Question 224

The ___________ layer of the meninges is the most durable.

a. dura mater
b. pia mater
c. dorsa mater
d. subarachnoid membrane
e. midsagittal sinus

Answer 224

a. dura mater

Question 225

The _______ is a tough protective sheath that covers the brain and that lies closest to the skull.

a. dura mater
b. pia mater
c. dorsa mater
d. subarachnoid membrane
e. midsagittal sinus

Answer 225

a. dura mater

Question 226

The _______ is the middle layer of the brain meninges.

a. dura mater
b. pia mater
c. dorsa mater
d. arachnoid membrane
e. midsagittal sinus

Answer 226

d. arachnoid membrane

Question 227

In the peripheral nervous system, the _______ and the _______ fuse together to form a single sheath that protects the spinal and cranial nerves and the autonomic ganglia.

a. dura mater; pia mater
b. arachnoid layer; dura mater
c. astrocytes; choroid plexus mater
d. arachnoid membrane; pia mater
e. glia; astrocytes

Answer 227

a. dura mater; pia mater

Question 228

The brain floats within _______ fluid, which is contained within the _______.

a. intracellular; pia mater
b. cerebrospinal; subarachnoid space
c. cerebrospinal; blood vessels
d. interstitial; subarachnoid space
e. extracellular; dura mater

Answer 228

b. cerebrospinal; subarachnoid space

Question 229

The four hollow and interconnected spaces within the brain form the

a. choroid plexi.
b. supra-arachnoid spaces.
c. ventricles.
d. meninges.
e. spinal aqueducts.

Answer 229

c. ventricles.

Question 230

Which of the following is true of CSF?

a. CSF is produced within the venous sinuses.
b. CSF flows from the lateral ventricles toward the fourth ventricle.
c. CSF is produced in the fourth ventricle and flows toward the fifth ventricle.
d. CSF is a by-product of nerve cell activity.
e. CSF production is sped up during a seizure.

Answer 230

b. CSF flows from the lateral ventricles toward the fourth ventricle.

Question 231

Brain CSF is secreted by the

a. choroid plexus.
b. subarachnoid villi.
c. neurons of the hypothalamus.
d. meninges.
e. spinal aqueducts.

Answer 231

a. choroid plexus.

Question 232

CSF flows from third ventricle to the fourth ventricle via the

a. choroid plexi.
b. subarachnoid spaces.
c. massa intermedia.
d. arachnoid granulations.
e. cerebral aqueduct.

Answer 232

e. cerebral aqueduct.

Question 233

CSF is reabsorbed into the blood supply via the

a. arachnoid granulations.
b. choroid plexus.
c. foramen of Magendie.
d. nodes of Ranvier.
e. dura mater.

Answer 233

a. arachnoid granulations.

Question 234

Which of the following is correct regarding CSF?

a. CSF is produced by the arachnoid granulations.
b. The total brain volume of CSF is about 1250 ml.
c. CSF carries nutrients to neurons.
d. More than 12 hours are required to replace half of the CSF volume in a human brain.
e. Drainage of CSF would result in compression of brain tissue onto the ventral skull surface.

Answer 234

e. Drainage of CSF would result in compression of brain tissue onto the ventral skull surface.

Question 235

CSF is produced within the ____________ and reabsorbed into the blood by the _______.

a. subarachnoid villi; choroid plexus
b. blood-brain barrier; choroid plexus
c. gut; ventricles
d. ventricles; arachnoid granulations
e. arachnoid granulations; lateral ventricles

Answer 235

d. ventricles; arachnoid granulations

Question 236

Interruption of the flow of CSF through the brain ventricles results in

a. anencephalus.
b. ischemic stroke.
c. Parkinson’s disease.
d. myasthenia gravis.
e. hydrocephalus.

Answer 236

e. hydrocephalus.

Question 237

Hydrocephalus is treated by

a. stimulant drugs.
b. anti-serotonin drugs.
c. blocking the flow of CSF through the ventricles.
d. removing the choroid plexus.
e. draining CSF from the ventricles using a shunt.

Answer 237

e. draining CSF from the ventricles using a shunt.

Question 238

The rostral end of the neural tube at 28 days will eventually form 3 interconnected channels known as the

a. telencephalon.
b. cerebral cortex.
c. mesencephalon.
d. myelencephalon.
e. ventricles.

Answer 238

e. ventricles.

Question 239

Which of the terms below means “endbrain”?

a. telencephalon
b. diencephalon
c. mesencephalon
d. myelencephalon
e. metencephalon

Answer 239

a. telencephalon

Question 240

The beginnings of the nervous system develop _____ days after conception.

a. 7
b. 10
c. 18
d. 21
e. 28

Answer 240

c. 18

Question 241

On the 28th day of embryonic development, the human brain resembles a

a. hollow tube.
b. shallow plate.
c. series of ridges.
d. series of increasingly larger rectangles.
e. round balloon.

Answer 241

a. hollow tube.

Question 242

The center of the neural tube becomes ___________, whereas the outside tissue becomes ___________.

a. the ventricles; the brain tissue
b. the brain tissue; the ventricles
c. the forebrain; the hindbrain
d. the hindbrain; the forebrain
e. the ventricles; the forebrain

Answer 242

a. the ventricles; the brain tissue

Question 243

Which of the following is true of embryonic neuron formation?

a. New neurons are formed near the pia mater.
b. A progenitor cell forms four founder cells during symmetrical division.
c. A progenitor cell forms a neuron and another founder cell during asymmetrical division.
d. Progenitor cells produce new glial cells.
e. The cerebral cortex develops from the outside in.

Answer 243

c. A progenitor cell forms a neuron and another founder cell during asymmetrical division.

Question 244

The _______ is the origin of the cells that form the central nervous system.

a. basal plate
b. ventricular zone
c. cerebral cortex
d. mesoderm
e. arachnoid layer

Answer 244

b. ventricular zone

Question 245

______________ allow(s) newly formed neurons to migrate from the ventricular zone to their final resting place.

a. Dura mater cells
b. Progenitor cells
c. Radial glia
d. Astrocytes
e. Stem cells

Answer 245

c. Radial glia

Question 246

A key function of apoptosis is to

a. form new neurons.
b. guide new neurons to their final position in the brain.
c. spur the growth of dendritic branches.
d. terminate the formation of new neurons within the developing brain.
e. mold an adult nerve cell.

Answer 246

d. terminate the formation of new neurons within the developing brain.

Question 247

If the axon of a newly developed neuron is unable to find a vacant postsynaptic cell, it will experience

a. apoptosis.
b. a life-sustaining signal.
c. synaptic contacts with radial glial cells.
d. an opportunity to reroute.
e. cell division.

Answer 247

a. apoptosis.

Question 248

Radial glial cells involved in new neuron formation eventually are transformed into

a. progenitor cells.
b. oligodendroglia.
c. microglial cells.
d. visual sensory neurons.
e. astrocytes.

Answer 248

e. astrocytes.

Question 249

Which of the following supports the notion that brain development can be modified by experiences?

a. The motor cortex of a blind person is enlarged relative to that of a sighted person.
b. The somatosensory cortex in the cortical regions devoted to control of the fingers is smaller in expert guitar players relative to novice players.
c. The visual cortex is larger in blind persons.
d. Apoptosis trims the number of dendritic branches in the brain.
e. The development of the neural circuits for depth perception requires input from both eyes during a critical period.

Answer 249

e. The development of the neural circuits for depth perception requires input from both eyes during a critical period.

Question 250

Human brains are about three times larger than chimpanzee brains when corrected for

a. birth order.
b. age.
c. body size.
d. number of nerve cells.
e. gender.

Answer 250

c. body size.

Question 251

During symmetrical division, _______________ are produced.

a. two new progenitor cells
b. a progenitor cells and a brain cell
c. three new progenitor cells
d. two progenitor cells and a brain cell
e. two progenitor cells and two brain cells

Answer 251

a. two new progenitor cells

Question 252

Which of the following is true of the evolution of the human brain?

a. The human brain is smaller than that of any other primate.
b. Comparisons of brain size within the primate family require an adjustment for body size.
c. The size of primate brains has shrunk over the course of evolutionary history.
d. Primate brain size increases depended on the elimination of duplicate master genes.
e. Inactivation of the ghrelin gene likely makes chimpanzee brains larger than human brains.

Answer 252

b. Comparisons of brain size within the primate family require an adjustment for body size.

Question 253

Which type of brain development occurs into adulthood?

a. myelination
b. synapse formation
c. neural tube development
d. neural migration
e. neural proliferation

Answer 253

a. myelination

Question 254

If a cat is raised in an environment consisting of vertical lines, its brain will develop unable to process horizontal lines. This development shows the role of

a. genetics.
b. individuation.
c. experience.
d. mutagenesis.
e. neurogenesis.

Answer 254

c. experience.

Question 255

The process of _______ refers to the production of new neurons.

a. apoptosis
b. neurogenesis
c. mitogenesis
d. mutagenesis
e. killer gene activation

Answer 255

b. neurogenesis

Question 256

Neurogenesis in the adult hippocampus is stimulated by

a. the experience of behavioral depression.
b. a learning experience.
c. the experience of prolonged stress.
d. the ingestion of drugs that induce stress.
e. the blockade of glutamate receptors.

Answer 256

b. a learning experience.

Question 257

Research has shown that neurogenesis

a. occurs only in the adult brain.
b. occurs only in the prenatal brain.
c. occurs in the hippocampus of the adult brain.
d. occurs in the hippocampus and olfactory bulb of the adult brain.
e. never occurs.

Answer 257

d. occurs in the hippocampus and olfactory bulb of the adult brain.

Question 258

A _______ is a large groove found in the surface of the human cortex.

a. fissure
b. gyrus
c. cerebral aqueduct
d. ventricle
e. sulcus

Answer 258

a. fissure

Question 259

A _______ refers to a bulge of tissue located between the adjacent grooves in the surface of the human cortex.

a. fissure
b. gyrus
c. foramen
d. ventricle
e. sulcus

Answer 259

b. gyrus

Question 260

A _______ refers to a small groove on the surface of the human cortex.

a. fissure
b. gyrus
c. foramen
d. ventricle
e. sulcus

Answer 260

e. sulcus

Question 261

The cerebral cortex has a grayish-tan appearance because

a. the cortex contains many axons.
b. of the large amount of myelin contained in the cortex.
c. nerve membrane is uniformly gray in appearance.
d. many Schwann cells are located in the cortex.
e. the cortex contains many cell bodies.

Answer 261

e. the cortex contains many cell bodies.

Question 262

The surface of human cortex

a. is smooth in a human brain.
b. is convoluted by grooves and bulges.
c. contains cell bodies that give rise to a whitish appearance.
d. is about 250 square feet in area.
e. is about 30 mm in thickness.

Answer 262

b. is convoluted by grooves and bulges.

Question 263

Which of the following is a subcortical structure?

a. spinal cord
b. lateral fissure
c. limbic system
d. dura mater
e. parietal cortex

Answer 263

c. limbic system

Question 264

Which of the following do NOT belong together?

a. occipital lobe; visual function
b. frontal lobe; motor function
c. frontal lobe; auditory function
d. insular cortex; taste function
e. temporal lobe; auditory function

Answer 264

c. frontal lobe; auditory function

Question 265

The _______ lobe of the cortex contains primary auditory cortex.

a. occipital
b. frontal
c. temporal
d. insular
e. parietal

Answer 265

c. temporal

Question 266

Which of the following would be expected following damage to the cortex that lies just in front of the central sulcus?

a. intense hypersexuality
b. visual hallucinations
c. inability to discriminate tones as low intensities
d. difficulty in reading and writing
e. difficulty in controlling the muscles of the body

Answer 266

e. difficulty in controlling the muscles of the body

Question 267

The thalamus and hypothalamus belong to the

a. telencephalon.
b. diencephalon.
c. metencephalon.
d. mesencephalon.
e. myelencephalon.

Answer 267

b. diencephalon.

Question 268

Regions of the cortex that are NOT primarily concerned with sensation or movement are termed the _______ cortex.

a. projection
b. association
c. nonspecific
d. homuncular
e. undifferentiated

Answer 268

b. association

Question 269

In which sensory system does sensory information from the left side of the body travel to the left hemisphere?

a. vision
b. audition
c. pain
d. olfaction
e. somatosensation

Answer 269

d. olfaction

Question 270

The _______ region of cortex lies buried within a fissure between the _______ and the _______ lobes.

a. calcarine; temporal; frontal
b. insular; parietal; frontal
c. calcarine; insular; occipital
d. insular; frontal; temporal
e. parietal; frontal; calcarine

Answer 270

d. insular; frontal; temporal

Question 271

Which of the following would be expected as a result of damage to the somatosensory association cortex?

a. an inability to recognize a familiar odor
b. difficulty in playing a tune on a guitar
c. difficulty in naming an object the person can touch (but not see)
d. problems in naming a song the person knew before sustaining brain damage
e. problems in recognizing an object by sight

Answer 271

c. difficulty in naming an object the person can touch (but not see)

Question 272

Damage to the visual association cortex would be expected to produce

a. problems in recognizing an object by sight.
b. difficulty in playing a tune on a piano.
c. difficulty in naming an object the person can touch (but not see).
d. problems in naming a song the person knew before sustaining brain damage.
e. an inability to recognize a familiar odor.

Answer 272

a. problems in recognizing an object by sight.

Question 273

The most likely consequence of damage positioned at the junction of the visual, auditory, and somatosensory association cortexes would be

a. problems in recognizing an object by sight.
b. an inability to recognize a familiar odor.
c. difficulty in naming an object the person can touch (but not see).
d. problems in reading or writing.
e. difficulty in playing a tune on a piano.

Answer 273

d. problems in reading or writing.

Question 274

“Autotopagnosia” involves _______ and is produced by damage to the _______.

a. problems in naming one’s own body parts; left parietal lobe
b. a problem in remembering the names of body parts; right frontal lobe
c. an inability to pronounce the names of major body parts; right occipital lobe
d. a problem in speech perception; right parietal lobe
e. problems in naming one’s own body parts; right parietal lobe

Answer 274

a. problems in naming one’s own body parts; left parietal lobe

Question 275

Damage to left parietal lobe would be expected to produce a persistent difficulty in

a. controlling the left arm and leg.
b. producing speech.
c. repeating words.
d. understanding speech.
e. knowing the position of the person’s body parts.

Answer 275

e. knowing the position of the person’s body parts.

Question 276

The planning and execution of movements is a function performed by the association cortex within the _______ cortical lobe.

a. occipital
b. frontal
c. parietal
d. insular
e. temporal

Answer 276

b. frontal

Question 277

The motor association cortex is located

a. just caudal to visual association cortex.
b. just rostral to primary motor cortex.
c. just below the auditory association cortex.
d. within a fissure between the two hemispheres.
e. caudal to primary somatosensory cortex.

Answer 277

b. just rostral to primary motor cortex.

Question 278

Which of the following is true regarding the functions performed by the left and right hemispheres?

a. The left hemisphere is adept at the analysis of information.
b. The right hemisphere is adept at the serial analysis of information.
c. The right hemisphere is adept at the analysis of information.
d. The left hemisphere is adept in the synthesis of information.
e. The two hemispheres perform identical functions.

Answer 278

a. The left hemisphere is adept at the analysis of information.

Question 279

The association regions of the left and right hemispheres are interconnected via axons that travel within the

a. stria terminalis.
b. cingulate projections.
c. corpus callosum.
d. medial commissure.
e. fornix.

Answer 279

c. corpus callosum.

Question 280

Which of the following most accurately describes the general functions performed by the left and right hemispheres?

a. The left hemisphere is adept at the synthesis of information.
b. The right hemisphere is adept at the serial analysis of information.
c. The right hemisphere is adept at the analysis of information.
d. The right hemisphere is adept at the synthesis of information.
e. The two hemispheres perform identical functions.

Answer 280

d. The right hemisphere is adept at the synthesis of information.

Question 281

The limbic system is comprised of

a. the hippocampus, amygdala, fornix, and mammillary bodies.
b. the hypothalamus, thalamus, fornix, and mammillary bodies.
c. the hippocampus, thalamus, fornix, and mammillary bodies.
d. the cerebral cortex, thalamus, fornix, and mammillary bodies.
e. the hippocampus and fornix.

Answer 281

a. the hippocampus, amygdala, fornix, and mammillary bodies.

Question 282

Damage to the amygdala would be expected to alter

a. emotion.
b. language acquisition.
c. long-term memory.
d. planning of motor behavior.
e. hearing of loud sounds.

Answer 282

a. emotion.

Question 283

Which of the following terms and shapes are NOT a correct match?

a. limbic cortex; border
b. fornix; “breast-shaped”
c. “sea horse”; hippocampus
d. amygdala; “almond”
e. thalamus; “inner chamber”

Answer 283

b. fornix; “breast-shaped”

Question 284

The telencephalon is ____________ to the diencephalon.

a. caudal
b. dorsal
c. posterior
d. inferior
e. rostral

Answer 284

b. dorsal

Question 285

Damage to the basal ganglia would be expected to produce difficulties in

a. recognizing emotion in the facial expressions of other people.
b. naming the parts of one’s own body.
c. understanding social rules.
d. motor movements.
e. forming emotional memories.

Answer 285

d. motor movements.

Question 286

The _______ is the key structure of the basal ganglia.

a. hippocampus
b. cerebellum
c. caudate nucleus
d. amygdala
e. hypothalamus

Answer 286

c. caudate nucleus

Question 287

Which of the following represents the correct pairing of a thalamic nucleus with its projection to the cortex?

a. medial geniculate nucleus; projects to primary visual cortex
b. ventrolateral nucleus; projects to primary visual cortex
c. lateral geniculate nucleus; projects to primary visual cortex
d. ventrolateral nucleus; projects to primary somatosensory cortex
e. lateral geniculate nucleus; projects to primary motor cortex

Answer 287

c. lateral geniculate nucleus; projects to primary visual cortex

Question 288

_______ is controlled, at least in part, by the hypothalamus.

a. Pain reactivity
b. Drug addiction
c. Feeding
d. Memory
e. Language

Answer 288

c. Feeding

Question 289

Damage to the hypothalamus would be expected to produce

a. difficulty in the planning of motor movements.
b. changes in eating.
c. difficulties in understanding speech.
d. Parkinson-like motor symptoms.
e. problems in the recognition of emotion.

Answer 289

b. changes in eating.

Question 290

Which of the following belong together?

a. vasopressin; induction of uterine contractions during childbirth
b. oxytocin; regulation of urine output
c. vasopressin; release of ACTH from the posterior pituitary
d. oxytocin; stimulation of milk ejection from the breast
e. vasopressin; overeating

Answer 290

d. oxytocin; stimulation of milk ejection from the breast

Question 291

The _______ is considered to be the body’s “master gland.”

a. pineal gland
b. amygdala
c. posterior hypothalamus
d. anterior pituitary
e. hippocampus

Answer 291

d. anterior pituitary

Question 292

The division of the brain that surrounds the cerebral aqueduct is the

a. mesencephalon.
b. telencephalon.
c. myelencephalon.
d. diencephalon.
e. metencephalon.

Answer 292

a. mesencephalon.

Question 293

Which of the following terms belong together?

a. substantia nigra; sensory processing
b. hypothalamus; sleep and arousal
c. periaqueductal gray matter; pain reactivity
d. red nucleus; Parkinson’s disease
e. reticular formation; language

Answer 293

c. periaqueductal gray matter; pain reactivity

Question 294

Damage to the substantia nigra would be expected to produce

a. difficulty in color perception.
b. changes in appetite leading to anorexia.
c. difficulties in visual tasks.
d. Parkinson-like motor symptoms.
e. problems in speech perception.

Answer 294

d. Parkinson-like motor symptoms.

Question 295

After a motor vehicle accident, Alex has difficulty walking. He feels unbalanced and his movements are poorly coordinated. He likely sustained damage to

a. the pons.
b. the hypothalamus.
c. the reticular formation.
d. the medulla oblongata.
e. the cerebellum.

Answer 295

e. the cerebellum.

Question 296

The metencephalon is comprised of the

a. thalamus and hypothalamus.
b. tectum and tegmentum.
c. superior colliculus and inferior colliculus.
d. dorsal horn and ventral horn.
e. pons and cerebellum.

Answer 296

e. pons and cerebellum.

Question 297

The pons is located

a. immediately ventral to the cerebellum.
b. beneath the hypothalamus.
c. caudal to the medulla.
d. rostral to the frontal cortex.
e. rostral to the hypothalamus.

Answer 297

a. immediately ventral to the cerebellum.

Question 298

The _______ is the most caudal portion of the brain stem.

a. spinal cord
b. pons
c. cerebellum
d. medulla oblongata
e. metencephalon

Answer 298

d. medulla oblongata

Question 299

Cessation of respiration would be expected following damage to the

a. superior colliculi.
b. cerebellum.
c. reticular formation.
d. medulla oblongata.
e. caudate nucleus.

Answer 299

d. medulla oblongata.

Question 300

The spinal cord’s primary function is to

a. collect somatosensory information.
b. collect motor information.
c. collect visual information.
d. process somatosensory information.
e. process visual information.

Answer 300

a. collect somatosensory information.

Question 301

An anesthetic drug injected adjacent to the dura sac surrounding axons of the cauda equina would be expected to deaden pain sensation in the

a. tongue.
b. fingers.
c. pelvic region.
d. forehead.
e. neck and upper chest.

Answer 301

c. pelvic region.

Question 302

The white matter in the spinal cord is located _______, whereas that of the brain is located _______.

a. outside the dura mater; inside the dura mater
b. outside the gray matter; inside the gray matter
c. ventrally; dorsally
d. inside the gray matter; outside the gray matter
e. medially; laterally

Answer 302

b. outside the gray matter; inside the gray matter

Question 303

The _______ system is the only sensory system for which the cell bodies of the incoming axons are located inside the CNS.

a. visual
b. auditory
c. pain
d. kinesthestic
e. taste

Answer 303

a. visual

Question 304

Which of the following is true of the spinal nerves?

a. The cell bodies of efferent axons lie in the spinal cord gray matter.
b. Incoming sensory signals arrive via the ventral roots of the spinal cord.
c. Outgoing motor signals travel via the dorsal roots of the spinal cord.
d. The cell bodies of efferent axons lie in the spinal cord white matter.
e. The cell bodies of outgoing motor neurons reside in the dorsal root ganglia.

Answer 304

a. The cell bodies of efferent axons lie in the spinal cord gray matter.

Question 305

_______ axons conduct sensory information toward the brain.

a. Afferent
b. Efferent
c. Projection
d. Somatic
e. Callosal

Answer 305

a. Afferent

Question 306

_______ axons “bear away from” the brain.

a. Afferent
b. Efferent
c. Projection
d. Somatic
e. Dorsal root

Answer 306

b. Efferent

Question 307

The _______ nerve is named for its wandering course in the thoracic and abdominal body cavities.

a. trigeminal
b. facial
c. trochlear
d. vagus
e. hypoglossal

Answer 307

d. vagus

Question 308

Taking notes in class is regulated by the _____________ nervous system.

a. autonomic
b. sympathetic
c. parasympathetic
d. somatic
e. enteric

Answer 308

d. somatic

Question 309

A key function of the autonomic nervous system includes the control of

a. the striatal muscle.
b. the pituitary gland.
c. the primary visual cortex.
d. “vegetative” processes.
e. emotion and motor planning.

Answer 309

d. “vegetative” processes.

Question 310

Salivation, secretion of digestive juices, and blood flow to the gastrointestinal tract are governed by the ___________ nervous system.

a. autonomic
b. sympathetic
c. parasympathetic
d. somatic
e. enteric

Answer 310

c. parasympathetic

Question 311

The motor neurons of the sympathetic nervous system project from the _______ to the _______.

a. gray matter of the sacral spinal cord; sympathetic ganglia
b. gray matter of the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord; sympathetic ganglia
c. gray matter of the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord; final target organ
d. 10th cranial nerve; muscles of the face
e. cervical regions of the spinal cord; final target organs

Answer 311

b. gray matter of the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord; sympathetic ganglia

Question 312

The transmitter _______ is secreted by the terminal buttons of preganglionic sympathetic fibers, whereas most postganglionic sympathetic fibers secrete _______.

a. norepinephrine; acetylcholine
b. glutamate; acetylcholine
c. serotonin; norepinephrine
d. acetylcholine; acetylcholine
e. acetylcholine; norepinephrine

Answer 312

e. acetylcholine; norepinephrine

Question 313

The key function(s) of the parasympathetic division of the ANS relate to

a. the control of the somatic nervous system.
b. the inhibition of digestive function during a fight.
c. activities that increase stored energy within the body.
d. the acceleration of heart rate and increased blood flow to the muscles.
e. the inhibition of sweating and salivation.

Answer 313

c. activities that increase stored energy within the body.

Question 314

________ refers to the study of the effects of drugs on the nervous system and behavior.

a. Pseudopharmacology
b. Neuropharmacology
c. Psychoimmunology
d. Neurochemistry
e. Psychopharmacology

Answer 314

e. Psychopharmacology

Question 315

Where a drug acts in the cell would be a

a. site of action.
b. drug effect.
c. exogenous substance.
d. endogenous substance.
e. drug.

Answer 315

a. site of action.

Question 316

The __________ of codeine, morphine, and other opiates include decreased sensitivity to pain, slowing of the digestive system, sedation, muscular relaxation, constriction of the pupils, and at high doses, euphoria.

a. sites of action
b. drug effects
c. exogenous substances
d. endogenous substances
e. drugs

Answer 316

a. sites of action

Question 317

________ refers to the process by which drugs are absorbed, distributed within the body, metabolized, and then excreted from the body.

a. Pharmacotherapy
b. Pharmacokinetics
c. Drug metabolism
d. Pharmacodynamics
e. Neurobotany

Answer 317

b. Pharmacokinetics

Question 318

Dr. Jackson is doing research in which she examines whether a drug effect is different depending on whether the drug is given orally or rectally. We might say that she is doing a study involving

a. neurotherapy.
b. neurochemistry.
c. behavioral neuroscience.
d. pharmacokinetics.
e. neuropharmacology.

Answer 318

d. pharmacokinetics.

Question 319

Kathy receives a Depo Provera shot in her buttocks every 3 months to prevent pregnancy. This injection would be

a. oral.
b. topical.
c. intravenous.
d. intramuscular.
e. intraperitoneal.

Answer 319

d. intramuscular.

Question 320

An important drawback to the ________ route is the high likelihood of accidental overdose.

a. oral
b. topical
c. intravenous
d. intramuscular
e. intraperitoneal

Answer 320

c. intravenous

Question 321

The ________ route of drug administration is commonly used for small laboratory animals such as the rat.

a. intraperitoneal
b. oral
c. intravascular
d. topical
e. intranasal

Answer 321

a. intraperitoneal

Question 322

The ________ route of drug administration is most commonly used for humans.

a. intraperitoneal
b. oral
c. intravascular
d. topical
e. intranasal

Answer 322

b. oral

Question 323

James snorts a small amount of cocaine into his nose using a rolled up dollar bill. The formal term for this route of cocaine administration would be

a. inhalation.
b. insufflation.
c. intravenous.
d. intrarectal.
e. sublingual.

Answer 323

b. insufflation.

Question 324

The blood-brain barrier is a barrier against

a. cocaine.
b. heroin.
c. L-DOPA.
d. glucose.
e. alcohol.

Answer 324

d. glucose.

Question 325

Neil has accidentally ingested a toxic chemical, which has made him unconscious and will soon kill him. Which route of administration would emergency physicians most likely use to administer an antidote for the toxin?

a. intravenous
b. oral
c. topical
d. rectal
e. nasal

Answer 325

a. intravenous

Question 326

The ________ route of drug administration has the advantage of bypassing the blood-brain barrier.

a. intraperitoneal
b. oral
c. intravascular
d. topical
e. intracerebroventricular

Answer 326

e. intracerebroventricular

Question 327

The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ route is the fastest way for a drug to reach the brain.
oral 
  topical 
  intravenous 
  intramuscular 
  intraperitoneal

Answer 327

intravenous

Question 328

An increase in ________ for a drug would cause that drug to more rapidly reach the brain.

a. metabolism of the drug via the liver
b. lipid solubility
c. water solubility
d. depot binding of the drug in blood, bone and fat
e. kidney excretion

Answer 328

b. lipid solubility

Question 329

The primary route of excretion of drugs from the body is via the

a. liver.
b. lung.
c. mucosa.
d. kidneys.
e. skin.

Answer 329

d. kidneys.

Question 330

The primary organ that metabolizes drugs is the

a. liver.
b. lungs.
c. mucosa.
d. kidneys.
e. skin.

Answer 330

a. liver.

Question 331

Which of the following is true of drug effects?

a. Drugs vary widely in their effectiveness.
b. Drugs continue to show increases of effect even with super-large doses.
c. Heavier animals usually require lower drug doses than do lighter animals.
d. A drug has only one effect.
e. For a given animal weight, twice as much drug always has twice the effect.

Answer 331

a. Drugs vary widely in their effectiveness.

Question 332

If the therapeutic index of Drug X is low, physicians

a. should take more care in prescribing it due to an increased chance of risks.
b. can take less care in prescribing it due to a decreased chance of risks.
c. should not prescribe it because it is too dangerous.
d. should not prescribe it because it is not effective.
e. should prescribe it because it is the most effective drug of its type.

Answer 332

a. should take more care in prescribing it due to an increased chance of risks.

Question 333

Dose response curves

a. indicate whether a physician should prescribe the drug.
b. indicate the therapeutic index of the drug.
c. demonstrate the effect of a particular dose until the maximum effect is reached.
d. show the level of withdrawal an individual may experience when stopping a drug.
e. show the level of tolerance an individual may experience when taking a drug.

Answer 333

c. demonstrate the effect of a particular dose until the maximum effect is reached.

Question 334

Differences in effectiveness between two drugs that share the same site of action would be expected to result from their different

a. adverse effects.
b. sensitization profiles.
c. dynamic capacities.
d. affinities for the site of action.
e. binding capacities within blood.

Answer 334

d. affinities for the site of action.

Question 335

Which of the following drugs has the largest therapeutic index?

a. heroin
b. Valium
c. alcohol
d. barbiturates
e. a mixture of barbiturates and alcohol

Answer 335

b. Valium

Question 336

Which of the following is true of the therapeutic index?

a. The index is a ratio between LD75 and ED75 values.
b. More caution is required for a drug with a low therapeutic index.
c. More caution is required for a drug with a high therapeutic index.
d. Less caution is required for a drug with a low therapeutic index.
e. The index is a ratio between the LD25 and LD75 values.

Answer 336

b. More caution is required for a drug with a low therapeutic index.

Question 337

With repeated drug administration, the body begins to compensate for drug use by causing symptoms opposite of what the drug causes. This phenomenon is called

a. withdrawal.
b. sensitization.
c. inactivation.
d. tolerance.
e. binding capacity.

Answer 337

a. withdrawal.

Question 338

________ refers to an increased behavioral effect of a drug noted with repeated administration.

a. Dynamic capacity
b. Sensitization
c. Inactivation
d. Tolerance
e. Binding capacity

Answer 338

b. Sensitization

Question 339

After two years, Sam needs to smoke more cigarettes to achieve the same feelings as he had when he first started smoking. This need to increase dosage is due to

a. dynamic capacity.
b. sensitization.
c. inactivation.
d. tolerance.
e. binding capacity.

Answer 339

d. tolerance.

Question 340

One mechanism for the tolerance produced by repeated drug administration is a(n)

a. decreased metabolism of the drug.
b. increased plasma level of the drug.
c. increased number of receptors in the brain.
d. a reduced number of receptors for the drug.
e. increased number of ion channel openings in response to receptor activation.

Answer 340

d. reduced number of receptors for the drug.

Question 341

Which of the following is true of drug sensitization?

a. Drug sensitization involves a progressive decrease in behavioral actions of a drug over time.
b. Drug sensitization is more common than is drug tolerance.
c. Drug sensitization is less common than is drug tolerance.
d. Drug sensitization involves a decrease in the number of drug receptors.
e. Most drugs exhibit some form of sensitization.

Answer 341

c. Drug sensitization is less common than is drug tolerance.

Question 342

An example of a withdrawal symptom for a heroin addict would be

a. eating.
b. constipation.
c. euphoria.
d. dysphoria.
e. craving for alcohol.

Answer 342

d. dysphoria.

Question 343

A researcher asks individuals to participate in an experiment that causes arm muscle strain. The participants are instructed to use a provided muscle rub after the activity. One group gets a rub with active ingredients to reduce pain, whereas the other group gets a ____________ without active ingredients.

a. placebo
b. pseudotransmitter
c. drug
d. agonist
e. ligand

Answer 343

a. placebo

Question 344

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are

a. protagonists.
b. ligands.
c. synergists.
d. antagonists.
e. agonists.

Answer 344

e. agonists.

Question 345

An antagonistic effect on neurotransmitter synthesis includes

a. blocking a precursor.
b. promoting a precursor.
c. blocking NT release.
d. promoting NT release.
e. blocking the autoreceptor.

Answer 345

a. blocking a precursor.

Question 346

Administering a molecule that is a precursor for the synthesis of a synaptic neurotransmitter would be expected to

a. reduce the availability of that neurotransmitter.
b. increase the rate of synthesis and release of that neurotransmitter.
c. alter the number of postsynaptic receptors.
d. act as an antagonist at autoreceptors.
e. dampen the activity of the synapse.

Answer 346

b. increase the rate of synthesis and release of that neurotransmitter.

Question 347

We would classify a drug as a(n) ________ if that drug acted to block the capacity of vesicles to be filled with neurotransmitter molecules.

a. agonist
b. facilitator
c. antagonist
d. autoreceptor agonist
e. indirect agonist

Answer 347

c. antagonist

Question 348

A drug that binds with a postsynaptic receptor, but does not open ion channels, would be termed a(n)

a. direct agonist.
b. ligand.
c. direct synergist.
d. direct antagonist.
e. indirect antagonist

Answer 348

d. direct antagonist.

Question 349

A drug that binds at a postsynaptic site different from that of the neurotransmitter and facilitates the opening of ion channels would be termed a(n)

a. indirect antagonist.
b. ligand.
c. direct synergist.
d. indirect agonist.
e. inducer.

Answer 349

d. indirect agonist.

Question 350

PCP binds to an alternate binding site for the NMDA glutamate receptor, causing less neurotransmitter action. This binding action makes PCP a(n)

a. indirect antagonist.
b. ligand.
c. direct synergist.
d. direct antagonist.
e. neurohormone.

Answer 350

a. indirect antagonist.

Question 351

A drug that activates a presynaptic autoreceptor will usually

a. reduce the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal.
b. alter the uptake of the neurotransmitter into the axon terminal.
c. block the opening of ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane.
d. increase the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal.
e. be expected to act as an agonist for this synapse.

Answer 351

a. reduce the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal.

Question 352

Activation of dendritic autoreceptors produce ________; a drug that is an agonist at these autoreceptors would be classified as an ________ for the synapse.

a. depolarizations; antagonist
b. hyperpolarizations; agonist
c. hyperpolarizations; indirect agonist
d. hyperpolarizations; antagonist
e. action potentials; agonist

Answer 352

d. hyperpolarizations; antagonist

Question 353

A drug that blocks a presynaptic autoreceptor most likely

a. will induce the presynaptic cell to refire.
b. alters the uptake of the neurotransmitter into the axon terminal.
c. blocks the opening of ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane.
d. increases the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal.
e. would be expected to act as an antagonist for this synapse.

Answer 353

d. increases the release of the neurotransmitter from the axon terminal.

Question 354

Activation of a presynaptic autoreceptor on dendrites can produce a hyperpolarization that

a. releases more transmitter.
b. increases synthesis of transmitter.
c. increases reuptake of the transmitter.
d. reduces transmitter release by reducing the axon firing rate.
e. increases the number of receptors at the synapse.

Answer 354

d. reduces transmitter release by reducing the axon firing rate.

Question 355

Inactivation of a transporter in the presynaptic membrane would be expected to

a. increase the levels of the transmitter in the synapse.
b. increase synthesis of the transmitter.
c. increase reuptake of the transmitter.
d. provide negative feedback on synthesis or release of transmitter.
e. increase the transmitter synthesis.

Answer 355

a. increase the levels of the transmitter in the synapse.

Question 356

Termination of the postsynaptic potential would be expected from a drug or process that acts to

a. increase synthesis of the neurotransmitter molecule.
b. enzymatically degrade the neurotransmitter molecule.
c. blocks transport of the neurotransmitter molecule through the axon membrane.
d. increase the number of postsynaptic receptors.
e. increase release of the neurotransmitter.

Answer 356

b. enzymatically degrade the neurotransmitter molecule.

Question 357

The major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain is a(n) ____________ called _______________.

a. amino acid; acetylcholine
b. amino acid; glutamate
c. monamine; serotonin
d. monoamine; dopamine
e. amino acid; dopamine

Answer 357

b. amino acid; glutamate

Question 358

Which of the following is an incorrect match between a neurotransmitter and its effects?

a. glutamate; generally excitatory in the brain
b. acetylcholine; activates the cortex and facilitates learning
c. glycine; generally inhibitory in the brain
d. glutamate; released by all sensory neurons
e. acetylcholine; subject to reuptake by the axon terminals

Answer 358

e. acetylcholine; subject to reuptake by the axon terminals

Question 359

Which pair of transmitters are the primary excitatory and inhibitory (respectively) transmitters in the brain?

a. glutamate; acetylcholine
b. GABA; glycine
c. glycine; acetylcholine
d. glutamate; GABA
e. acetylcholine; dopamine

Answer 359

d. glutamate; GABA

Question 360

Which of the following is a reason that is it is difficult to prove that amino acids can function as neurotransmitters?

a. Amino acids can be released from nerve terminals.
b. Postsynaptic receptor activation by application of amino acids can excite or inhibit neurons.
c. Amino acids are found within glial cells.
d. Amino acids play a role in protein synthesis for all nerve cells.
e. Amino acids are found within few cells of the brain.

Answer 360

d. Amino acids play a role in protein synthesis for all nerve cells.

Question 361

Glutamate, GABA, and glycine are important because these are

a. the major excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS.
b. known to be solely inhibitory in the brain.
c. the predominant neuromodulators in the spinal cord.
d. the most common neurotransmitters in the CNS.
e. involved in Parkinson’s disease.

Answer 361

d. the most common neurotransmitters in the CNS.

Question 362

Which of the following is true of NMDA receptors?

a. Activation of the NMDA receptor allows sodium and calcium ions to flow into the nerve cell.
b. NMDA receptors are metabotropic.
c. NMDA receptors are the most common glutamate receptor.
d. The activity of the NMDA receptor is not dependent on magnesium ions.
e. The NMDA receptor produces IPSPs.

Answer 362

a. Activation of the NMDA receptor allows sodium and calcium ions to flow into the nerve cell.

Question 363

Alcohol withdrawal can lead to seizures because of the effect of alcohol on

a. blocking AMPA receptors.
b. stimulating 5-HT receptors.
c. displacing magnesium ions from the GABA receptors.
d. blocking NMDA receptors.
e. blocking 5-HT receptors.

Answer 363

d. blocking NMDA receptors.

Question 364

The hallucinatory drug PCP (phencyclidine)

a. is an antagonist of the NMDA receptor.
b. facilitates the binding of glutamate to the AMPA receptor.
c. releases serotonin from neurons in the raphe nuclei.
d. inhibits the dendrites of dopamine neurons in the ventral tegmental area.
e. acts via the blockade of serotonin receptors.

Answer 364

a. is an antagonist of the NMDA receptor.

Question 365

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is produced from

a. polyamines.
b. butyric acid.
c. glutamic acid.
d. glycine.
e. lysergic acid.

Answer 365

c. glutamic acid.

Question 366

Which of the following is true of GABA in the brain?

a. GABA is involved in Parkinson’s disease.
b. GABA has a general excitatory effect.
c. An excess of GABA may result in epilepsy.
d. Drugs that antagonize GABA function reduce anxiety.
e. The inhibitory effects of GABA act to stabilize the electrical activity of the brain.

Answer 366

e. The inhibitory effects of GABA act to stabilize the electrical activity of the brain.

Question 367

The GABAA receptor is ________ and controls a ________ channel.

a. ionotropic; chloride
b. ionotropic; potassium
c. metabotropic; chloride
d. metabotropic; potassium
e. ionotropic; sodium

Answer 367

a. ionotropic; chloride

Question 368

Which of the following is a correct match between a drug and its effect on GABA
function?

a. muscimol; agonist at the GABAB receptor
b. picrotoxin; indirect antagonist of the GABAA receptor
c. diazepam; reduces the activity of GABAA receptors
d. baclofen; antagonist at the GABAA receptor
e. nicotine; agonist at the GABAA receptor

Answer 368

b. picrotoxin; indirect antagonist of the GABAA receptor

Question 369

The GABAA antagonist ________ can induce motor convulsions.

a. muscimol
b. glutamate
c. diazepam
d. baclofen
e. picrotoxin

Answer 369

e. picrotoxin

Question 370

Someone with epilepsy might be prescribed a medicine to increase __________ action.

a. glutamate
b. GABA
c. glycine
d. serotonin
e. dopamine

Answer 370

b. GABA

Question 371

________ is the primary neurotransmitter secreted by motor axons of the CNS.

a. Dopamine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Serotonin
e. GABA

Answer 371

c. Acetylcholine

Question 372

Which transmitter below induces muscle movement and is the primary transmitter secreted by efferent axons of the central nervous system?

a. acetylcholine
b. GABA
c. serotonin
d. glycine
e. glutamate

Answer 372

a. acetylcholine

Question 373

Match up the transmitter substance below with the appropriate behavioral role or action of that transmitter.

a. acetylcholine; facilitation of perceptual learning
b. dopamine; suppresses certain species-typical behaviors
c. norepinephrine; facilitation of learning
d. serotonin; increases vigilance
e. GABA; generally activates voluntary movements

Answer 373

a. acetylcholine; facilitation of perceptual learning

Question 374

Cholinergic neurons within the ________ are thought to ________.

a. basal forebrain; control the electrical activity of the thalamus
b. dorsolateral pons; facilitate learning
c. medial septum; elicit most of the aspects of REM sleep
d. cerebellum; elicit motor movements
e. dorsolateral pons; elicit most of the aspects of REM sleep

Answer 374

e. dorsolateral pons; elicit most of the aspects of REM sleep

Question 375

Match up the cholinergic fiber system with the correct role of that system in the control of behavior.

a. Most CNS circuits that use ACh are inhibitory for learning.
b. Cholinergic neurons in the dorsolateral pons are involved in the control of the electrical rhythms of the hippocampus.
c. Cholinergic neurons in the medial septum are involved in the control of the electrical rhythms of the hippocampus.
d. Cholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain are involved in the control of REM sleep.
e. Cholinergic neurons in the medial septum facilitate learning.

Answer 375

c. Cholinergic neurons in the medial septum are involved in the control of the electrical rhythms of the hippocampus.

Question 376

Damage to the ________ cholinergic system would be expected to impair learning.

a. dorsolateral pons
b. hypothalamocortical
c. basal forebrain
d. medial septal
e. corticospinal

Answer 376

c. basal forebrain

Question 377

Muscle contractions often need to happen quickly so they are controlled via _____________ receptors.

a. ionotropic
b. metabotropic
c. serotonergic
d. dopaminergic
e. synthetic

Answer 377

a. ionotropic

Question 378

Hemicholnium-3 blocks the choline transporter, preventing recycling of choline. This drug is a(n)

a. agonist.
b. promotor.
c. villain.
d. antagonist.
e. precursor.

Answer 378

d. antagonist.

Question 379

Which pair of drugs below is known to facilitate and inhibit (respectively) the release of acetylcholine?

a. fluoxetine; nicotine
b. botulinum toxin; muscarine
c. botulinum toxin; black widow spider venom
d. black widow spider venom; botulinum toxin
e. black widow spider venom; fluoxetine

Answer 379

d. black widow spider venom; botulinum toxin

Question 380

It is possible to contract botulism by

a. eating black olives that were improperly canned.
b. using eye drops containing atropine.
c. being bitten by a black widow spider.
d. eating mayonnaise straight from the jar.
e. over-exercise following a large meal.

Answer 380

a. eating black olives that were improperly canned.

Question 381

An ionotropic cholinergic receptor produces a postsynaptic potential that is

a. slow to develop but short in duration.
b. rapid but of long duration.
c. not related to the opening of an ion channel.
d. rapid and short in duration.
e. slow to develop and long in duration.

Answer 381

d. rapid and short in duration.

Question 382

The disease process of myasthenia gravis produces muscle weakness by

a. overproducing ACh receptors on muscles.
b. reducing ACh function in the basal forebrain.
c. reducing the number of ACh receptors on muscles.
d. reducing ACh function in the dorsolateral pons.
e. enhancing the release of glycine onto spinal cord motoneurons.

Answer 382

c. reducing the number of ACh receptors on muscles.

Question 383

A drug that blocks acetylcholinesterase in brain would be expected to

a. permanently damage brain cholinergic neurons.
b. decrease the amount of acetylcholine in the synapse.
c. increase the synaptic levels of acetylcholine.
d. alter the activity of the cholinergic autoreceptors.
e. reduce the rate of reuptake of acetylcholine into glial cells.

Answer 383

c. increase the synaptic levels of acetylcholine.

Question 384

The postsynaptic action of acetylcholine is terminated by

a. reuptake of choline into the presynaptic terminal.
b. reuptake of acetylcholine into the presynaptic terminal.
c. enzymatic destruction via acetylcholinesterase.
d. diffusion away from the synapse.
e. reduced synthesis of acetylcholine.

Answer 384

c. enzymatic destruction via acetylcholinesterase.

Question 385

Which of the following is true of the cholinergic systems?

a. Hemicholium blocks the release of acetylcholine from peripheral neurons.
b. Acetylcholinesterase blocks the reuptake of choline into the presynaptic terminal.
c. The drug atropine is used to treat myasthenia gravis.
d. Muscarinic receptors are more numerous than nicotinic receptors in the brain.
e. Black widow spider venom prevents the release of acetylcholine.

Answer 385

d. Muscarinic receptors are more numerous than nicotinic receptors in the brain.

Question 386

Nicotinic receptors are found in ________ in the periphery and in ________ in the brain.

a. cardiac fibers; glial cells
b. muscle fibers; axoaxonic synapses
c. the pupils; axoaxonic synapses
d. cardiac fibers; axodendritic synapses
e. the lungs; axodendritic synapses

Answer 386

b. muscle fibers; axoaxonic synapses

Question 387

Which pair below represents the receptor subtypes for acetylcholine?

a. cholinergic; adrenergic
b. muscarinic; adrenergic
c. alpha-cholinergic; beta-cholinergic
d. nicotinic; muscarinic
e. beta-cholinergic; delta-cholinergic

Answer 387

d. nicotinic; muscarinic

Question 388

Which pair of drugs below are antagonists for the muscarinic and nicotinic (respectively) receptors?

a. atropine; curare
b. hemicholium; atropine
c. curare; atropine
d. muscarine; nicotine
e. acetylcholinesterase; choline acetyltransferase

Answer 388

a. atropine; curare

Question 389

Since curare blocks nicotinic receptors, it stands to reason that this drug is often used to

a. tighten wrinkled skin.
b. block pain reactivity during tooth extractions.
c. minimize muscle weakness in persons suffering from myasthenia gravis.
d. dilate the pupils of the eyes.
e. induce relaxation during surgery.

Answer 389

e. induce relaxation during surgery.

Question 390

The drug ________ causes pupil dilation by blocking ________ receptors.

a. cocaine; dopaminergic
b. atropine; muscarinic
c. curare; muscarinic
d. belladona; adrenergic
e. muscarine; nicotinic

Answer 390

b. atropine; muscarinic

Question 391

Monoaminergic neurons include

a. GABAergic neurons.
b. glutamatergic neurons.
c. acetyl cholinergic neurons.
d. serotonergic neurons.
e. glycinergic neurons.

Answer 391

d. serotonergic neurons.

Question 392

Which of the following is classified as an indolamine?

a. glycine
b. serotonin
c. dopamine
d. acetylcholine
e. norepinephrine

Answer 392

b. serotonin

Question 393

Tyrosine is the precursor for the synthesis of

a. serotonin.
b. dopamine.
c. glutamate.
d. acetylcholine.
e. glycine.

Answer 393

b. dopamine.

Question 394

Degeneration of neurons within the ________ dopamine system leads to Parkinson’s disease.

a. nigrostriatal
b. mesocortical
c. hypothalamocortical
d. mesolimbic
e. retinal-suprachiasmatic

Answer 394

a. nigrostriatal

Question 395

L-DOPA is given to a patient with Parkinson’s Disease because

a. dopamine cannot cross the blood-brain barrier.
b. serotonin cannot cross the blood-brain barrier.
c. L-DOPA is converted to norepinephrine.
d. L-DOPA is converted to epinephrine.
e. dopamine is too effective when it crosses the blood-brain barrier, resulting in schizophrenia-like symptoms.

Answer 395

a. dopamine cannot cross the blood-brain barrier.

Question 396

Damage to the ________ dopaminergic system would be expected to impair movement.

a. nigrostriatal
b. hypothalamocortical
c. mesocortical
d. mesolimbic
e. corticospinal

Answer 396

a. nigrostriatal

Question 397

The neostriatum consists of the

a. putamen and the hippocampus.
b. ventral tegmental area and the overlying pons.
c. cerebellum and the nucleus accumbens.
d. caudate nucleus and the putamen.
e. amygdala and the hippocampus.

Answer 397

d. caudate nucleus and the putamen.

Question 398

The ________ dopamine system plays a key role in the control of ________.

a. nigrostriatal; planning and problem solving
b. mesolimbic; movement
c. mesocortical; movement
d. mesospinal; reinforcing effects of drugs such as cocaine
e. mesocortical; planning and problem solving

Answer 398

e. mesocortical; planning and problem solving

Question 399

Low doses of the drug apomorphine

a. are toxic in the same way as is curare.
b. increase synthesis of epinephrine.
c. reduce sensitivity to pain.
d. stimulate nicotinic receptors as well as D1 receptors.
e. inhibit the synthesis and release of dopamine

Answer 399

e. inhibit the synthesis and release of dopamine

Question 400

The drug reserpine

a. was used medically to treat high blood pressure.
b. is used to treat myasthenia gravis.
c. blocks the storage of monoamines in vesicles.
d. can produce Parkinson’s disease in some persons.
e. interferes with the synthesis of dopamine.

Answer 400

c. blocks the storage of monoamines in vesicles.

Question 401

Dopamine belongs to the __________ class of monoamines.

a. indolamine
b. ethylamine
c. catecholamine
d. amino acid
e. neuropeptide

Answer 401

c. catecholamine

Question 402

A drug that causes the transporters for dopamine to run in reverse would

a. increase the synthesis of dopamine.
b. increase the reuptake of dopamine.
c. antagonize the postsynaptic receptors for dopamine.
d. spill dopamine into the synaptic cleft.
e. more rapidly clear dopamine out of the synaptic cleft.

Answer 402

d. spill dopamine into the synaptic cleft.

Question 403

Drugs that inactivate monoamine oxidase B would be expected to

a. also block D2 receptors.
b. increase the release of dopamine in response to the arrival of an action potential at the terminal buttons.
c. make the dopamine transporter run in reverse.
d. cause the release of serotonin into the synaptic cleft.
e. increase the release of acetylcholine in response to the arrival of an action potential at the terminal buttons.

Answer 403

b. increase the release of dopamine in response to the arrival of an action potential at the terminal buttons.

Question 404

Abnormal brain levels of dopamine are associated with

a. mania and bipolar disorder.
b. schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease.
c. Alzheimer’s disease and schizophrenia.
d. Klüver-Bucy syndrome and Huntington’s chorea.
e. mood disorder and depression.

Answer 404

b. schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease.

Question 405

Catecholamines are removed from the cleft via

a. degradation.
b. enzymes.
c. transporters.
d. recycling.
e. They are not removed.

Answer 405

c. transporters.

Question 406

The final synthesis step for norepinephrine occurs in the ________ and requires the presence of ________.

a. vesicle; epinephrine and dopamine beta hydroxylase (DBH)
b. axon terminal; dopamine and DBH
c. soma; dopamine
d. vesicle; dopamine and DBH
e. soma; DBH and nicotine

Answer 406

d. vesicle; dopamine and DBH

Question 407

Which of the pairs below are synonymous?

a. epinephrine and adrenaline
b. nicotine and glycine
c. noradrenaline and GABA
d. serotonin and drug abuse
e. glutamate and glycine

Answer 407

a. epinephrine and adrenaline

Question 408

The unique aspect of norepinephrine (NE) release is that

a. axonal varicosities release NE.
b. NE release does not require the entry of calcium ions.
c. black widow spider venom can block NE release.
d. amphetamine does not modify NE release.
e. NE can be released from glial cells.

Answer 408

a. axonal varicosities release NE.

Question 409

Drugs that block MAO-A are ________ agonists, whereas MAO-B blockers are ________.

a. nicotinic receptor; muscarinic receptor antagonists
b. glutamatinergic; glycine receptor agonists
c. dopamine; norepinephrine antagonists
d. presynaptic; postsynaptic antagonists
e. norepinephrine; dopamine agonists

Answer 409

e. norepinephrine; dopamine agonists

Question 410

Norepinephrine is removed from the synaptic cleft via

a. enzymes.
b. degradation.
c. transporters.
d. synthesizers.
e. diffusion.

Answer 410

c. transporters.

Question 411

Serotonin is synthesized from

a. tyrosine.
b. tyramine.
c. tryptophan.
d. blood platelets.
e. glutamate.

Answer 411

c. tryptophan.

Question 412

Drugs that block the reuptake of serotonin or that cause the release of serotonin are used therapeutically to treat

a. anorexia nervosa.
b. depression.
c. mania.
d. psychosis.
e. bipolar disorder.

Answer 412

b. depression.

Question 413

The ________ serotonin receptor subtype is classified as an ionotropic receptor.

a. 5-HT1
b. 5-HT5
c. 5-HT3
d. 5-HT9
e. All serotonin receptors are ionotropic.

Answer 413

c. 5-HT3

Question 414

Cell bodies of serotonin neurons are located within the

a. substantia nigra.
b. basal forebrain.
c. ventral tegmental area.
d. spinal cord.
e. raphe nuclei.

Answer 414

e. raphe nuclei.

Question 415

Drugs that block histamine receptors produce

a. Parkinsonism.
b. delusions.
c. drowsiness.
d. REM sleep.
e. arousal.

Answer 415

c. drowsiness.

Question 416

Peptides, unlike neurotransmitters, are always

a. destroyed by enzymes.
b. taken back up into the presynaptic cell via transporters.
c. recycled and reused.
d. allowed to remain in the cleft indefinitely.
e. not recycled.

Answer 416

a. destroyed by enzymes.

Question 417

All peptides studied so far are produced from

a. enzymes.
b. polypeptides.
c. vesicles.
d. precursor molecules.
e. postcursor molecules.

Answer 417

d. precursor molecules.

Question 418

Neuropeptides are distinctive in that these transmitters

a. are secreted from all parts of a terminal button.
b. are secreted only from the active zone of an axon terminal.
c. do not act via receptors.
d. are not synthesized in the neuron soma.
e. are not packaged within vesicles.

Answer 418

a. are secreted from all parts of a terminal button.

Question 419

The term “opioid” refers to ________, while the term “opiates” refers to ________.

a. postsynaptic receptors; endogenous chemicals
b. exogenous drugs; endogenous chemicals
c. presynaptic receptors; postsynaptic receptors
d. analgesic chemicals released from glial cells; autoreceptors
e. endogenous chemicals; exogenous drugs

Answer 419

e. endogenous chemicals; exogenous drugs

Question 420

Which of the following is true of opioid effects in brain?

a. Heroin is an example of an opioid receptor antagonist.
b. Opioids can induce euphoria and reward.
c. Opioids act to increase pain.
d. Naloxone is an example of an opioid receptor agonist.
e. Opioids do not induce dysphoria.

Answer 420

b. Opioids can induce euphoria and reward.

Question 421

Drugs such as morphine and heroin are classified as

a. opioid molecules.
b. narcotic antagonists.
c. endogenous opioids.
d. opiate drugs.
e. enkephalins.

Answer 421

d. opiate drugs.

Question 422

Activation of cannabinoid receptors by THC

a. stimulates appetite.
b. occurs when a person smokes marijuana.
c. results in analgesia.
d. reduces nausea and vomiting.
e. produces nausea and vomiting.

Answer 422

b. occurs when a person smokes marijuana.

Question 423

Which of the following is true of CB1 receptors?

a. Memory impairment results from the effects of THC on hippocampal CB1 receptors.
b. These receptors are found in high levels within the brainstem.
c. CB1 receptors are postsynaptic.
d. CB1 receptors control a chloride channel.
e. The reinforcing action of cocaine is blocked by a targeted mutation of CB1 receptors.

Answer 423

a. Memory impairment results from the effects of THC on hippocampal CB1 receptors.