Biopharmaceuticals Flashcards

1
Q

What are the chemical changes that can occur to degrade protein formulations? [8]

A
  1. Deamidation especially on Asn and Gln residues.
  2. Amide bond hydrolysis (especially Asp)
  3. Elimination of water.
  4. Disulphide bond reshuffling
  5. Oxidation (Met and Cys) - some salts and metal ions in processing equipment can exacerbate this issue. The use of anti-oxidants or sacrificial amino acids/protein (HAS) can prevent this.
  6. Cross-linking
  7. Thiol-disulphide exchange
  8. Changes in ionisation due to pH variations - use of appropriate buffers can protect against this.
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2
Q

Which residues are particularly prone to deamidation?

A

Asn + Gln

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3
Q

Which residue is particularly prone to amide bond hydrolysis?

A

Asp

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4
Q

Which residues are particularly prone to oxidation?

A

Met + Cys

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5
Q

The presence of what in a formulation can enhance oxidation?

A

Some salts and metal ions in processing equipment.

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6
Q

How can oxidation of the formulation be protected against? [2]

A
  1. Anti-oxidants

2. Sacrificial amino acids/protein (HAS)

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7
Q

How can changes in formulation ionisation due to pH variations be protected against?

A

Use of appropriate buffers,

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8
Q

In what ways can protein unfolding/aggregation occur? [4]

A
  1. Via agitation.
  2. Via exposure to interfaces (aq/air, aq/organics in presence of solvent)
  3. High concentration of proteins.
  4. Exposure of the internal, hydrophobic residues.
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9
Q

How can we limit the aggregation of protein formulations? [2]

A
  1. Avoiding conditions that promote protein aggregation during processing:
    Use of sugars/polyols or polymers to induce preferential exclusion of solute molecules and human serum albumin or cyclodextrins to stabilise any unfolding.
  2. Supercritical fluids can be used in processing to minimise interfaces.
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10
Q

How can we induce preferential exclusion of solute molecules to limit protein aggregation?

A

We can use sugars/polyols or polymers.

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11
Q

What are the four potential strategies that could be used for nucleic acid-based therapy?

A

Addition of genes.
Inhibition of gene expression.
Immunotherapy
Genome editing.

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12
Q

How can the addition of genes be beneficial in treatment of diseases such as cancer? [6]

A
  1. Gene replacement - correction of monogenic diseases.
  2. Genes to code for therapeutic proteins.
  3. Genes that code for suicide enzymes. (GDEPT)
  4. Genes that code for ‘soluble’ receptors.
  5. Genes that code for mAbs to target molecules involved in cancer.
  6. Genes that code for tumour suppression genes.
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13
Q

What is GDEPT?

A

Gene-directed enzyme prodrug therapy.
• Suicide gene inserted/targeted for insertion into tumour cells.
• Gene codes for an enzyme that when expressed catalyses/activates a prodrug which has been administered to the body. This prodrug can itself be targeted only to tumour cells via aptamers, affibodies etc. or it can be present homogeneously throughout the body.
• This prodrug is converted into an active form that leads to tumour cell death.

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14
Q

Genes that code for soluble receptors can be used to inhibit tumour progression. What is one molecule that may be targeted in this fashion?

A

VEGF.
Mucagen - the first aptamer and RNA drug treats ‘wet’ age-related macular degeneration by binding to VEGF and reducing blood vessel growth.

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15
Q

What is Mucagen?

A

Mucagen - the first aptamer and RNA drug treats ‘wet’ age-related macular degeneration by binding to VEGF and reducing blood vessel growth.
It does however have to be delivered every 6 weeks via injection to the eyes.

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16
Q

How can inhibition of gene expression be accomplished?

A
  1. Anti-sense and decoy nucleotides.

2. RNA interference.

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17
Q

What is decoy oligonucleotide therapy?

A

Use of decoy oligonucleotide sections to interfere with the transcription of genes coding for pro-tumour/illness proteins.

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18
Q

What is anti-sense oligonucleotide therapy?

A

Use of anti-sense oligonucleotides to interfere with the translation of disease causing proteins.

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19
Q

What is the difference between anti-sense and decoy oligonucleotide therapy?

A

Anti-sense interferes with mRNA translation in the cytoplasm.
Decoy interferes with mRNA transcription in the nucleus.

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20
Q

How can RNA interference lead to inhibition of gene expression?

A

siRNA – if the sequence of a disease causing gene is known, we can use small interfering RNA (siRNA) to ‘knock down’ gene expression.
miRNA – MicroRNA is derived from genes that specifically code for miRNAs not proteins. Important in gene regulation. DNA coding for under expressed or missing miRNAs could be delivered to cells to replace the missing miRNAs.

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21
Q

What is siRNA used for?

A

RNA interference, if the sequence of a disease causing gene is known, we can use small interfering RNA (siRNA) to ‘knockdown’ gene expression.

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22
Q

What is miRNA?

A

MicroRNA derived from genes that code for miRNA not proteins. Important roles in gene regulation. DNA that codes for missing or underexpressed miRNA could be delivered to cells.

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23
Q

How can immunotherapy be used to treat cancer?

A
  1. A tumour biopsy is performed and tumour specific RNA extracted as cDNA before amplification to create a vial of amplified tumour specific RNA.
  2. Leukapheresis of a patient’s blood takes place to extract mononuclear cells. These are then stimulated to differentiate into monocytes and then into immature Cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
  3. Tumour RNA loading/exposure to the patient’s immature CTL occurs and the resulting mixture of activated CTLs is administered to the patient.

This is a means of activating a patient’s immune system to fight cancer cells.

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24
Q

`Where must genes, decoy oligonucleotides and genome editing be targeted to?

A

The nucleus

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25
Q

Where must anti-sense RNA, siRNA and miRNA be targeted to?

A

The cytoplasm.

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26
Q

What is the most common way of delivering genes?

A

66% viral delivery. Viruses have evolved to invade cells and deliver genetic material to the nucleus. The viral genes involved with replication are removed (non-pathogenic) and replaced with therapeutic genes.

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27
Q

What are retroviruses? [5]

A
  1. Gene vector.
  2. ssRNA genome
  3. Target specific cells.
  4. Possible immune response
  5. Risk of tumour development,
28
Q

What are the risks to using retroviruses? [3]

A
  1. Some only invade dividing cells.
  2. Possible immune response
  3. Risk of tumour development.
29
Q

What are adenoviruses? [5]

A
  1. dsDNA genome.
  2. infect dividing and non-dividing cells.
  3. Doesnt integrate.
  4. Can be used to target specific cell types.
  5. Possible immune response.
30
Q

What are the risks of adenovirus use as vectors?

A

Possible immune response.

31
Q

Which type of viral vector has ssRNA genome?

A

Retroviruses.

32
Q

Which type of viral vector has dsDNA?

A

Adenoviruses.

33
Q

Which type of viral vector has ssDNA genome?

A

Adeno-associated viruses.

34
Q

What is Gendicine?

A

An adenovirus delivered head and neck carcinoma treatment approved in China.

35
Q

What is an Adeno-associated virus?

A

ssDNA virus which infects dividing and non-dividing cells, specifically integrating into chromosome 19. Can be used to target specific cell types and provokes little immune response.

36
Q

Why are retroviruses not the preferred delivery method for human genes?

A
  1. Human genes are 10-15kbp, insert capacity of RV: 8-10kbp.
  2. Can only target dividing cells.
  3. Possibly oncogenic.
37
Q

Why are adeno-associated viruses not the preferred delivery method of human genes?

A
  1. Human genes are 10-15kbp, insert capacity of AAV: 5kbp.
38
Q

Which viral vector has the most transient duration?

A

Adenoviruses. AAV + RV can be extended.

39
Q

Why are adenoviruses good vectors?

A
  1. High capacity.

2. Target dividing and non-dividing cells.

40
Q

What are the advantages of viral delivery?

A

High transfer efficiency + some inherent tissue tropisms.

41
Q

What are the disadvantages of viral delivery? [4]

A
  1. Limited DNA/RNA capacity.
  2. Difficult production.
  3. Can cause tumours.
  4. Can provoke immune response.
42
Q

What is Glybera?

A

Adeno-associated viral delivered treatment for lipoprotein lipase deficiency.

43
Q

What non-viral nucleic acid delivery techniques are there? [2]

A
  1. Physical: direct injection, gene gun, ultrasound, electroporation.
  2. Chemical: encapsulation, complexation. Nanoparticles.
44
Q

What are the advantages of non-viral vectors for nucleic acid delivery? [3]

A
  1. Easy to prepare and modify
  2. Reduced immunogenicity
  3. Large capacity,
45
Q

What are the disadvantages of non-viral vectors for nucleic acid delivery? [2]

A
  1. Poor efficiency.

2. Transient effects.

46
Q

What are some examples of non-viral drug delivery vectors?

A
  1. Liposomes
  2. Dendrimers
  3. Cationic polymers
  4. Cell penetrating peptides
  5. Direct translocation via clathrin- and caveolae-independent endocytosis.
47
Q

What is a lipolexe?

A

A mixture of cationic liposome and DNA (or RNA)

48
Q

How do lipoplexes work?

A

As the lipolexe is positively charged (cationic) it will be attracted to the negatively charged cell membrane and endocytosed.

49
Q

What are the advantages to Lipoplex use in vitro?

A

Commercialised DNA transfection reagents are available.

50
Q

What are the disadvantages to the use of lipoplexes in vivo? [5]

A
  1. High positive charge
  2. Toxic
  3. Short circulation
  4. Large particle sizes.
  5. Unstable.
51
Q

How can supercritical CO2 be used in drug delivery?

A

Controlled release.
Can be used to dissolve polymer and biological drug without organic solvents. A gentler process to limit denaturation and aggregation.

52
Q

Why would we want to PEGylate a therapeutic protein? [6]

A
  1. Shield protein from immune system (reduce clearance, reduce immunogenicity, reduced lysis)
  2. Allows for the attachment of the protein to other drugs and targeting ligands.
  3. Improved solubility.
  4. Reduced protein binding.
  5. Improved bioavailability
  6. Avoidance of phagocytosis.
53
Q

What are the negative effects of PEGylation of proteins?

A

Reduced activity if pegylation has not been selectional.

54
Q

What is the Medusa drug delivery platform? [3]

A
  1. 95% water. Uses hydrogel droplets.
  2. No shear, no surfactant and no organic solvent used.
  3. Release of the unmodified drug by diffusion and disaggregation of the hydrogel depot over 1-14 days.
55
Q

Why would we want to use supercritical CO2 to deliver protein drugs?

A

Can be used to dissolve polymer and biological drug without organic solvents. Can be a greener process to limit denaturation and aggregation. Greener process.

56
Q

How can bacteria be used to fight cancer? [3]

A
  1. Hypoxic areas of tumours tend to be resistant to chemo and radiotherapy.
  2. Bacteria which are obligate anaerobes- can colonise hypoxic areas of tumours.
  3. S. typhimurium.
57
Q

Why are traditional polymeric CDDSs unsuitable for the delivery of biological formulations?

A

Most widely used polymers (polyesters such as PLGA) are hydrophobic and only soluble in organic solvents. Need to generate emulsions to get the hydrophilic into the hydrophobic polymer. This can cause interfaces with air, solvents and surfaces leading to protein degradation.

58
Q

What is a dendrimer?

A

Repetitively branched molecules. Surface groups can be functionalized for targeting, stealth etc. They can be designed to only release contents under specific conditions: amine-rich dendrimers for complexation with negatively charged nucleic acids.

59
Q

What are DNA polyplexes?

A

Nucleic acid + cationic polymer = semiflexible stage –> toroid.

60
Q

What are cell-penetrating peptides?

A

HIV TAT protein and Drosphila transcription factor can translocate the cell membrane.
Can be used to deliver oligonucleotides across the membrane.
Examples: Penetratin.
Tend to be arginine rich.

61
Q

Which type of viral vector integrates specifically into chromosome 19?

A

Adeno-associated virus.
ssDNA virus which infects dividing and non-dividing cells, specifically integrating into chromosome 19. Can be used to target specific cell types and provokes little immune response.

62
Q

Name three ways in which polysorbates stabilise protein formulations:

A
  1. Exclusion of solutes
  2. Chemical chaperones which can help with protein folding.
  3. Binding to hydrophobic binding pockets of proteins.
63
Q

What is a polysorbate?

A

Amphiphilic emulsifiers often found in protein formulations:

  1. Exclusion of solutes
  2. Chemical chaperones which can help with protein folding.
  3. Binding to hydrophobic binding pockets of proteins.
64
Q

At that temperature are 50% of proteins molecules unfolded?

A

40-80*C

65
Q

At what pH do thiol-catalysed disulphide exchange mechanisms dominate in protein misfolding?

A

Higher pHs.

66
Q

What moieties in proteins are most likely to be hydrolysed?

A

Aspartic acid ones as they are least stable.