Biology and physics (year 10) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is evolution, and how is it defined in scientific terms?

A

Evolution is the gradual change in the physical characteristics of living organisms over many generations, often due to natural selection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is biogeography, and how does it contribute to the evidence of evolution?

A

Biogeography is the study of the past and present distribution of living organisms, and it helps provide evidence for the common ancestry of species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is comparative anatomy, and how does it support the theory of evolution?

A

Comparative anatomy involves comparing features of different species to find evidence of a common ancestor, providing support for evolutionary relationships.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are homologous structures, and how do they relate to evolutionary evidence?

A

Homologous structures are parts of organisms that show evidence of a common ancestor, reinforcing the idea of shared ancestry among species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are vestigial structures, and how do they provide evidence for evolution?

A

Vestigial structures are parts of an organism that have lost some or all of their original function, indicating evolutionary changes over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some examples of vestigial structures in humans?

A

Examples include wisdom teeth, the appendix, nipples on men, and tonsils, which have limited or no useful function in modern humans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is comparative embryology, and how does it contribute to the evidence of evolution?

A

Comparative embryology involves studying the development of embryos in different species to identify shared traits and common ancestry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does the presence of branchial arches in embryos relate to evidence for evolution?

A

Branchial arches in embryos of different species suggest shared ancestry and common features, supporting evolutionary relationships.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is genetic evidence, and how does it provide support for the theory of evolution?

A

Genetic evidence involves comparing DNA and protein sequences to reveal similarities and differences among species, reinforcing the concept of common ancestry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the Human Genome Project, and how does it contribute to genetic evidence for evolution?

A

The Human Genome Project mapped the DNA of humans, enabling the comparison of DNA from different species to identify genetic similarities, supporting the concept of a common ancestor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are proteins, and how are they related to genetic evidence for evolution?

A

Proteins are molecules made of amino acids and play vital roles in living organisms. Amino acid sequences in proteins can be analyzed to assess the relatedness of species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does comparing amino acid sequences in proteins help determine species relatedness?

A

Small differences in amino acid sequences suggest closely related species, while large differences indicate that common ancestors lived long ago.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is cytochrome C, and how does it contribute to genetic evidence for evolution?

A

Cytochrome C is a protein involved in aerobic respiration and is found in many animals and plants. It provides a basis for analyzing genetic similarities. The fewer differences in cytochrome C sequences between species, the more recently they shared a common ancestor, providing compelling evidence for the theory of evolution. The more differences signify a more distant common ancestor, helping to establish the evolutionary relationships between various organisms and supporting the idea of species gradually changing over time. This molecular evidence adds a valuable layer of support to the broader body of evidence demonstrating evolutionary processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is biogeography, and how does it contribute to the evidence of evolution?

A

Biogeography is the study of the past and present distribution of living organisms, and it offers evidence by comparing fossils from different continents to demonstrate species migration and common ancestry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Can you provide an example of evidence for evolution from Australian marsupials?

A

Australian marsupials have common features with South American marsupials, suggesting they evolved from a common ancestor millions of years ago when the continents were connected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does the distribution of flightless birds (Ratites) provide evidence for evolution?

A

The distribution of flightless birds suggests that they originated from a common ancestor on Gondwana, and as continents drifted apart, different populations evolved on isolated southern continents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are fossils, and how do they contribute to the understanding of evolution?

A

Fossils are the remains, impressions, or traces of long-dead organisms, and they help reveal the history of life on Earth and how species have changed over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the fossil record, and what information does it provide?

A

The fossil record is a record of all fossils found on Earth, showing how organisms have evolved from simpler to more complex forms over geologic time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How are fossils formed, and what conditions are necessary for their preservation?

A

Fossils are formed when organisms are quickly protected, buried in sediment, hardened, and gradually brought closer to the surface through geological processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the main types of fossils, and how do they differ?

A

The main types of fossils include original fossils, indirect or trace fossils, mould fossils, mineralized or cast fossils, mummified organisms, and carbon film fossils, each preserving organisms in various ways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does the fossil record support the theory of evolution?

A

The fossil record shows that older fossils represent simpler organisms, while younger fossils show more complex ones, providing evidence for the gradual evolution of life on Earth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the two main methods for dating fossils, and how do they work?

A

Relative dating compares fossils to surrounding layers, while absolute dating uses radioactive minerals in rocks to calculate numerical ages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is half-life in the context of dating fossils?

A

Half-life is the time required for half of the atoms of a radioactive substance to become stable, which is used in absolute dating methods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does the geological time scale reveal the progression of complexity in living organisms?

A

The geological time scale shows that older fossils represent simpler organisms, while younger fossils exhibit more complex forms, supporting the theory of evolution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is natural selection, and how does it drive evolutionary changes?

A

Natural selection is the process where organisms better suited to their environment tend to survive, reproduce, and pass beneficial traits to the next generation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Who is the scientist known for proposing natural selection and evolution in his book “The Origin of Species”?

A

Charles Darwin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the five key elements of Darwin’s theory of natural selection?

A

The five key elements are overproduction, variation, competition, selection or adaptation, and speciation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Who was Jean-Baptiste Lamarck, and what was his theory of evolution?

A

Lamarck believed in the inheritance of acquired traits, where organisms modified themselves during their lifetime, and these acquired traits were passed to offspring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What did Charles Darwin discover about finches during his expedition to the Galapagos Islands?

A

Darwin discovered that finches on the Galapagos Islands had different beaks adapted to their specific food sources, providing evidence for natural selection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do mosquitoes develop resistance to pesticides, and what does this illustrate about natural selection?

A

Mosquitoes develop resistance to pesticides through natural selection favoring resistant individuals, reducing the effectiveness of pesticides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria illustrate natural selection?

A

Antibiotic-resistant bacteria evolve when antibiotics are overused, allowing resistant strains to survive and reproduce.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is the concept of half-life used in the context of radioactive dating?

A

Half-life is a fundamental concept in radioactive dating that measures the time required for half of the atoms in a radioactive substance to become stable or decay. This concept is applied in radiometric dating methods, such as carbon dating or uranium-lead dating. By measuring the remaining amount of radioactive material in a sample and knowing the half-life of the radioactive isotope, scientists can calculate the age of the sample. For example, in carbon dating, the isotope carbon-14 decays with a known half-life, and by comparing the ratio of carbon-14 to carbon-12 in a sample, the age of organic materials can be determined. The shorter the remaining half-life, the more accurate the dating method is for relatively young materials, while longer half-lives are used for older specimens, providing a powerful tool for estimating the ages of fossils and rocks in the geological record.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does the geological time scale reveal the progression of complexity in living organisms?

A

The geological time scale is a chronological framework that organizes Earth’s history into distinct time intervals. It shows that older fossils, found in lower rock layers, typically represent simpler life forms, such as single-celled organisms and simple invertebrates. In contrast, younger fossils, found in higher rock layers, exhibit more complex life forms, including vertebrates and eventually mammals and humans. This progressive increase in complexity observed in the fossil record aligns with the theory of evolution, indicating that life on Earth evolved gradually from simpler to more intricate forms over geological time. The geological time scale, by illustrating this pattern of increasing complexity, provides crucial evidence for the theory of evolution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is natural selection, and how does it drive evolutionary changes?

A

Natural selection, often referred to as “survival of the fittest,” is the process by which organisms better adapted to their environment tend to survive and reproduce more successfully. This leads to the passing on of beneficial traits to subsequent generations. Natural selection operates through several key principles:

  1. Overproduction: In any generation, there are more offspring produced than can survive, resulting in competition for limited resources.
  2. Variation: Individuals within a population display genetic variation, leading to differences in traits or characteristics.
  3. Competition: Individuals with more favorable traits are better equipped to compete for resources and survive in their environment.
  4. Selection/Adaptation: Those with advantageous traits are more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass on these traits to their offspring.
  5. Speciation: Over many generations, the advantageous traits become more common in the population, potentially leading to the emergence of new species.

Natural selection is a fundamental mechanism of evolution, explaining how species change and adapt to their surroundings over time. It helps shape the diversity of life on Earth by favoring traits that enhance an organism’s chances of survival and reproduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the five key elements of Darwin’s theory of natural selection?

A

Darwin’s theory of natural selection comprises five key elements:

  1. Overproduction: Organisms produce more offspring than can survive, leading to competition for resources.
  2. Variation: Individuals within a population exhibit genetic diversity, resulting in differences in traits.
  3. Competition: Individuals with more advantageous traits have a better chance of surviving and reproducing.
  4. Selection/Adaptation: Favorable traits become more prevalent in a population over time.
  5. Speciation: The accumulation of advantageous traits can eventually lead to the formation of new species.

These elements describe the fundamental principles that drive the process of natural selection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Can you provide an example of natural selection in action in the animal kingdom?

A

One classic example of natural selection is the change in the color of peppered moths in response to industrial pollution during the 19th and 20th centuries in England. Prior to pollution, most peppered moths had pale coloration, which camouflaged them against lichen-covered tree trunks. However, as industrialization darkened the tree trunks with soot and pollution, darker moths became better camouflaged, making them less vulnerable to predation by birds. Over time, the frequency of dark-colored moths in the population increased as they had a survival advantage, demonstrating the process of natural selection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is antibiotic resistance, and how does it relate to natural selection?

A

Antibiotic resistance is the ability of bacteria to evolve and develop mechanisms to withstand the effects of antibiotics, rendering these drugs less effective in treating infections. The phenomenon of antibiotic resistance is a direct result of natural selection. Here’s how it works:

  1. Bacteria are exposed to antibiotics as a form of treatment.
  2. Within a bacterial population, there is genetic variation, and some bacteria may have inherent resistance to the antibiotic.
    In the presence of antibiotics, only the bacteria with resistant traits survive, as they are not affected by the drug.
  3. Over time, the surviving, antibiotic-resistant bacteria reproduce and pass on their resistant traits to their offspring.
  4. As a result, the population becomes increasingly dominated by antibiotic-resistant strains, and the effectiveness of antibiotics diminishes.

This process illustrates how natural selection operates on a rapid timescale, favoring those organisms with traits that enhance their survival and reproduction, even in the face of human intervention, such as the use of antibiotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define adaptation.

A

A change in the structure or function of a species over a long time that makes it better suited to its environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a gene?

A

A unit of hereditary information passed from parents to offspring, composed of DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define genetic variation.

A

The differences in genes within individuals of a population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How does genetic variation impact the survival of a population?

A

Genetic variation is essential for the continuation of life on Earth as it allows for adaptation to changing environments. It enables natural selection to produce populations that are well-suited to their surroundings. However, a lack of genetic diversity can make populations vulnerable to environmental changes, hindering their ability to adapt and survive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What environmental factors can influence the survival of organisms?

A

Several environmental factors can affect the survival of organisms, including sunlight, temperature, wind, soil quality, pH, and water availability. Organisms typically thrive within specific temperature ranges and rely on factors like resource availability, mates, the presence of predators, and population density.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How do humans impact the survival of other species through their activities?

A

Human activities, such as habitat destruction, have a detrimental effect on the environment and can lead to the extinction of many species. Efforts in conservation management, including the creation of protected areas, reducing deforestation, sustainable resource use, and protection of vulnerable species, help mitigate the negative impact of human activities on the survival of other species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

define gamete

A

A sex cell, either an ovum (egg) or sperm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is menstruation?

A

The monthly discharge of blood and tissue from the lining of the uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is an ovum?

A

A female sex cell, also known as an egg. Ova contain genetic material and are the largest human cells, visible to the naked eye. An ovum is 0.12 mm in diameter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is semen?

A

A protective fluid that contains sperm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Sperm is…

A

A male sex cell.

51
Q

What are the key structures and functions of the female reproductive system?

A

The female reproductive system includes the ovary (releases eggs and produces female sex hormones), cervix (small opening to the uterus), fallopian tubes (where fertilization occurs), uterus (where the fertilized egg implants), and vagina (where the penis is inserted during sex).

52
Q

What are the primary hormones involved in the female reproductive system, and what are their functions?

A

Oestrogen is involved in the development of characteristics at puberty, while progesterone helps regulate the menstrual cycle and prepare the uterus for pregnancy.

53
Q

What are the key structures and functions of the male reproductive system?

A

The male reproductive system includes the urethra (empties the bladder of urine and allows passage of semen), penis (contains sponge-like tissue for erection), ejaculatory duct (delivers sperm into urethra), prostate gland, seminal vesicle (secrete fluids for ejaculation), vas deferens, epididymis (where sperm are stored), testis (produces sperm and testosterone), and scrotum (regulates testes’ temperature).

54
Q

What is heredity, and how are traits passed down from parents to offspring?

A

Heredity is the passing of traits from parents to offspring. Traits are passed down through genes, segments of DNA, which are found in chromosomes. DNA, found in the cell nucleus, contains the genetic information for these traits.

55
Q

What is the role of genes in heredity, and how do genes determine physical characteristics?

A

Genes are segments of DNA that serve as the basic functional units of heredity. Some genes code for proteins that make up various bodily tissues and characteristics. These genes form an individual’s genotype, which, in turn, determines their phenotype, the physically expressed traits.

56
Q

What are autosomes and allosomes, and how do they relate to human inheritance?

A

Autosomes are non-sex chromosomes, and humans have 22 pairs of them. The 23rd pair consists of the sex chromosomes, allosomes, which determine an individual’s gender (XX for females and XY for males).

57
Q

What is a karyotype, and how can it be used to check for chromosomal abnormalities?

A

A karyotype is a picture of an individual’s full set of chromosomes, and it can be used to observe the appearance and number of chromosomes. Scientists use karyotypes to detect chromosomal abnormalities such as aneuploidy.

58
Q

What is DNA replication, and what are mutations in DNA?

A

DNA replication is the process of copying DNA when a new cell is formed. Mutations are errors in DNA caused by substitutions, insertions, or deletions of one or more bases. Mutations can lead to changes in genetic information and can impact traits and characteristics.

59
Q

Describe the Watson-Crick model of DNA and its significance.

A

The Watson-Crick model of DNA is a double-stranded twisted helix with a sugar-phosphate backbone. It features four nitrogenous bases (adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine) connected by hydrogen bonds. This model, presented by James Watson and Francis Crick, provides the accepted structure of DNA, with contributions from Rosalind Franklin’s X-ray evidence.

60
Q

What is the structure of DNA according to the Watson-Crick model, and how do the nitrogenous bases play a crucial role in DNA’s structure?

A

According to the Watson-Crick model, DNA is a double-stranded twisted helix with a sugar-phosphate backbone. The nitrogenous bases (adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine) pair up to connect the two backbones through hydrogen bonds. This base-pairing is critical for DNA’s structure and function.

61
Q

How is DNA replication essential for life, and when does it occur?

A

DNA replication is essential because it ensures that genetic information is passed on accurately to new cells during cell division. It occurs whenever new cells are formed, enabling the transmission of genetic instructions from one generation to the next.

62
Q

Describe the process of DNA replication. What are the key steps involved?

A
  1. DNA helicase unzips the old DNA molecule.
  2. DNA polymerase replicates the DNA by matching bases to the original strand. This is done in an anti-parallel manner.
  3. Enzymes proofread the new strand for errors.
  4. two anti-parallel, semi-conservative daughter molecules of DNA are produced.

The resulting DNA molecule is referred to as a ‘daughter molecule.’

63
Q

What are the terms “semi-conservative” and “anti-parallel” concerning DNA replication?

A

Semi-conservative refers to the production of two DNA copies, each containing one strand of the original DNA and one entirely new strand. Anti-parallel means that the two DNA strands are side by side but run in opposite directions.

64
Q

Explain the role of DNA polymerase in DNA replication.

A

DNA polymerase is responsible for adding nucleotides to the growing DNA chain during replication. It helps match complementary bases to the original DNA strand.

65
Q

What is the function of ligase in DNA replication?

A

Ligase is responsible for “gluing” together DNA fragments, ensuring the formation of two new daughter DNA strands during replication.

66
Q

Define “mutation” in the context of DNA replication. What are the three main types of mutations?

A

A mutation is an error in DNA caused by a substitution, insertion, or deletion of one or more bases. The three main types of mutations are substitution (different base incorrectly inserted), insertion (one or more extra bases inserted by mistake), and deletion (one or more bases removed).

67
Q

How do mutations in DNA have both advantages and disadvantages? Provide examples of each.

A

Advantages of mutations include bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics and pesticide resistance. Disadvantages include causing cancer, birth defects, and fertility problems. The likelihood of mutations increases with age, and some can be passed on to offspring.

68
Q

Explain the importance of cell division for the growth and development of organisms.

A

Cell division is necessary for repairing tissues, replacing dead cells, and allowing for reproduction. It’s essential for the growth and development of organisms.

69
Q

What are the two ways in which cells can reproduce? Describe each.

A

Ordinary body cells (e.g., brain and skin cells) reproduce through mitosis.
Sex cells (sperm and ova) reproduce through meiosis.

70
Q

Define mitosis. What are the key stages involved in mitosis?

A

Mitosis is the process of cell division where a diploid cell divides into two daughter cells, each receiving a perfect copy of their parent cell’s chromosomes. The key stages of mitosis are interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase & cytokinesis.

71
Q

Explain the process of meiosis. What is its significance in sexual reproduction?

A

Meiosis occurs in the cells of the ovaries and testes, producing gametes with only one of each type of chromosome (haploid). Fertilization combines these gametes to restore the diploid number of chromosomes in the zygote, enabling genetic diversity in sexual reproduction.

72
Q

What are the key steps that occur in interphase?

A

Interphase is the first part of the cell life cycle of somatic body cells, which occurs just before the mitotic phase. During interphase, the cell prepares itself for division by duplicating its DNA and organelles.

73
Q

What are the key steps that occur in prophase?

A

During prophase, chromatin, which is a loose combination of DNA and proteins, condenses into visible, tightly coiled structures known as chromosomes.
Each chromosome consists of two identical sister chromatids connected at a centromere.
The nuclear envelope starts to break down, allowing the spindle fibers (microtubules) to access the chromosomes.
The spindle fibers extend from centrosomes, which are structures near the nucleus.

74
Q

What are the key steps that occur in metaphase?

A

In metaphase, the condensed chromosomes align along the cell’s equatorial plane, known as the metaphase plate.
The spindle fibers attach to the centromeres of the chromosomes. This alignment ensures that the sister chromatids will be separated equally during the following stages.

75
Q

What are the key steps that occur in anaphase?

A

During anaphase, the sister chromatids are pulled apart as the spindle fibers shorten. This separation is a crucial step, ensuring that each daughter cell will receive an identical set of chromosomes.
The chromatids, now individual chromosomes, migrate to opposite poles of the cell.

76
Q

What are the key steps that occur in telophase and cytokinesis?

A

In telophase, the separated chromosomes reach the opposite ends (poles) of the cell.
A new nuclear envelope starts forming around each set of chromosomes, effectively creating two new nuclei.
The spindle fibers begin to disassemble.
The cell undergoes a process called cytokinesis, which physically splits the cell into two distinct daughter cells.

77
Q

define acceleration:

A

A change in speed or direction in motion over time.

78
Q

what is force?

A

A push, pull, or twist.

79
Q

Define matter

A

The amount of matter that something consists of.

80
Q

What’s a newton?

A

The unit of measurement of force.

81
Q

Summarise Newton’s 2nd Law:

A

Acceleration depends on mass and the size of the force being applied.
The acceleration of an object is proportional to the force applied and inversely proportional to the mass of the object.
If force is increased on fixed mass, acceleration increases.
If you use the same force but increase the mass, acceleration decreases.
An object accelerates when an unbalanced force acts upon it to change its motion.

82
Q

Define speed, distance and time.

A

Distance: The amount of space between two points.
Speed: The distance an object travels divided by the time taken.
Time: How long it takes an object to travel a certain distance.

83
Q

Speed, distance and time equations.

A

An object moves faster when it travels a greater distance in a certain time or covers a set distance in a shorter time.

Speed = Distance ÷ Time
Time = Distance ÷ Speed
Distance = Speed × Time

84
Q

What is speed measured in?

A

Speed is measured in meters per second (m/s) or kilometers per hour (km/h).

85
Q

What is distance measured in?

A

Distance is measured in meters (m) or kilometers (km).

86
Q

What is time measured in?

A

Time is measured in seconds (s) or hours (h).

87
Q

Average speed is:

A

The average over the whole journey. I.e., the total distance traveled divided by the total time elapsed.

88
Q

Instantaneous speed is:

A

The speed at a particular instant of time, measured using a ticker timer.

89
Q

Define displacement:

A

The distance an object is from its starting point.

90
Q

Define Distance:

A

The total length an object travels.

91
Q

Whats a Scalar quantity?

A

A quantity that has magnitude but no direction.

92
Q

Whats a vector quantity?

A

A quantity that has both magnitude and direction.

93
Q

Define velocity.

A

A measure of how quickly displacement changes.

94
Q

Velocity equations:

A

Velocity = Displacement ÷ Time

95
Q

What do distance-time graphs show?

A

Distance-time graphs show the total distance traveled by an object as time progresses. Time is on the x-axis, and the slope indicates the average speed.

96
Q

What do displacement time graphs show?

A

Displacement-time graphs show how an object’s position changes compared to where it started.

97
Q

What do speed-time graphs show?

A

Provide more information, and the area under the graph gives the distance the object has traveled up to that point.

98
Q

When does an object accelerate?

A

An object accelerates when an unbalanced force acts upon it to change its motion.

99
Q

An object speeding up is experiencing…

A

positive acceleration.

100
Q

Object slowing down experiences…

A

negative acceleration or deceleration.

101
Q

Object stationary or moving at a constant speed experiences….

A

zero acceleration.

102
Q

What is the formula to find final velocity and what values do you need to utilise it?

A

It is v=u + at

You need acceleration (a), initial velocity (u), final velocity (v), and time taken for change in velocity (t).

a in m/s^2, u and v in m/s, and t in s.

(U)nderstand (A)ll (T)he (V)elocity.

or

(U)nderstand (A)cceleration, (T)ime, (V)elocity.

103
Q

What is the formula to find initial velocity and what values do you need to utilise it?

A

u=v - at

You need acceleration (a), initial velocity (u), final velocity (v), and time taken for change in velocity (t).

a in m/s^2, u and v in m/s, and t in s.

(U)nderstand (A)ll (T)he (V)elocity.

or

(U)nderstand (A)cceleration, (T)ime, (V)elocity.

104
Q

What’s the acceleration equation and what values do you need to utilise it?

A

a = (v-u)/t

You need acceleration (a), initial velocity (u), final velocity (v), and time taken for change in velocity (t).

a in m/s^2, u and v in m/s, and t in s.

(U)nderstand (A)ll (T)he (V)elocity.

or

(U)nderstand (A)cceleration, (T)ime, (V)elocity.

105
Q

What is the equation to find time when you have initial and final velocity and acceleration?

A

t = (v-u)/a

You need acceleration (a), initial velocity (u), final velocity (v), and time taken for change in velocity (t).

a in m/s^2, u and v in m/s, and t in s.

(U)nderstand (A)ll (T)he (V)elocity.

or

(U)nderstand (A)cceleration, (T)ime, (V)elocity.

106
Q

What is the displacement-acceleration equation and what values are needed to utilise it?

A

x = ut + (1/2)at^2

x= displacement in m
u = initial velocity in m/s
a = acceleration in m/s^2
t = time in s

or

Xora and Tasmim Are Ugly.

107
Q

Advantages of DNA replication.

A

There are many advantages associated with DNA replication. Firstly, due to its semi conservative nature, specialised cells create identical cells which carry the same genetic information as the parent cell. This is vital as they are able to create identical amino acids and proteins which provide the structure and function for differentiated cells. For example, specialised muscle cells undergo DNA replication to create identical muscle cells that are able to produce the proteins required to carry out its specialised function, contraction and relaxation. Moreover, by creating identical DNA the chances of mutations are avoided which ensures that the organism will continue to grow, repair and develop.

108
Q

Disadvantages of DNA replication.

A

On the other hand, with advantages comes disadvantages. Although, DNA replication avoids mutations there is always a chance of mutations occurring due to natural and environmental processes (exposure to UV or nuclear radiation). If these cells are affected by mutations and errors during DNA replication, they may form cancerous cells which will duplicate via mitosis and lead to tumours. Additionally, if DNA replication fails to create identical copies this will not create differentiated cells that are able to carry out their specialised function.

109
Q

Three-step summary of DNA replication (3 words).

A

Initiation (at the replication fork).
Elongation.
Termination.

110
Q

What is biotechnology?

A

Biotechnology is the use of living organisms to develop products.

111
Q

What does IVF stand for, and when is it used?

A

IVF stands for “In Vitro Fertilization.” It is used when there are issues like advanced maternal age, damaged fallopian tubes, difficulty in natural pregnancy, low sperm count, genetic factors, or endometriosis.

112
Q

Describe the process of IVF.

A

IVF involves ovarian stimulation, egg retrieval, fertilization, embryo development, and embryo transfer into the uterus.

113
Q

What are some advantages of IVF?

A

Advantages of IVF include an increased chance of conception, the use of donated sperm or eggs, and control over timing.

114
Q

What are some disadvantages of IVF?

A

Disadvantages of IVF include the possibility of multiple births, high cost, and the invasiveness of hormone injectables.

115
Q

What are social considerations related to IVF?

A

Not everyone can afford IVF, which is a social consideration.

116
Q

What are ethical considerations associated with IVF?

A

Ethical considerations include the risk of multiple births and the permissibility of sex selection.

117
Q

What is a stem cell, and what are the two main types?

A

Stem cells are unspecialized cells that can develop into various cell types. The two main types are embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells.

118
Q

What are the advantages of stem cells?

A

Advantages of stem cells include their regenerative potential, their use as a research tool, and their potential to cure various diseases and disorders.

Stem cells are a crucial research tool in various fields. They are used to study development, diseases, and cell differentiation, serving as models for genetic disorders and providing insights into drug testing, toxicology, and cancer research. Stem cells are also essential in regenerative medicine, gene editing, and aging studies. They have the potential to revolutionize organ engineering and provide valuable insights into basic biological processes. Overall, stem cells play a vital role in advancing scientific knowledge and improving healthcare.

119
Q

What are disadvantages of stem cells?

A

Disadvantages of stem cells include their limited use in bone marrow transplants, the lack of long-term data, and the cost and complexity of stem cell therapies.

120
Q

What is the main difference between traditional vaccines and genome vaccines?

A

Traditional vaccines use weakened or inactivated forms of pathogens, while genome vaccines use genetic material from the pathogen to trigger an immune response.

121
Q

Provide examples of how genetic engineering is used to modify organisms.

A

Genetic engineering can be used to modify organisms, such as fish for faster growth or mosquitoes to control their offspring’s survival.

122
Q

What are social considerations related to genetic engineering?

A

Social considerations include access and affordability, potential effects on neighboring farm crops, and consumer preferences.

123
Q

What are ethical considerations associated with genetic engineering?

A

Ethical considerations include the labeling of genetically modified products, concerns about animal cruelty, human health, and respect for autonomy.

124
Q

What is the definition of vaccines, and how do genome vaccines differ from traditional vaccines?

A

Vaccines are substances used to stimulate immunity to infectious diseases. Genome vaccines use genetic material from pathogens to trigger an immune response, while traditional vaccines use weakened or inactivated forms of the pathogen.