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Biomed > biomed week 4 > Flashcards

biomed week 4 Flashcards

1
Q

lipids can be broken down into two main classes :

A

fatty acid structure and isoprenoid structure

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2
Q

isoprenoids contain

A

repeating 5 C structural units called isoprene units

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3
Q

cholesterol is?

A

a steroid mad made of 6 isoprene units

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4
Q

steroids with a hydroxyl group at …. may be refered to as ….

A

C3
sterols

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5
Q

cholesterol synthesis occurs most significantly in the …. and …..

A

liver and kidney

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6
Q

in the cell , cholesterol synthesis occurs in the…….

A

ER

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7
Q

what are the four main steps of cholesterol synthesis

A
  1. condensation of 3 acetyl CoA into mevalonate
  2. formation of isopentenyl pyrophosphate
  3. creation of squalene
    - uses 6 isopentenyl pyrophosphates
  4. cyclization of squalene into cholesterol
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8
Q

condensation of 3 acetyl CoA into mevalonate is a ………… by ……..

A

rate limiting step

HMG CoA reductase

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9
Q

conversion of mevalonate into activated isoprenes is when … phosphate groups are added to ….. to form … to form ….. and one is immediately removed

A

3

mevalonate

ATP

isopentenyl pyrophosphate

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10
Q

in cholesterol synthesis condensation of …. activated isoprene units form squalene.

A

6

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11
Q

how many acetyl CoA are needed to make squalene

A

3

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12
Q

in cholesterol synthesis , ring closure is a complex multistep process , linear squalene is converted into ………..

A

cyclic structure of cholesterol

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13
Q

how many acetyl CoA are needed to make mevalonate?

A

3

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14
Q

HMG CoA is inhibited by

A

high intracellular levels of cholesterol

  • enzyme gets blocked
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15
Q

HMG CoA will only be transcribed and translated if

A

intracellular cholesterol levels are low

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16
Q

high intracellular cholesterol levels also promotes ….. of cholesterol for storage in the cell

A

esterification

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17
Q

HMG CoA reductase can also be regulated via …………………….

A

reversible covalent modification

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18
Q

……… promotes phosphorylation of HMG CoA reductase , inhibiting the enzyme ……….. cholesterol synthesis

A

Glucagon

inhibiting

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19
Q

………. promotes de-phosphorylation of HMG CoA reductase, activating the enzyme ……….. cholesterol synthesis

A

Insulin

promoting

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20
Q

HMG CoA reductase tends to exist in its ……………..

A

inactive phosphorylated state

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21
Q

fatty acids can form of number of derivatives including ………..

A

phospholipids

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22
Q

phospholipids have three components

A

hydrocarbon chain

back bone ( glycerol or cermine )

phosphate alchohol head group

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23
Q

if both fatty acids are linked to the glycerol backbone with an ester link is called a ……….

A

phosphatidate

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24
Q

if one fatty acid is linked to the glycerol backbone with an ester link while the other has an ether link is is called a …………

A

plasmalogen

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25
Q

what are the components of a glycerophospholipid

A

fatty acid tail (usually 16-18 carbons)
-unbranched, may be saturated
glycerol backbone
- ester linkage
phosphate head
- usually the R is linked to another molecule
- choline
- ethanol-amine , glycerol , inositol , serine

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26
Q

phospholipid synthesis occurs primarily on the ………. of the ……… and …………………

A

luminal surface

smooth ER

inner mitochonrial membrane

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27
Q

what are the four basic steps of phospholipid synthesis

A

synthesis of glycerol backbone

attachment of fatty acids to backbone via ester linkage

addition of head group

exchange / modification of head group

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28
Q

glycerol 3 phosphate can be derived from

A

addition of phosphate group to glycerol
- only occurs in the liver

conversion of glycerol 3 phosphate from dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)

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29
Q

in phospholipid synthesis, two fatty acid CoAs are added to ………. forming phosphatidic acid

A

gycerol 3 phosphate

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30
Q

in the addition of a phospholipid head group, one of the hydroxyl is first activated by ………………….. cytosine diphosphate (CDP)

A

the attahcment of a nucleotide

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31
Q

in the adidtion of a headgroup, CMP is displaced via nucleophilic attack and replaced by a …..

A

head group

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32
Q

phosphatidylserine and phosphatidylethanolamine can be interconverted in a ……………….

A

reversible head group exchange reaction

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33
Q

phosphatidylethanolamine can be converted to phosphatidylcholine by the addition of …………….

A

3 methyl groups

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34
Q

phosphatidylinositol is a less common phospholipid in the cell membrane but it plays an important role in ………….

A

cell signalling

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35
Q

can phospholipids spontaneously flip over to the luminal side?

A

No
need special enzymes such as flippase

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36
Q

what happens in inactivation of intracellular signalling

A

ligand releases from receptor

receptor associated effectors inactivate

2nd messanger is either metabolized or removed

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37
Q

a G coupled receptor spans the membrane how many times?

A

7

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38
Q

in G protien coupled receptors , there are three subunits, alpha, beta and gamma
when untimiulated alpha is bound to …….. and BY is bound to a
when stimulated a subunit releases …….. replacing it with ….. and the a subunit disengages from by subunits

A

GDP

GDP
GTP

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39
Q

whan alpha subunit hydrolyzes GTP to GDP it ………

A

becomes inactivated again

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40
Q

in Gs GPCR, Gs releases …… and binds ….. at the ……..

A

GDP
GTP
alpha subunit

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41
Q

Gs binds and activates

A

adenylyl cyclase

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42
Q

adenylyl cyclase does what?

A

converts ATP to cAMP

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43
Q

cAMP binds to …….. inhibitors PK A then detach and ………….

A

protein kinase

allow the active parts of PK A to work

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44
Q

PKA releases ……… allowing calcium to move down its concentration gradient (from storage to cytosol)

A

inhibitors

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45
Q

the Gq GPCR uses …… and ….. and ….. as second messanger systems

A

Ca2+
IP3
DAG

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46
Q

IP3 is a second messanger that has ….. and causes release of ……. from where its stored in the ER

A

one effect

Ca2+

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47
Q

in a resting cell there is about 0.1 micormolar of …… in the cytosol and 1-3 mmol of …… in the ER in the extracellular space

A

calcium
calcium

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48
Q

the concentration gradient for calcium is …….. it wants to ……….

A

very high
enter the cytosol

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49
Q

when the concentration of Ca2+ in the cytosol increases, it will then bind to ………… and cause …….

A

calcium binding proteins

an effect

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50
Q

each calmodulin binds …………… before it becomes activated

A

4 calcium ions

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51
Q

once calmodulin is activated, it binds to …… ex ……

A

effectors
calmodulin kinase

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52
Q

Gq alpha activates ……

A

phospolipase C

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53
Q

phospholipase C cleaves a …… into …………..

A

membrane lipid

IP3 and diacylgycerol

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54
Q

IP3 is …. and enters the ……

DAG is ……. and stays ………

A

water soluble , cytosol

lipid soluble , within the cell membrane and then diffuses throughout it

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55
Q

IP3 activates …….. release in the ….. resultng in movement of …… from the ……. to the …..

A

Ca2+ , ER

Ca2+ , ER, cytosol

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56
Q

both Ca2+ and …… work together to activate membrane bound ………..

A

DAG

protein kinase C (PK C)

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57
Q

why does PK C need to be membrane bound

A

so it does not phosphorylate things it doesnt need to

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58
Q

PK C can modulate ………..

A

the activity of many effectors

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59
Q

Gi GPCR down regulates ……. Gi-a inactivates …… and Gi-By opens …….

A

the activity of Gs

adenylyl cyclase

K+ channel

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60
Q

what is the nerst potential for k+?

A

-90 mV

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61
Q

if the channel allows sodium to enter the membrane becomes

A

more inside positive

depolarization

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62
Q

if a channel allows potassium to leave the membrane becomes

A

more inside negative

hyperpolarization

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63
Q

if the channel allows calcium to enter the cytosol

A

it binds calmodulin

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64
Q

what is a enzyme coupled receptor

A

transmembrane protein with ligand binding domain on outer surface of the plasma membrane

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65
Q

cytosolic domain has either …..

A

intrinsic enzyme activity

direct association with the enzyme

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66
Q

intrinsic kinase activity : ………..

binding of the ligand …… the receptor and activates …. within a receptor

A

the receptor phosphorylates itself on a specific residues of the intracellular face of the receptor

dimerizes
tyrosine kinase

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67
Q

ligand examples

A

insulin
growth factors
cytokines

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68
Q

receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs)
ligand binds to ………
receptor ….. and each half ……. the tyrosine residues on the other half
signaling proteins can then bind to the ……. and also become activated creating a ….

A

receptor monomers

dimerizes
phosphorylates

phosphorylated receptor signal cascade

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69
Q

what is the Ras cascade
how does it become activated?
what does it activate?
what then gets activated?

A

when Ras encounters an activated RTK, it then binds to GTP and activates

ras activates raf

activated raf causes activation of MAP kinases

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70
Q

what do MAP kinases phosphorylate?

A

transcription factors , enzymes

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71
Q

how does Ras inactivate?

A

inactivates itself by cleaving GTP -> GDP

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72
Q

adaptor protein Grb2 activates what

A

Ras

73
Q

Ras-Raf-MAP kinase pathway is the pathway most commonly associated with

A

RTK activation

74
Q

PI-3 kinase –> Akt system is …..

A

a unique signalling mechanism that is key to insulin signaling

75
Q

describe the RTK PI-3-kinase Akt system pathway

what is the second messenger in the system?

A

RTK is activated causing activation of PI3k

PI3k attaches an additional phosphate to PIP2 to form PIP3

PIP3 accumulates and forms lipid rafts in the membrane

what is the second messenger in the system?
PIP3

76
Q

PDK1 becomes activated by

when activated it activates ,…….

A

PIP3

Akt

77
Q

Akt is the

A

effector

78
Q

PIP3 brings …. and ….. together at the membrane

A

PDK1 and Akt

79
Q

nitric oxide relaxes …… , …… and ….

A

smooth muscle , blood vessels and visceral organs

80
Q

nitric oxide is a …… that diffuses easily and quickly

A

hydrophobic gas

81
Q

how is nitric oxide produced?

A

enzymatically by the action of nitric oxide synthase on L - arginine

82
Q

nitric oxide …… rapidly because………

A

degrades
it reacts with oxygen and water

83
Q

describe nitric oxide mediated signalling

A

cytosolic calcium increases
- by activated ligand on ion channel to let
calcium in
increased calcium activates NO

NO produces NO from L - arginine

NO binds and activates guanylyl cyclase

cytosolic cGMP activates a protein kinase (usually PKG)

causes changes in cellular activity due to PKG activity

84
Q

what does guanylyl cyclase produce

A

cGMP to GTP

85
Q

flow is …

A

the movement of a substance from one point in a system to another point in the system

86
Q

what is the driving force of flow between point A and B

A

energy gradient

87
Q

amount of flow is directly related to the

A

size of the energy gradient between A and B

88
Q

what is poiseuilles law equation

A

F = P1 - P2 x (pi radius ^4 / 8ul)

89
Q

flow in poiseuilles law increases when

A

hydrostatic and radius increase

90
Q

flow in poiseuilles law decreases when

A

the viscocity of the fluid and length of the tube increase

91
Q

in poiseuilles law, as the tubes become more branched or irregular it is hard to ……

A

quantify resistance
when flow becomes turbulent
when the tube is flexible

radius is the most important determinant of resistance

92
Q

flow is

A

the amount of substance moving accross a barrier per unit time

93
Q

force driving flux is

A

the concentration gradient

94
Q

resistances could be

A

membrane surface area and membrane thickness

permeability of the membrane to the substance

95
Q

What is ficks law equation

A

F = k x (A(Ca-Cb)/t)

96
Q

A in ficks law is a measurement of the

A

surface area on the membrane

97
Q

k, a constant in ficks law increases when

A

the substance is a smaller molecule that dissolves better in the barrier

permeability of the membrane to the substance

98
Q

in ficks law, flow increases when

A

flow, surface area and k constant increase

99
Q

ficks law flow decreases when

A

thickness increases

100
Q

flow flux in ficks law can be affected by

A

concentration difference
surface area avalible for the solute . gas to cross

the permeability of the membrane

solubility of the membrane
distance between the two compartments

101
Q

ohms law equation

A

I = V/R

102
Q

in ohms law, current increases when

A

voltage increases

103
Q

in ohms law, current decreases when

A

resistance decreases

104
Q

what are some ohms law take aways

A

opposite charges repel

particles move down a gradient of voltage according to their charge

105
Q

in biology, ohms law is most useful when thinking about

A

unequal distributions of chrages very close to either side of the membrane

106
Q

what is the starling forces equation

A

flux = Lp ((p cap - PISF) - 0(pie cap - pi ISF)

pi =osmotic pressure
P = hydrostatic pressure

107
Q

charged particles in nerst potential can move across membranes based on

A

electrostatic forces

108
Q

dissolved particles in nerst potenial can move across membranes based on

A

their concentration gradient

109
Q

nerst equatiion accounts for:

A

diffusion of ions very close to either side of the membrane

the charged particle

the ratio of the particles concentration intracellular:extracellular

it gives energy gradient

110
Q

what is the nerst potential equation

A

Ep =( (-60mV)/ zp) log 10 (Pi / Po)

Ep = the membrane voltage at which a particle (P) moves into ad out of the cell at the same rate

111
Q

nerst potential - why is there an unequal distribution of sodium and potassium across the membrane

A

ATPase

112
Q

in nerst potential why is there an unequal distribution charge

A

because 3 sodium leave and 2 potassium enter the cell

113
Q

why is nerst equation important?

A

cellular signalling
transport of substances
regulation of cell volume

114
Q

the membrane potential is about -75 mV but the nerst potential for postassium is close to -90mV
why is the membrane potneital of a neuron close to but not the same as the equilibrium for K+

A

there are other ions

115
Q

cholesterol intercalates between …… with the ,…. closest to the aqueous surface

A

phospholipids

-OH

116
Q

the amount of cholesterol impacts membrane ……
smaller amounts …….. causing ……….. and large amounts ………. and increase ….

A

fluidity
stiffen the membrane , decreased fluidity
interfere with the interactions between the lipid tails , increasing fluidity

117
Q

sphingolipids decrease ……….

A

membrane fluidity

118
Q

what are glycocalyx

A

protiens and lipids that are bound to carbs that vary in size

119
Q

what formation of membrane lipids is favoured

A

phospholipid bilayer (most favoured) or micelle

120
Q

membranes inside the cell dont need to ……….. ,…………. , …………. therefore there is no need for sphingolipids and there is much less cholesterol in the cell membranes

A

signal to other cells
protect cells from harsh environments
form a glycocalyx

121
Q

most cells express many ……. in the plasma membrane which allows for high water conductace

A

auquaporins

122
Q

NA+/K+ ATPase is a key plasma membrane transporter, each cycle of transport involves ….. out and …… into the cytosol
this involves hydrolysis of …….

A

3 NA+
2 K+
1 ATP

123
Q

facillitated transport is

A

a protein carrier that binds to a substance and transports it across a membrane , allowing it to FOLLOW its concentration gradient

ex. glucose transporter (GLUT)

124
Q

Co- transport is

A

the transportation of 2 substances (X and Y) are coupled using the same protein

concentration gradient of X favours movement into the cell
Y is pulled along even if its not its favourable concentration gradient

ex .
sodium glucose co- transporter

125
Q

counter transport is

A

X and Y move in opposite directions across the cell membrane , the gradient of one of the molecules supplies the energy to drive the transport

ex.

counter transporter

126
Q

most membrane receptors have

A

hydrophobic domains that extend through the lipid bilayer

an extracellular domain that binds to the message

an intracellular domain that amplifies the signal

127
Q

membrane protiens that link the cell to extracellular structures are known as

A

tight junctions

128
Q

tight junctions separate cells into …. and ….. compartments

A

apical and basal

129
Q

junctions can be very selective and ……

A

leak proof

130
Q

what is the anchoring junction desmosome ?
what binds to these plaques?

A

intracellular component
a plaque that is formed of molecules associated with cadherins

intermediate filaments

extracellular component
- cadherins on one cell interact with cadherins on a neighbouring cell

purpose : structural integrity

131
Q

what is a hemi desmosome

A

extracellular component involves a protein known as integrin

plaque still binds to intermediate filament

integrin commonly binds to the basement membrane

usually how epitheilial cells stay anchored to the basement membrane and underlying connective tissue

132
Q

adherens junction

A

these junctions contain a plaque and may connect to :
- another cell
- a basement membrane - integrins

however they do not connect with intermediate filaments
MICROFILAMENTS

133
Q

the cytoskeleton permits the following

A

cellular movement
organization of cellular components
cellular structure
communiciation

134
Q

microtubules are responsible for

A
  • trafficing of organelles and cell division
  • organization of overall cellular structure
  • cellular movement
  • molecule - tubulin
135
Q

microfilaments

A
  • cellular movement
  • structural organization of the plasma membrane
  • molecule - actin
136
Q

intermediate filaments

A
  • overall structural integrity of the cell
  • variety of the molecules - keratins and desmin
137
Q

what are the features of the cytoskeleton

A

dynamic
- constantly building into polymer strands (actin)

tightly regulated
- filament assembly and disassembly is regulaed by
a huge array of intracellular signals
- structure and formation of polymers

can generate force
- many proteins interact with the strands of the
cytoskeleton
- generate power or motion in cells through
contraction

138
Q

momomer ..-actin polymer ….. - actin

A

G actin

F actin

139
Q

when F actin is formed …….

A

it spontaneously degrades
- each G actin is ATP bound

140
Q

overtime G actin hydrolyzes …. to ….. which makes it more likely that is will ……….. the F actin strand

A

ATP
ADP

fall off

141
Q

what does the stability of F actin depend on

A

concentration of G actin

caps that can be applied to F actin that prevent dissassemby

proteins that speed up or slow down the rate that G actin hydrolyzes ATP

nucleating factors or inhibitory factors

142
Q

a muscle cell needs actin to

A

generate alot of force

  • actin is long lasting and very precisely organized
143
Q

a fibroblast needs actin to

A

crawl to an area in order to deposit collagen

needs to explore its environemnt in order to find the right place to deposit collagen

therfore organized actin into meshes , fibers

144
Q

microtubules are made of 2 types of

A

tubulin

beta and alpha form dimers

  • organized in helical tube
  • beta monomers hydrolyze a nucleotide triphosphate
145
Q

dynamic instability is

A

tubilin cleaves GTP to GDP and phosphate

after GDP is cleaved, the dimer falls off of microtubule and it falls apart

146
Q

microtubules are important for

A

cellular organization
form a cellular scaffolding

147
Q

MTOC is composed of

A

2 centrioles that form a centrosome
- unique shape

148
Q

microtubules are important for

A

cellular movement
- cillia and flagella
cell division
- spilts chromosomes
signalling
- primary cillium found on most cells
- able to sense important stimuli in the extracellular environment

149
Q

F actin —> …….. is a protien that can “walk on the track”

A

myosin

150
Q

what is the purpose of intermediate filaments

A

much more diverse and stable than actin and tubulin

151
Q

what is a intermediate filament

A

a long protien with an alpha helix conformation that coils around other monomers to form dimers

152
Q

what are the 4 types of intermediate filaments

A

lamins , keratins , vimentin family , neurofilaments

153
Q

what is the function of lamins (intermediate filaments)

A

a network of filaments just under the nuclear membrane

154
Q

what is the function of keratins (intermediate filaments)

A

epithelial cells, hair, nails , modified to limit water permiability

155
Q

what is the vimentin family responsible for ? (intermediate filaments)

A

confer stablilty and structure to
- mesenchymal cells
- muscle cells, some epithelial cells
- glial cells

156
Q

what are neurofilaments responsible for? (intermediate filaments)

A

found in neurons

157
Q

nasal cavity and nasopharynx location

A

back of the nose and throat that leads to the larynx

158
Q

larynx structure

A

cartilaginous structure that contains the vocal cords

159
Q

the trachea structure

A

mid line , non paired conducting airway

160
Q

bronchi structure

A

branching airways that contain variable amounts of cartilage

161
Q

what are bronchioles

A

branching airways that lack cartilidge but are surrounded by smooth muscle

162
Q

what are alveoli

A

delicate, ballon like structures that are the main site of gas exchange

site of pulmanary microvasculature

163
Q

what is ventilation

A

skeltal muscles change the volume of the thoracic cavity causing pressure changes and air movement through the conducting air ways

164
Q

diffusion is known as the

A

respiratory exchange zone

165
Q

what are the components of the ventilatory apparatus

A

the lungs
the chest wall
muscles

166
Q

during inspiration the external intercostal muscles and diaphragm

A

contract

167
Q

inspiration causes volume of the thoracic cavity to … , causing a … in intrathoracic pressure

the drop in intrathoracic pressure causes a ….. of the airspaces of the lungs causing movement of air from …..

A

increases , decrease

drop in pressure, atomosphere into the lungs

168
Q

during expiration the diaphragm and external intercoastal muscles

A

relax

169
Q

during expiration the volume of the thoracic cavity …. causing an .. in intrathoracic pressure

A

decreases
increase

170
Q

how does the chest wall/ diaphram connect to the lungs

A

the pleura

171
Q

trachea , main bronchus , ……… , …….

A

lobar bronchus , segmental (tertiary) bronchus

172
Q

the inferior lobe spaces desend from the …. rib prosteriorly to the …. on deep inspiration

A

10th , 12th

173
Q

what are the rioles of the nasal cavity , nasophaynx and larnyx

A

warminf and moistning of air
phonoation(speaking)
protection of airways from foods and liquids

174
Q

pleural effusion is ……

causes?

A

fluid in the pleura space
- difficult for airways to expand
- difficult to hear breath sounds
- lungs dull to percussion
unilateral
cancer, infection , trauma
bilateral
congestion due to heart failure , bilateral infection

175
Q

consolidation is

causes?

A

gunk in the airways

  • fluid transmits sound in the airspaces better than air
  • dull to percussion
  • decreased breath sounds

coarse crackles
fine crackles

pneumia , OPD

176
Q

fluid in small airways

A

fine crackles

  • pulmanary edema

with pressure can collapse

177
Q

wheeze is

A

when a small airwat is narrowed or constricteed

  • high pitched musical sound

asthma , COPD , pul edema

178
Q

stridor is

A

when large airways are constricted or narrowed

  • louder harsh sound on inspiration

airway obstruction due to infection, trauma

Biomed (9 decks)

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