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Biology - Unit 1 Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What are emulsions?

A

Insoluble liquid droplets suspended in another liquid

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2
Q

What are suspensions?

A

Insoluble solid particles mixed with a liquid which needs to be stirred to stop it separating

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3
Q

Why does water have a high surface tension?

A

Its molecules form hydrogen bonds between each other but no such bonds form between the water and the air

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4
Q

What does amphoteric mean?

A

It can act as both an acid and a base

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5
Q

What is the biological use of water being a solvent?

A

Allows the chemical reactions within cells to take place in the water in the cell

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6
Q

What is the biological use of water having a high surface tension?

A

Used in plant transport systems

Life at the surface of ponds

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7
Q

What is the biological use of water being amphoteric?

A

Acts as a buffer

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8
Q

What are the main components of blood?

A

Plasma
Erythrocytes (Red blood cells)
Leucocytes (White blood cells)
Platelets

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9
Q

What are the main features of plasma in the blood?

A

Main component of blood
Consists largely of water
Contains lots of dissolved substances
Contains fibrinogen for blood clotting

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10
Q

What are the main features of red blood cells?

A 
Biconcave
High density
Contain haemoglobin
Formed in red bone marrow of long bones
Live for 120 days
No nucleus
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11
Q

What are the main features of white blood cells?

A 
Larger than erythrocytes
Can change their shape
Much lower density than red blood cells
Contain nucleus
Contain cytoplasm
Formed in white bone marrow of short bones or in lymph glands and spleen
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12
Q

What are the main features of platelets?

A

Fragments of megakaryocytes found in bone marrow

Involved in blood clotting

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13
Q

What are the functions of blood plasma?

A 
Transport digested food products
Transport food molecules to cells
Transport excretory products
Transports hormones
Maintain a steady body temperature
Act as a pH buffer
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14
Q

How do haemoglobin molecules release oxygen?

A

Oxygenated blood approaches tissues
Small decrease in partial pressure
Large decrease in % oxygen saturation
Oxygen released

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15
Q

How is carbon dioxide transported to the lungs?

A

Diffuses into red blood cells
Combines with water -> carbonic acid (catalysed by carbonic anhydrase)
Dissociates to H+ and hydrogencarbonate ions (H2CO3)
Haemoglobin accepts H+ ion
Haemoglobonic acid formed
H2CO3 diffuses out and Cl- in

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16
Q

What substances do the platelets release at a cut?

A

Serotonin - causes muscle contraction

Thromoplastin

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17
Q

What are the events of blood clotting?

A

Platelets release thromboplastin
Thromboplastin catalyses prothrombin and Ca2+ into thrombin
Thrombin catalyses fibrinogen into fibrin
Fibrin forms a mesh of fibres trapping particles
Clot forms

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18
Q

Where does the systemic circulation carry blood to and from?

A

Oxygenated from heart to cells

Deoxygenated back to the heart

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19
Q

Where does the pulmonary circulation carry blood to and from?

A

Deoxygenated from heart to lungs

Oxygenated back to the heart

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20
Q

What are the advantages of a double circulation system?

A

Separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood

Different pressures

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21
Q

Where do arteries carry blood?

A

From the heart to the cells

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22
Q

What blood do arteries transport?

A

Most carry oxygenated

Pulmonary to lungs and umbilical from foetus to placenta carry deoxygenated

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23
Q

What are the main features of arteries?

A 
High pressure
External layer of tough tissue
Middle layer of elastic fibres and smooth muscle
Smooth lining
Small lumen when unstretched
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24
Q

How does the structure of arteries change closer to the heart?

A

Larger lumen
More elastin fibres
Larger artery

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25
Q

What are the features of capillaries?

A

Link arterioles and venules
Thin walls for diffusion (one cell thick)
Large lumen

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26
Q

Where do the veins carry blood?

A

To the heart

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27
Q

What type of blood do the veins carry?

A

Most deoxygenated

Pulmonary to heart and umbilical from placenta into foetus carry oxygenated

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28
Q

What two veins carry the blood into the heart?

A

Inferior vena cava from lower body

Superior vena cava from upper body

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29
Q

What are the main feature of veins?

A 
Relatively large lumen
Smooth inner surface
Thin layer of smooth muscle with few elastic fibres
Outer tough layer
Can hold a large volume of blood
Contain semilunar valves
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30
Q

What muscle does the heart contain?

A

Cardiac

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31
Q

What properties does cardiac muscle have?

A

Doesn’t fatigue

Myogenic

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32
Q

What does the inferior vena cava do?

A

Carries deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the right atrium

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33
Q

What does the superior vena cava do?

A

Carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the right atrium

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34
Q

What type of blood does the right heart carry?

A

Deoxygenated

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35
Q

What type of blood does the left heart carry?

A

Oxygenated

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36
Q

What does the right atrium do?

A

Receives blood from the great veins
Opens tricuspid valve
Fills right ventricle with blood

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37
Q

What are the main features of the tricuspid valve?

A

Made of three flaps
Known as atrioventricular valve
Prevents back-flow
Tendinous cords prevent turning inside out

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38
Q

What does the right ventricle do?

A

Fills with high pressure blood from atrium

Pumps blood into pulmonary artery through semilunar valves

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39
Q

What are the main features of the pulmonary veins?

A

Returns blood from lungs to left atrium

Low pressure

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40
Q

Which side of the heart is more muscles?

A

The right side

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41
Q

What artery does the left ventricle pump blood through?

A

The aorta

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42
Q

What are the three stages of the cardiac cycle?

A

Atrial systole
Ventricular systole
Diastole

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43
Q

What happens in diastole?

A

The heart is relaxed
Semilunar valves closed and AV open
Heart fills with blood

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44
Q

What happens in atrial systole?

A

Atria contracts

Blood forced into ventricle

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45
Q

What happens in ventricular systole?

A

Ventricle contracts

Blood pumped out of the heart

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46
Q

What is intrinsic rhytmicity?

A

Where the hearts cells contracts in a rhythm before the heart is formed

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47
Q

What controls the heart rate?

A

The cardiovascular centre

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48
Q

How does atherosclerosis form?

A

Endothelial cells damaged
Lipids build-up
Platelets form cap over fatty plague

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49
Q

Where is atherosclerosis more likely to form?

A

Arteries

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50
Q

What can cause atherosclerosis?

A

High blood pressure

Smoking

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51
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Fatty deposit

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52
Q

What does atherosclerosis cause?

A

Increased blood pressure (smaller artery)
Aneurysm (weakened artery wall)
Split blood vessels
Stroke

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53
Q

What are the two most common types of heart disease?

A

Angina and myocardial infarction

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54
Q

What causes angina?

A

Plague build-up in coronary arteries
Heart muscle gets less oxygen
Heart muscle anaerobically respires
Pain in the chest

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55
Q

How is angina treated?

A 
Low-fat diet
Regular exercise
Losing weight
Not smoking
Drugs which cause dilation
Heart bypass surgery
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56
Q

What cause a heart attack (Myocardial infarction)?

A

Blocked coronary artery

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57
Q

What is a clot formed in a blood vessel called?

A

Thrombosis

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58
Q

What causes a stroke?

A

Interruption in blood supply to the brain

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59
Q

What are the symptoms of stroke?

A 
Dizziness
Confusion
Slurred speech
Blurred vision
Numbness
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60
Q

What are the treatments for strokes?

A

Clot-busting drugs

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61
Q

What are the macronutrients we need in our diet?

A

Carbohydrates
Proteins
Fats/lipids

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62
Q

What are the micronutrients we need in our diet?

A

Mineral salts

Vitamins

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63
Q

Why do we need carbohydrates?

A

Energy

Broken down into glucose

64
Q

Why do we need lipids in our diet?

A

Energy

Excess stored as body fat

65
Q

Why do we need protein in our diet?

A

Broken down into amino acids

Some amino acids the body does not make

66
Q

Why do we need mineral salts?

A

Calcium - skeleton/ teeth, contraction and clotting

Sodium - nerves to work, contraction and heartbeat

67
Q

Why do we need vitamin C?

A

Form connective tissue

Prevent scurvy

68
Q

What does scurvy cause?

A

Bleeding gums
Easy bruising
Painful joints

69
Q

Why do we need fibre?

A

Holds water

Provides bulk for the intestinal muscles

70
Q

What are the main features of monosaccharides?

A

Sugars(CH2O)n

Join in condensation reaction

71
Q

What are the main features of disaccharides?

A

Form in condensation reaction
Glycosidic bond
(C6H10O5)n

72
Q

What are the main features of sucrose?

A

Stored in plants like sugar beet/cane
Glucose + fructose
1,4 - glycosidic bond

73
Q

What are the main features of lactose?

A

Found in milk
Glucose + galactose
1,4 - glycosidic bond

74
Q

What are the main features of maltose?

A

Found in germinating seed like barley
Glucose + glucose
1,4 - glycosidic bond

75
Q

What are the main features of amylose?

A

Only 1,4 - glycosidic bonds
Single chain
Forms a spiral

76
Q

What are the main features of amylopectin?

A

1,4 - glycosidic bonds and 1,6 - glycosidic bonds

Branched

77
Q

What reaction breaks disaccharides?

A

Hydrolysis

78
Q

What is starch made up of?

A

Amylose and amylopectin

Can be store of energy or for sudden release

79
Q

What are the main features of glycogen?

A

1,4 - glycosidic bonds and 1,6 - glycosidic bonds
Animal starch
Compact
Many side branches

80
Q

What are the main features of lipids?

A

Good insulators

Made of three fatty acids and a glycerol

81
Q

What is glycerol?

A

Propan-1,2,3-triol

All on same side

82
Q

How do glycerol and a fatty acids combine?

A

Esterification/condensation reaction
Ester bond formed
If three fatty acids on - triglyceride

83
Q

In what reaction do amino acids react together?

A

Condensation reactions

Peptide bond

84
Q

What is the formula of an amino acid?

A

NCC
NH2
H-C-R
COOH

85
Q

What bonds are in proteins?

A

Peptide bonds
Hydrogen bonds
Sulphur bridges (R group)
Ionic bonds

86
Q

What is the primary structure of a protein?

A

Linear sequence of amino acids in a peptide

87
Q

What is the secondary structure of a protein?

A

The repeating pattern in the structure of the peptide chains
a-helix
B-pleated sheet

88
Q

What is the tertiary structure of a protein?

A

The 3D folding of the secondary structure

89
Q

What is the quaternary structure of a protein?

A

The 3D arrangement of more than one tertiary polypeptide

90
Q

What are the main features of fibrous proteins?

A

Little or no tertiary structure
Long, parallel polypeptide chains with occasional cross-linkages forming fibres
Insoluble in water
Tough

91
Q

What are the main features of globular proteins?

A

Complex tertiary and maybe quaternary structures
Folded into spherical shapes
Form a colloid

92
Q

What are the main features of a conjugated protein?

A

Joined to prosthetic group

Haemoglobin

93
Q

What are lipoproteins?

A

Proteins conjugated with lipids

Low-density (LDL) or HDL

94
Q

What is the basal metabolic rate?

A

Minimum energy needed to live

95
Q

How is BMI calculated?

A

Weight (kg) / height^2 (m^2)

96
Q

What is risk?

A

The probability that a particular event will happen

97
Q

What is valid?

A

Properly designed to answer the questions being asked

98
Q

What is reliable?

A

Repeatable

99
Q

What factors can affect risk of CVD?

A 
Smoking
Weight
Exercise
Stress
Diet - want less LDL and more HDL
100
Q

What are drugs that reduce blood pressure?

A

Antihypertensives

101
Q

What are some antihypertensives and how do they work?

A

Diuretics - Urinate - remove excess so less blood
Beta blockers - slow heart rate
Sympathetic nerve inhibitors - prevent rise in blood pressure
ACE inhibitors - prevent angiotensin from being produced - no constriction

102
Q

How do statins work?

A

Lower cholesterol levels
Improve LDL and HDL balance
Reduce inflammation

103
Q

What are side effects of statins?

A

Very small chance of fatal muscle inflammation

Small chance of liver failure

104
Q

What are plant stanols (sterols)?

A

Similar to cholesterol

Reduce amount of cholesterol absorbed

105
Q

What are some anticoagulants and what do they do?

A

Warfarin - Interferes with prothrombin production

Platelet inhibitor drugs- make platelets less sticky

106
Q

What are colloids?

A

Solutions with larger solute particles than solvent particles

107
Q

What are the two types of nitrogen- containing bases?

A

Purine - two rings. A and G

Pyrimidines - one nitrogen-containing ring. C, T and U

108
Q

What is the phosphate group made of?

A

(PO4)^3-

109
Q

What holds together the two strands in DNA?

A

Hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs

110
Q

What is the process of DNA replication?

A

DNA helicase splits strands
Free nucleotides form hydrogen bonds
DNA polymerase and DNA ligase join nucleotides together

111
Q

What is the type of replication involved in DNA replication?

A

Semi conservative

112
Q

How was it discovered that the method of DNA replication is semi conservative?

A

Grew e. Coli in medium with only 15N
Transferred to medium with only normal 14N
All DNA same density so semiconservative

113
Q

What are nucleotides made of?

A

Phosphate
Pentose sugar
Organic nitrogenous base

114
Q

Where does transcription occur?

A

In the nucleus

115
Q

Where does translation occur?

A

On the surface of ribosomes

116
Q

Which strand of DNA acts as a template for mRNA?

A

The antisense strand

117
Q

What is the method of translation?

A 
mRNA engulfed by ribosome
tRNA attaches to specific amino acids
tRNA molecule lines up against matching mRNA on ribosome
Peptide links formed between amino acids
tRNAs unbind to pick up more amino acids
118
Q

What is a mutation?

A

A change in the genetic code

119
Q

What are point mutations?

A

One or a small number of nucleotides miscopied

120
Q

What are chromosomal mutations?

A

Changes in gene position within the chromosomes

121
Q

What are gene deletion mutations?

A

Where a gene or set of genes are not copied

122
Q

What is duplication mutation?

A

Where a gene or set of genes are copied multiple times

123
Q

What are inversion mutations?

A

Where genes switch positions

124
Q

What is s translocation mutation?

A

Where genes are copied onto the wrong chromosome

125
Q

What are whole-chromosome mutations?

A

Where an entire chromosome is lost during meiosis or duplicated in one cell by errors in the process

126
Q

What are anabolic reactions?

A

Reactions that build up new chemicals

127
Q

What are catabolic reactions?

A

Reactions that break substances down

128
Q

What is enzyme specificity?

A

Only catalyse specific reactions

129
Q

What names do enzymes have?

A

Recommended name - urease
Systematic name
Classification number

130
Q

What is the induced-fit hypothesis?

A

Active site not fully complementary to substrate until substrate fits into it

131
Q

What is an enzymes molecular activity (turnover number)?

A

The number of substrate molecules transformed per minute by a single enzyme molecule

132
Q

What is the temperature coefficient of an enzyme?

A

Rate of reaction at x+10C / rate of reaction at xC

133
Q

What is a genes locus?

A

Its position on a chromosome

134
Q

What is polygenic?

A

Controlled by several interacting genes

135
Q

What is Thalassaemia?

A 
Genetic disorder
Affect haemoglobin polypeptide chains
Prevents formation of either a or B chains in haemoglobin
Symptoms of anaemia
No cure
Treated by blood infusion
136
Q

What is alpha Thalassaemia?

A

Polygenic inheritance
Commonly caused by gene deletion
Various severities
Milder increases malaria resistance

137
Q

What is beta Thalassaemia?

A

Mutations on one gene
Various severities
Most severe: Cooley’s anaemia
Recessive allele

138
Q

What is albinism?

A

Melanin pigment does not form
Polygenic mutations
E.g. Tyrosinase not formed so no melanin produced
Recessive allele

139
Q

What are multifactorial diseases?

A

Cause by combination of genes and lifestyle

140
Q

What is the cell membrane structure?

A 
Phospholipid bilayer (fatty acid tails away from solution)
Membrane proteins
Fluid mosaic model
141
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

Diffusion across a membrane through a protein

142
Q

What is an isotonic solution?

A

Same osmotic concentration inside and outside

143
Q

What is a hypotonic solution?

A

Osmotic concentration of solution lower than that of the cells

144
Q

What is Fick’s law?

A

Rate of diffusion= (surface area * concentration)/exchange membrane thickness

145
Q

What is the structure of an alveoli?

A

Folded sac - high surface area
Lung surfactant - prevents collapse
Thin walls
Steep concentration gradient

146
Q

What is the method of keeping mucus runny?

A

Chloride ions pumped into epithelial cells from surrounding tissue fluid
Chloride ions diffuse into fluid in airways through chloride channels(CFTR channels)
CFTR channel proteins prevent sodium ion exit from airways
Water moves out of cells and mixes with mucus

147
Q

What does cystic fibrosis cause?

A

The CFTR channel to not work

Thick, sticky mucus

148
Q

What are symptoms of cystic fibrosis?

A

Severe coughing fits - mucus build-up in lungs
Breathless
Pathogen build-up in lungs
Prevents digestive enzyme movement to gut - improper digestion and stay in pancreas (damage to pancreas)
More difficult for digested food to be absorbed into blood
Blocked cervix/tube carrying sperm out
Salty sweat

149
Q

What are treatments of cystic fibrosis?

A 
Physiotherapy
Balanced diet
Enzymes taken with food
Drug therapies
Transplant
Infertility treatments
Gene therapy
150
Q

How does gene therapy work?

A

Restriction endonuclease cuts out gene and cuts plasmid
DNA ligase joins plasmid and gene
Recombinant DNA produced
Vector inserted

151
Q

What are problems with gene therapy?

A

Extracellular barriers
Intercellular barriers
Keeping the gene expression going

152
Q

What are methods of genetic screening?

A

Amniocentesis
Chorionic villus sampling
Preimplantation genetic diagnosis

153
Q

How does amniocentesis work?

A

16th week of pregnancy
Amniotic fluid removed
Cells cultured

154
Q

What are the disadvantages of amniocentesis?

A

Late in pregnancy
2-3 weeks before results
1% risk of spontaneous abortion

155
Q

How does chorionic villus sampling work?

A

8-10 weeks of pregnancy

Embryonic tissue taken

156
Q

What are the disadvantages of chorionic villus sampling?

A

2.5-4.8% risk of spontaneous abortion

Can’t detect problems in paternal X chromosomes

157
Q

How does preimplantation genetic diagnosis work?

A

Egg and cell fertilised outside body
Secondary oocyte removed from each embryo
Genetic makeup checked and best implanted

Biology (5 decks)

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