BIOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

TROPIC HORMONES

A

Tropic Hormones: target other endocrine glands where 2ndary hormones are secreted to regulate bodily functions. i.e. Adrenocorticotropic hormones sim. adrenal cortex secretes steroids, & thyroid stimulating hormones sim thyroid gland produce/secrete triiodothyronine, thyroxine, & calcitonin via neg. feedback

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2
Q

ADAPTIVE RADIATION

A

diversely adapted from common ancestor in same geographical isolation

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3
Q

ECOLOGICAL SPECIATION

A

adaptation on basis of location & activity : evolving of a new species via genetic isolation from same location.

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4
Q

ALLOPATRIC SPECIATION

A

Isolation via geographical barrier

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5
Q

MORPHOLOGICAL SPECIATION

A

SEPARATION ON BASIS OF PHYSICAL MEASURES AND OUTWARD FEATURES

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6
Q

COENOCYTIC HYPHA

A

multinucleate cytoplasm of fungi: ongoing division of nuclei without cytoplasmic division

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7
Q

INDUCTION during embryology

A

influence of organizers targeting specific genes to turn on and differentiate into certain cell types.

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8
Q

UREA

A

final waste product of deamination in liver prior to excretion

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9
Q

ELONGATION SEQUENCE OF TRANSLATION

A

Codon Recognition -> peptide bond formation -> translocation

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10
Q

MAXIMUM # CHROMOSOME COMBINATIONS AMONG GAMETES OF A DIPLOID ORGANISM (2n=10)

A

2n= 10 (diploid) , n=5 (haploid) 2^n = 2^5 = 32

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11
Q

What physiologic event happens when both estrogen and progesterone levels remain high for prolonged 3 months?

A

Ovulation will be unlikely via NEGATIVE FEEDBACK INHIBITION on the release of luteinizing hormones by anterior pituitary. Estr.+Progestrn usually sustained by HCGs during 1st trimester of pregnancy. needed to maintain & strengthen uterine walls. Menstrual cycle ceases during this time.

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12
Q

Which statement regarding kidney physiology is false? a) Decreased rate of filtration occurs with vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles b) Blood flow is decreased with afferent arteriole vasoconstriction c) An increased rate of filtration occurs with vasoconstriction of the efferent arterioles d) Sympathetic innervations primarilly affects afferent arterioles and decreases volume of urine flow e) all true

A

e) ALL TRUE blood enters glomerulus via AFFERENT arteriole and leaves via EFFERENT arteriole. if EFFERENT (leaving) arteriole constricted, blood can’t flow and increases glomerular pressure and filtration rate rises. if AFFERENT (entering) arteriole constricted, blood flow diminished, filtration decreases and reduced urine output.

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13
Q

Which molecules exert action within target cell by only interacting with cell-surface receptors? a) estrogen b) testoterone c) progesterone d) insulin e) more than one

A

d) INSULIN Insulin binds to cell-surface receptor while steroid hormones like estrogen, testosterone and progesterone bind to nuclear receptors.

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14
Q

Which is unique to angiosperms? a) secondary growth b) Double pollination c) double fertilization d) alternation of generations e) cross pollination

A

c) Double fertilization Angiosperms can double fertilize the egg nucleus AND the central nucleus.

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15
Q

Which process is common to both aerobic and anaerobic organisms? a) Krebs cycle b) Fermentation C) Glycolysis d) Electron Transport Chain e) All

A

c) Glycolysis Glycolysis happens in ALL LIVING CELLS

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16
Q

Identical twins made possible due to: a) Determine cleavage b) indeterminate cleavage c) mutations d) nondisjunction e) spiral cleavage

A

b) indeterminate cleavage

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17
Q

Which vessel carries blood away from liver and toward heart? a) Hepatic artery b) Hepatic vein c) Aorta d) Inferior vena cava e) none

A

b

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18
Q

PT is examined for liver disease and has jaundice, yellowing of skin color. What may be the cause? a) excess bilease b) excess bilirubin c) excess glucagon d) excess trypsin e) Deficiency in albumin

A

b

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19
Q

Which is FALSE? a) six turns of Calvin cycle produce glucose in photosynthesis b)The stoma of chloroplast contains Calvin cycle enzymes c) products of light reaction of photosynthesis: ATP, O2, NADPH d) chlorophylls & carotenoids are 2 pigments used in photosynthesis e) autotrophs are unable to make their own food (i.e. plants)

A

e

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20
Q

Which is/are TRUE? a) erythropoietin is a hormone released primarily from kidneys and stimulate red blood cell formation in bone marrow b) platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes develop from a common source (pluripotent stem cell) c) stroke is death of nervous tissue in brain d) thrombus is a blood clot that forms abnormally in a vessel e) all TRUE

A

ALL TRUE! a) erythropoietin is a hormone released primarily from kidneys and stimulate red blood cell formation in bone marrow b) platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes develop from a common source (pluripotent stem cell) c) stroke is death of nervous tissue in brain d) thrombus is a blood clot that forms abnormally in a vessel

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21
Q

Which is FALSE? a) In terms of cellular abundance: erythrocytes>leukocytes>platelets b) insured cell may release histamine to cause white blood cells to migrate out of blood capillaries c) cancerous cell MYELOMA may be cultured indefinitely d) lymphocyte may be fused with a MYELOMA cell to produce HYBRIDOMA e) all true

A

ALL TRUE! a) In terms of cellular abundance: erythrocytes>leukocytes>platelets b) insured cell may release histamine to cause white blood cells to migrate out of blood capillaries c) cancerous cell MYELOMA may be cultured indefinitely d) lymphocyte may be fused with a MYELOMA cell to produce HYBRIDOMA

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22
Q

Each gamete that is generated during meiosis a) Is diploid b) Are genetically identical c) Is haploid d) Has a full set of chromosomes

A

C Each gamete that is generated during meiosis is haploid. Meiosis creates sex cells, which contain half of the genetic material as the parent cell that they are derived from, which is the definition of haploid.

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23
Q

Plant cells contain centrosomes that are very similar to the ones found in animal cells, with the exception of -They lack chromosomes -They lack centrioles -They lack chromatin -They lack cytokinesis

A

THEY LACK CENTRIOLES Plant cells contain centrosomes that are very similar to the ones found in animal cells, with the exception of they lack centrioles. Plant cells have a similar region in them in comparison to centrioles which is referred to as the microtubule organizing region.

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24
Q

What is the name of the locations where crossing over occurs at:

Metaphase Plates
Tetrads
Bivalents
Kinetochores
Chiasmata

A

CHIASMATA

The name of the locations where crossing over occurs at are called Chiasmata. This is the location where genetic material is exchanged between chromatids.

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25
Q

The action of the fusing together of an egg and a sperm is referred to as:

Zygote
Fertilization SyngamY Two of the above
All of the above

A

2 of the above

The action of the fusing together of an egg and a sperm is referred to as fertilization, which is another word for syngamy. A zygote is the product of this action.

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26
Q

In which phase or period of the cell cycle is there rapid cell growth and preparation of the genetic material for cellular division

G2
G1
Meiosis
S
Mitosis

A

G2

The phase or period of the cell cycle that has rapid cell growth and preparation of the genetic material for cellular division is the G2 phase. There are three different phases of Interphase during the cell cycle: G1, S, and the G2 phase. All three of these phases involve cell growth and are different, but the key words “preparation of the genetic material for cellular division” are referencing the period just before mitosis, which is the G2 phase.

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27
Q

Another name for Microtubule Organizing Centers in animals is

Chromatin
Centrosomes
Centrioles
Chromatids
Chromosomes

A

Another name for Microtubule Organizing Centers in animals is centrosomes. Microtubules are produced within the centrosomes.

*Note, the centrosome contains a pair of centrioles, but the MTOC refers to the centrosome system, not the centrioles. Individual centrioles may be isolated in the cytoplasm, in which case they are not referred to as a ‘centrosome’ until they organize into a pair of centrioles surrounded by a mass of protein (PCM). The MTOC (=centrosome) refers to a pair of centrioles + PCM.

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28
Q

A cell will seek division because

Its S/V ratio is high
Genome/Volume ratio is high
Its S/V ration is low
Genome/Volume ratio is low More than one of the above

A

2 of them

A cell will divide because its S/V ratio is low and also because it’s genome to volume ratio is low, thus the answer is more than one of the above. When the S/V ratio is low, then it becomes difficult for a cell to have efficient cellular exchange because of the large requirements of the volume. In a much similar fashion, when the genome to volume ratio is too low, there is not enough genetic material to keep up with the high demands of regulation in the cell. These are two common reasons as to why cells divide.

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29
Q

Looking at genetic material, you notice that there are 23 homologous pairs of chromosomes, how many chromatids are present?

92
46
2
4
23

A

Looking at genetic material, if you notice that there are 23 homologous pairs of chromosomes, then there would be 92 chromatids present. If there are 23 homologous pairs of chromosomes, then there would be 46 chromosomes present and thus a total of 92 chromatids. When you have homologous pairs of chromosomes, this means that one is from the mother while the other is from the father for each pair.

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30
Q

Which of the following structures produce spores in plant meiosis

Sporangia
Gametophytes
Spores
Zygotes

A

Sporangia produce spores in plants after undergoing meiosis. They are simply the site where meiosis takes place in plants and many different fungi, giving rise to haploid spores that are distinct from each other.

31
Q

During which phase of meiosis does crossing over occur in

Metaphase I
Metaphase II
Prophase I
Anaphase II
Prophase II

A

During Prophase I crossing over occurs in meiosis. One way of remembering where this occurs it, is that crossing over occurs in the first phase of Meiotic division. The second phase of meiotic division is very similar to mitosis.

32
Q

When does the cell begin its determined cycle of growth

When mitosis is finished
During the G1 growth phase
None of the above
All of the above
When Interphase begins

A

all of them!!

The cell begin its determined cycle of growth when mitosis is finished. When mitosis is finished, interphase begins, and the first period of interphase is the G1 growth phase. All of the above is the answer because all three events are synonymous with each other.

33
Q

A cleavage furrow begins to develop during which of the following mitotic phases

Metaphase
Prophase
Anaphase
Telophase

A

The cleavage furrow is a groove that appears in the cell memrane due to the formation and tightening of the contractile ring - a ring of myosin II and actin filaments which forms during anaphase, just after the sister chromatids begin to separate. This is the beginning of cytokinesis, which continues into telophase.

34
Q

How many different phases of growth occur in a cell that undergoes mitosis

2
5
3
4
1

A

There are three different phases of growth that occur in cells which undergoes mitosis. The G1, G2, and S phases all have growth occurring in the cells.

35
Q

The production of gametes occur in:

The ovaries
The kidneys
The testes
The testes and ovaries
The liver

A

The production of gametes occurs in the testes and ovaries. For males, sperm are produced in the testes, whereas with females, eggs are produced in the ovaries.

36
Q

A mitotic inhibitor specifically limits the functioning of which of the following

Microtubules
Metaphase plate
Cytokinesis
Microfilaments

A

A mitotic inhibitor specifically limits the functioning of microtubules. By limiting the functioning of microtubules or inhibiting them, mitotic inhibitors such as cancer drugs are able to stop the cell from replicating continuously. In metaphase the microtubules begin to tug on the chromosomes that are lined up, and pull them apart causing division. If microtubules are inhibited, then replication will stop and cancer can be limited.

37
Q

What structures are made of microfibrils

Actin/myosin

centriole

microtubule

flagellum

cellulose

A

Cellulose

38
Q

Rapid cell divisions of a zygote is associated with a process called:

gasttrulation

neurolation

cleavage

sex determination

uinduction

A

Cleavage

39
Q

Chemoautotrophs

A

Need Co2 as carbon source

cleave electrons from H2S to initiate redox reactions

40
Q

What structure blocks food bolus from entering the trachea?

larynx

esophageal sphincter

pharynx

epiglottis

tongue

A

epiglottis is a flap that instanty triggerd by act of swallowing to fully close up the top of the trachea, until air needs to be inhaled again.

41
Q

adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

powers cellular work by coupling ___rxn to ___ rxn

A

couples EXERGONIC rxn to ENDERGONIC rxn

42
Q

When blood sugar is low, what hormones are increased/decreased

A

Glucagon is increased and Insulin is decreased

43
Q

Blastopore develops into the _________ for protostomes.

Blastopore develop into the ________ for deuterostomes.

A

Blastopore develops into the MOUTH for protostomes.

Blastopore develop into the ANUS for deuterostomes.

44
Q

Thymosins secreted by the ____ stimulate growth of T Lymphocytes.

A

Thymosins secreted by the THYMUS stimulate growth of T Lymphocytes.

45
Q

Which phylum/classes/bertebrates were first to develop backbones?

echinoderms

amphibians

reptiles

birds fishes

A

Fishes were the first to develop backbones

46
Q

Which hormone controls cellular metabolism?

calcitonin

melatonin

parathyroid hormone

thryoxine

thymosine

A

Thyroxine and triiodothyronine control cellular metabolism. Exessive amounts of these hormones result in hyperthyroidism and inadequate amonts lead to hypOthyroidism.

47
Q

what happens to acetylcholines at the end of their neural signal transmission?

A

Acetylcholine is immediately broken down by acetylcholinesterases at the synaptic cleft, to make ways for next NTs to signal.

48
Q

Which hydrogen spectral series is visible to humans?

lyman

balmer

paschen

brackett

all of them

A

Lights emitted in the Balmer series fall within the human visible range (~400-700)

49
Q

The average distance traveled by a gas molecule between two collisions is called the :

A

Mean Free Path

50
Q

of or relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment

A

IATROGENIC

51
Q
A
52
Q

hummingbirds and songbirds are physically similar but live in diff. places.

This is due to _______ evolution

A

CONVERGENT EVOLUTION

53
Q

ECHINODERMS

like Starfish, sea urchin, sea cucumbers

A

are invertebrates, no segmentation, adults display radial symmetry

54
Q

RETINA: RODS & CONES

CILIARY MUSCLE: ADJUSTS LENS SHAPE

PAPILLARY MUSCLE: MUSCLE ASSOCIATED W. HEART

PAPILLAE: PRROJECTIONS ON TONGUE SURFACE

A
55
Q

6 TURNS CALVIN CYCLE PRODUCES GLUCOSE IN PHOTOSYNTHESIS

A

STROMA OF CHLOROPLAST CONTAINS CALVIN CYCLE ENZYMES

56
Q

PRODUCTS OF LIGHT REACTION OF PHOTOSYNTHESIS:

A

ATP, OXYGEN, NADPH

57
Q

HORMONE RELEASED FROM KIDNEYS TO STIMULATE RED BLOOD CELL FORMATION IN BONE MARROW:

A

ERYTHROPOIETIN

58
Q

THROMBUS

A

BLOOD CLOT THAT ABNORMALLY FORMS IN A VESSEL

59
Q

PROSTAGLANDINS ARE MODIFIED FATTY ACIDS WHICH HELP:

A

INDUCE FEVER, PAIN SENSATION, AND INFLAMMATION.

ASPIRIN CAN INHIBIT PROSTOGLANDIN ACTIVITY.

60
Q

AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT:

A

AA

NORMAL: Aa, or aa

61
Q

main organs are formed during which trimester

(1st, 2nd, 3rd)?

A

FIRST TRIMESTER!

durinh this time, rapid organ development occurs and embryo is MOST sensitive to drugs and radiation (causing birth defects)

62
Q

Which of the following is another name for the Krebs Cycle

TCA Cycle

All of the above are names for the Krebs Cycle

Citric Acid Cycle

Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle

A

All of the above are names for the Krebs Cycle

63
Q

Which of the following molecules yields the most energy in the electron transport chain?

ADP

NADH

AMP

ATP

FADH2

A

NADH

From highest energy to lowest energy the order is: NADH, FADH2, ATP, ADP, AMP. NADH produced 2.5 ATP (3 in older texts) per molecule, while FADH2 produces*1.5 ATP (2 in older texts) per molecule. To properly understand the energy production of Respiration along with the energy production of each step, it is important to understand how energetic each product itself is.

64
Q

For the 2 FADH2 molecules that enter oxidative phosphorylation, how many ATP are produced total?

2

1

3

6

5

A

For the 2 FADH2 molecules that enter oxidative phosphorylation, 3 ATP are produced total. For each FADH2 molecule, 1.5 ATP are produced.

Using the more historical number of 2ATP per FADH2 would have led to an answer of 4ATP which was omitted from the answer choices to avoid confusion.

65
Q
A
66
Q

What is the chief purpose of the anaerobic pathways

To Replenish NAD+

To Produce CO2

To produce Alcohol

To Produce ATP

To Replenish ATP

A

The chief purpose of the anaerobic pathways is to replenish NAD+. The problem that occurs when oxygen is not present, is that there is no electron acceptor to accept electrons at the end of the electron transport chain in oxidative phosphorylation. With no NAD+ readily available, the cell can potentially die because glycolysis ceases and there is no production of ATP. The solution is that NAD+ is replenished in the anaerobic pathways which gives the cell the ability to still produce energy and accept electrons without resulting in death.

*Note, though replenishing ATP is also an outcome of anaerobic respiration, NAD+ is the molecule which is required in order to keep glycolysis going.

67
Q

Glycolysis occurs in the

Mitochondria

Cellular Membrane

Rough ER

Cytoplasm

Chloroplast

A

While most steps of respiration occur in the mitochondria, Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm. One way of remembering this is that the NADH produced in Glycolysis only produce 2 ATP instead of the standard 3, this is due to the fact that 1 ATP is required for each NADH to be transported from the cytoplasm into the mitochondria.

68
Q

What is the correct order of oxygen flow for the respiratory system in humans?

i. Nasal Cavity
ii. Voice box
iii. Trachea
iv. Pharynx

2,1,3,4

1,2,4,3

1,4,3,2

1,2,3,4

1,4,2,3

A

1,4,2,3

The correct order of the respiratory system in humans is through the nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx (which houses the vocal cords and is oftentimes referred to as the voice box, and the trachea. There are obviously other members involved in gas exchange, but for this question this is their respective order.

69
Q

Which of the following structures control ventilation in humans

Posterior Pituitary

Medulla Oblongata

Parathyroid

Pancreas

Anterior Pituitary

A

The medulla oblongata is the structure that controls ventilation in humans. The medulla oblongata plays a major role in the contraction/relaxation of the diaphragm along with the stimulation of the intercostal muscles thus controlling ventilation.

70
Q

When a person is running, which of the following is/are correct

H+ concentration decrease

pH levels increase

positive feedback regulates pH levels

All of the above

None of the above

A

none

When a person is running, H+ concentration increases thus pH levels decrease (higher acidity), and this is all regulated by negative feedback and not positive feedback. Remember when the respiratory system has to work hard it produces increased levels of carbon dioxide, which in turn is converted bicarbonate ions (which have H+ ions), and the pH level is decreased (higher level of H+ concentration in the blood stream.

71
Q

If a person has respiratory alkalosis, which of the following would be rushed out continually from their body?

Oxygen

Blood

Water

Carbon dioxide

Carbon monoxide

A

If a person has respiratory alkalosis, carbon dioxide would be rushed out continually from their body. Being that this person has respiratory alkalosis, their blood is too basic, which simply means that it is not acidic enough (not enough hydrogen ions). Since the hydrogen ions come from the bicarbonate ions that transport carbon dioxide, we know that there would be low levels of carbon dioxide in the blood due to the person continually pushing too much out of their body.

72
Q

Which of the following allows for the safe passageway of water through the digestive system rather than the respiratory system

Larynx

Bronchi

Trachea

Epiglottis

Spiracles

A

The epiglottis allows for the safe passageway of water through the digestive system rather than the respiratory system. The epiglottis is a flap located at the base of the throat that opens when swallowing occurs. When someone chokes on water, it is simply because water is entering the respiratory system rather than its proper digestive system. The epiglottis is the flap that covers the trachea and helps prevent this from occurring.

73
Q

When the diaphragm is contracted

A&C

Air moves out of the lungs

The intercostal muscles relax

The volume of the lungs decrease

Air moves into the lungs

A

When the diaphragm is contracted, air moves into the lungs. Air moves out of the lungs conversely when the diaphragm is relaxed and the intercostal muscles relax thus lowering or decreasing the volume of the lungs.

74
Q
A