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Biology Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is true about the role of LH in the menstrual cycle?

A

LH causes the ruptured follicle to become the corpus luteum and secrete progesterone and estrogen.

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2
Q

What are the female chromosomes

A

XX

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3
Q

What are the male chromosomes

A

XY

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4
Q

A diet high in saturated fats can be most directly linked to development of

A

Atherosclerosis.

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5
Q

What is caused by low blood sugar?

A

Hypoglycemia

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6
Q

What does the kidney do

A

The kidney keeps the relative concentrations of inorganic ions in the body’s blood plasma at a constant level.

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7
Q

Describe cardiac muscle

A

It is innervated by the autonomic nervous system, it is striated and requires Ca2+ (just like skeletal and smooth muscle). It can contract without stimulation from the nervous system (unlike any other muscle)

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8
Q

A capillary has

A

A higher hydrostatic pressure at the arteriole end and a lower hydrostatic pressure at the venule end.

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9
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure

A

The force per area that blood exerts on the walls of the blood vessels

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10
Q

Describe the glycolytic pathway

A

For each molecule of glucose that undergoes glycolysis, two net molecules of ATP and two molecules of NADH are produced. And 2 molecules of pyruvic acid are formed for each molecule of glucose. It is an anaerobic process. The glucose is partially oxidized (not reduced)

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11
Q

How many times must the Krebs cycle turn in order to completely oxidize each molecule of glucose

A

Twice, once per each pyruvic acid. Glucose makes 2 pyruvic acids from glycolysis

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12
Q

What is the role of progesterone

A

It stimulates vascularization and maintenance of the endometrium

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13
Q

Which region of the kidney has the lowest osmotic pressure

A

The cortex

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14
Q

What is high osmotic pressure

A

High osmotic pressure in a region implies that osmosis will act to send water to that region (there is a lot of stuff there, high solute concentration, and little water)

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15
Q

Which cross CANNOT result in a type O offspring

A 
AB X O
AB = I(A) and I(B)
O = I and I
No cross results in I homozygous 
If it is just A or B it could be I(A) and I or I(B) and I
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16
Q

What is the cerebellum involved in?

A

Involved in balance, hand-eye coordination, and the timing of rapid movements

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17
Q

What is the Medulla Oblongata involved in

A

Controlling heart rate, controls the rate and depth of breathing

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18
Q

What is the cerebrum/cerebral cortex involved in

A

Processing sensory input, such as vision, smell, and taste, also important for memory and creative thought

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19
Q

What is the hypothalamus involved in?

A

Responsible for temperature regulation, and huger and thirst drives

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20
Q

What are restriction enzymes

A

Cut specific DNA sequences

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21
Q

What are helicase

A

Unwind DNA

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22
Q

What is a polymerase

A

Synthesize nucleic acids

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23
Q

What is ligase

A

Joins two DNA strands

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24
Q

What are totipotent cells

A

They have the potential to develop into any type of tissue

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25
Q

What are leydig cells

A

Produce testosterone in males

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26
Q

What do denitrifying bacteria do

A

Converts NO3- into N2

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27
Q

What do nitrifying bacteria do

A

Convert NH3 into NO3-

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28
Q

When a virus infects bacteria, what is the lysogenic cycle?

A

In the lysogenic cycle, the phage attaches to a host bacterial cell and injects its DNA into the bacterium. The phage DNA is integrated into the genome of the bacterial host, and when the bacterium divides by binary fission, the viral DNA is passed on to daughter cells.

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29
Q

When a virus infects bacteria, what is the lytic cycle?

A

The phage attaches to a host bacterial cell and injects its DNA into the bacterium. The virus uses the nucleotides, enzymes, and ribosomes of the host bacterium to replicate, and organizes the DNA and coat proteins into new phages. The host cell bursts, releasing the phages.

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30
Q

What is the order of developmental events

A

Fertilization -> Cleavage to produce the next two -Morula (solid ball of embryonic cells) -> Blastula (hollow ball of embryonic cells)-> Implantation in uterine wall -> Gastrula -> Developing nervous system (Neurulation)

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31
Q

Tetracyline is toxic to prokaryotes but not to eukaryotes, what does it attack?

A

Attacks the ribosomal subunits, the ribosomes of prokaryotes differ from those of eukaryotes

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32
Q

What is the mechanism of heat loss

A

There is a dilation of blood vessels, if the vessels are expanded, more heat from the blood can be lost to the skin

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33
Q

What is the mechanism for heat retention

A

Shivering - via rapid contraction of skeletal muscles
Or constriction of blood vessels, keeps the body warm by minimizing the amount of heat that is lost to the skin from the blood by minimizing the amount of blood that comes into contact with the skin

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34
Q

What is transformation

A

DNA enters the cell form the environment

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35
Q

What is conjugation

A

Genetic material is passed from one cell to another via a conjugation bridge

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36
Q

What is transduction

A

Bacterial DNA is transferred from one cell to another via bacteriophage

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37
Q

What is binary fission

A

The process of cell division in prokaryotes

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38
Q

How does the poison cyanide work?

A

Inhibits aerobic ATP formation

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39
Q

A patient with a peptic ulcer takes a large overdose of an antacid, which enzyme is most affected?

A

Pepsin

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40
Q

What is epithelial tissue

A

Covers the free surfaces of the body (skin)

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41
Q

What is muscle tissue

A

Consists of muscle fibers

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42
Q

What is nerve tissue

A

Made almost entirely of neurons and neurological cells

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43
Q

What is connective tissue

A

Bone, blood, and tendons, contain cells that are separated by and suspended in some sort of matrix

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44
Q

What causes color blindness

A

A recessive allele

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45
Q

What is the hierarchy of classification

A

Kingdom -> Phylum -> Class -> Order -> Family -> Genus -> Species

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46
Q

What are the two well-known examples of recessive sex-linked traits in humans

A

Red-green color blindness and hemophilia

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47
Q

What are sensory and afferent neurons

A

Sends signals towards the central nervous system

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48
Q

What are motor or efferent neurons

A

Have axons outside and directed away from the central nervous system, sends signals out to peripheral points

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49
Q

What is the axial skeleton

A

Skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

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50
Q

What is the appendicular skeleton

A

Bones of the paired appendages, the pectoral and pelvic girdles

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51
Q

What are glial cells

A

They bind neurons together, they offer nerve cells support, protection and nutritional supply

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52
Q

What are cilia

A

They line the upper respiratory tract, waving against air inflow to filter out unneeded debris

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53
Q

What are villi

A

Finger like extensions of the membranes of cells lining the small intestine, they increase surface area to facilitate absorption of digested nutrients

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54
Q

What are goblet cells

A

The secrete mucus in the small intestine

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55
Q

What happens during the first trimester of development

A

Cleavage and implantation occur within the first week, the embryonic membranes begin to develop, followed by gastrulation (the differentiation into the 3 germ layers) and neurulation, Then organ development begins (eyes, heart, limb buds, and other organs). Then morphogenesis. IMPORTANT for differentiation and development but growth is not pronounced

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56
Q

What is morphogenesis

A

Refers to the development of form or structure

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57
Q

What happens during the second trimester of development

A

Period of rapid growth in size and weight

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58
Q

What happens during the third trimester of development

A

Growth continues and is most prominent during this trimester

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59
Q

What is the universal recipient blood type?

A

AB+

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60
Q

What is the universal donor blood type

A

O

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61
Q

What is morphology

A

Body structure

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62
Q

What is phylogeny

A

Evolutionary History

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63
Q

What causes the change from normal hemoglobin to sickle-cell anemia

A

Caused by the substitution of the amino acid

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64
Q

What are the primary targets of B-cells

A

Bacteria

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65
Q

What are the primary targets of T-cells

A

Everything else besides bacteria

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66
Q

What is the surface geometry of enzymes composed of

A

Amino acids, enzymes are composed of proteins

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67
Q

What is translocation

A

The attachment of a chromosome fragment to a nonhomologous chromosome

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68
Q

What is duplication

A

The attachment of the fragment to the homologous chromosomes counterpart, thus repeating gene types already there

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69
Q

What is inversion

A

The reattachment of the fragment to the original chromosome, but in reversed orientation resulting in reversed gene order

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70
Q

What is deletion

A

The chromosome fragment does not reattach

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71
Q

What is the order of which sperm travel through

A

Testis, epididymis, vas deferens, prostate gland, and the urethra

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72
Q

What are the 3 main heart layers

A

Epicardium, Myocardium, and Endocardium

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73
Q

What is the contraction of the heart

A

Systole

74
Q

What is the relaxation of the heart

A

Diastole

75
Q

What are “gap junctions”

A

An organized collections of protein channels in cell membranes that allows ions and small molecules to pass between adjacent cells

76
Q

Peptidyl Transferase

A

Catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids during protein synthesis. Peptidyl implies that it is involved in the assembly of proteins

77
Q

What do nitrogen-fixing bacteria do

A

Converts N2 to NH3

78
Q

What determines a virus’s infective properties

A

The interactions between the proteins on the surface of a host cell and the virus. Without proper interaction the virus can not properly infect the host cell

79
Q

What kind of bonds do saturated fats have

A

Consist of only single bonds

80
Q

What kind of bonds do unsaturated fats have

A

At least 1 double bond

81
Q

What is synpasis

A

The pairing of two homologous chromosomes during meiosis

82
Q

What accounts for a female with XXX chromosome

A

Nondisjunction of chromosomes during meisos, a chromosome pair fails to separate properly

83
Q

Exocrine Gland

A

Glands that have ducts to carry their secretions to specific locations. Examples include the salivary glands whose ducts carry saliva to the mouth, or the pancreas whose duct carries pancreatic fluid to the duodenum (first section of the small intestine).

84
Q

Endocrine Gland

A

Glands of “internal secretion” whose secretions are usually secreted directly into the blood. Most hormones are secreted in this manner. Examples are follicle stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary or thryoxin from the thryoid.

85
Q

What are the five conditions for a population to remain in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium

A

No genetic drift, no migration, no mutation, no selection and random mating

86
Q

Muscularis Externa

A

Muscle layer in the digestive tract that is composed of smooth, or in some cases striated, muscle. Usually 2-3 layers. A network of nerves (Auerbach plexus) regulates muscle contraction and controls bolis motility in the gastrointestinal tract

87
Q

Bolus

A

A ball of food that has been chewed to the point of swallowing

88
Q

Introns

A

The non-coding parts of mRNA, removed from splicing after transcription

89
Q

Exons

A

Coding parts of mRNA, joined together after introns are removed

90
Q

What is the first major organ to develop in the fetus

A

The heart, formed from the mesoderm

91
Q

What are ceruminous glands

A

Specialized sudoriferous glands (sweat glands) located subcutaneously in the external auditory canal.

92
Q

What are mammary glands

A

Produce milk in women

93
Q

What are sebaceous glands

A

Tiny glands located on the skin and secrete sebum

94
Q

What is sebum

A

Substance that consists of waxes, lipids and other cellular material thats and forms an oily film that protects the skin against drying, lubricates the hair follicles, and creates a waterproof effect on the skin

95
Q

What are sudoriferous glands

A

Sweat glands, are small tubular structures of the skin that produce sweat.

96
Q

What is immuoelectrophoresis

A

Procedures involving electrophoresis and immunopreciptation that are used for separation of proteins and their reaction with antibodies

97
Q

Describe water-soluble vitamins

A

Can’t be stored in the body and are absorbed directly into the bloodstream form intestines, then are excreted through urine when in excess. Most water soluble is Vitamin C

98
Q

Describe fat-soluble vitamins

A

Absorbed into the lymphatic system, after which they enter the bloodstream

99
Q

What does aldosterone (mineralcorticoid) regulate

A

It regulates the re-absorption of sodium, secretion of potassium and water retention. (acts on the kidneys)

100
Q

Where is vitamin E primarily found

A

Vitamin E is found in meat, eggs, some vegetables, and dairy products, a fat-soluble vitamin

101
Q

What causes leprosy

A

A chronic bacterial disease that is caused my Mycobacterium leprae

102
Q

What causes Anthrax

A

A highly infectious disease that is caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis

103
Q

What causes chicken pox, rabies and hepatitis

A

Viruses

104
Q

What are endorphins

A

Naturally occurring substances released by the pituitary gland and hypothalamus that function as analgesics and block pain messages. They are natural painkillers. Analgesics such as morphine and heroin target the same pain receptors as endorphins and produce similar effects on the body

105
Q

What is the primary function of the semicircular canals located in the human ear

A

Consists of three connected tubes that function as part of the vestibular system, the liquid in these canals moves as the head turns, enabling the human to sense the balance of the body as it moves (dynamic equilibrium)

106
Q

What is the neurotransmitter released at the motor end plate to initiate muscle contraction

A

Acetylcholine. once its released, it diffuses across the synapse and binds to specialized receptors on the skeletal muscle fibers, opening a sodium channel in the cell membrane. Sodium ions pass through the channel and cause a muscle contraction

107
Q

Describe the atmospheric pressure during inspiration

A

The atmospheric pressure is higher than the intra-alveolar pressure, causing an intake of air

108
Q

Describe the atmospheric pressure during expiration

A

The atmospheric pressure is lower than the intra-alveolar pressure, causing a exhalation of air.

109
Q

What does Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) do

A

Catalyzes the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

110
Q

What does renin do

A

Catalyzes the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

111
Q

What does angiotensin II do

A

Constriction of the walls of the arterioles closing down capillary beds and stimulation of proximal tubules to reabsorb sodium ions

112
Q

Which carbohydrate is indigestable for mammals

A

Cellulose

113
Q

What is a vestigial organ

A

Structures that have minimal effect in the function of an organism, but which had useful functions in an ancestral species of the organism that were later lost through evolution. Appendix, coccyx, plica semilunaris of the eye, wisdom teeth, and various muscle structures

114
Q

What is a prion

A

Proteinaceous infectious particle, the smallest known infectious agent is is composed of one or more protein molecules witjjhout any genetic information. Causes transmissible spongiform encephalopathies, including CJD, scrapies, and kuru

115
Q

What are the 3 germ layers that form during embryonic development

A

Ectoderm (outer) Mesoderm (middle) and Endoderm (inner)

116
Q

What is the Ectoderm

A

Epidermis, hair, nails epithelium of nose mouth and anal canal, lens of eye, nervous system

117
Q

What is the Mesoderm

A

Musculoskeletal system, circulatory system (Heart), excretory system, gonads, muscular and connective tissue coats of digestive and respiratory systems

118
Q

What is the Endoderm

A

Epithelial linings of digestive and respiratory tracts parts of the liver, pancreas, thyroid, bladder, and distal urinary and reproductive areas

119
Q

What is incomplete dominance

A

Offsprings that have a phenotype somewhere that is in-between those of the parents’

120
Q

What is Vitamin K associated with

A

It is associated with clotting time, a deficiency would result in longer times required for clotting

121
Q

What is hypotension

A

Low blood pressure

122
Q

Retinopathy

A

Damage to the retina in the eye

123
Q

Glycosuria

A

Excretion of glucose in the urine

124
Q

What are cytotoxic T cells

A

They are part of the cell-mediated immune response and are activated by specific contacts with already infected cells, they bind and kill antigen-presenting (infected) cells

125
Q

What do B cells do (B lympocytes)

A

Are activated by antigens in the circulatory and lymphatic systems of the body to produce antibodies and secondary agents to do with the immunological defense, these cells do not directly attack already-infected cells in the cell-mediated fashion like T cells but respond to free-floating antigens in circulatory fluid via antibody secretion

126
Q

What do plasma cells do

A

They secrete antibodies that bind antigens to make them easier targets for phagocytes, do not directly attack already infected cells

127
Q

What do macrophages do

A

They are anti-gen presenting cells that stimulate cytotoxic T cells and B cells, they physically scavenge the antigens but do not take part in the cell-mediated response toward an already-infected cell in a cell-mediated response. Specialized connective tissue found in lymph

128
Q

What is smooth muscle

A

A type of nonstriated muscle found in the walls of hollow organs (bladder, uterus, GI tract, and blood vessels). Has a random myofilament pattern

129
Q

Where does glycogenesis occur

A

The formation of glycogen, it takes place in the liver

130
Q

What is an agonist

A

A drug that binds to the postsynaptic receptors and triggers a response by the cell

131
Q

What are probiotics

A

Living microorganisms, usually known as “friendly” bacteria that have health benefits in the body. Lactobacillus acidophilus

132
Q

What are the atmospheric concentrations of gases

A

Nitrogen: 78%
Oxygen: 21%
Carbon Dioxide: 0.04%
Argon: 1%

133
Q

Why is cholesterol important

A

It is important in acting as the precursor for the development of steroid hormones such as testosterone and estrogen produced by gonads and adrenal cortex

134
Q

What are waterborne bacteria most likely to infect

A

The digestive tract in that bacteria are known to be preset in contaminated water and or food

135
Q

What are airborne bacteria most likely to infect

A

The respiratory system

136
Q

What is polyploidy

A

Organisms that contain two or more paired chromosomes. Increase in number of chromosomes, does not require genetic engineering

137
Q

What is a pandemic

A

Defined as an outbreak of a disease that occurs over a wide geogrpahic area and affects an exceptionally high proportion of the population

138
Q

What is an epidemic

A

Defined as affecting or tending to affect a disproportionately large number of individuals within a population, community, or region at the same time

139
Q

What is a syndemic

A

The aggregation of two or more diseases in a population in which there is some level of positive biological interaction that exacerbates the negative health effects of any or all the diseases

140
Q

What is an endemic

A

Defined as a disease or diseases that are restricted or peculiar to a locality or region

141
Q

What happens to the uterine lining in the menstrual cycle

A

The uterine lining is shed

142
Q

What are adipocytes

A

Specialized connective tissue cells that are sponsible for the production and storage of fat

143
Q

What are mast cells

A

Mobile connective tissue cells often found near blood vessels and nerves

144
Q

What are the 4 phases of wound healing

A

Hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, and remodeling/maturation

145
Q

What happens in the hemostasis phase of wound healing

A

Damage blood vessels must be sealed with platelets, blood vessels can also constrict

146
Q

What happens in the inflammation phase of wound healing

A

Leukocytes and macrophages clear the wound of cellular debris, swelling and warmth

147
Q

What happens in the proliferation phase of wound healing

A

Granulation tissue (fibroblasts, collagen, capillaries, and neutrophils) develop in the wound and the wound begins to contract. Then during epithelialization, cells at the surface edges of the wound divide and seal the wound

148
Q

What happens during the maturation phase

A

The collagen fibers reorganize, remodel, and mature, which increases tensile strength

149
Q

What is the p53 gene

A

A tumor-suppressing gene that regulates the cell cycle and stops the formation of tumors. It is capable of preventing tumor formation by triggering cell death, activating p21 which results in the induction of the growth arrest either before G1 phase of before G2 phase. It can bind to specific sites within DNA and support repair

150
Q

What are oncogenes

A

Genes that cause tumors by inducing point mutations within a gene

151
Q

The heart is composed of what cells

A

Myocardial cells
Myo-“ muscle
-cardial: heart

152
Q

The liver is composed of what cells

A

Hepatic cells

Hepatic refers to all things liver

153
Q

What is the pericardium

A

The fibrous sac that encloses the heart

154
Q

What are centromeres

A

Joins two sister chromatids in a replicated chromosome, also serves as an attachment point for spindle fibers. (Inner kinetochore)

155
Q

What are microfilaments

A

A structure found in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, it facilitates movement

156
Q

What is a microtubule

A

A component found in the cytoskeleton found throughout the cytoplasm. Both microfilaments and microtubules make up the cytoskeleton

157
Q

What is a cytoskeleton

A

The cellular skeleton of a cell in a cell’s cytoplasm

158
Q

What is a centriole

A

Centrioles are involved in the organization of the mitotic spindle and in the completion of cytokinesis. The pairs move to the opposite ends of the cell and form the anchor for the spindles

159
Q

What is a kinetochore

A

Protein structure on the chromatid where the spindle fibers attach during mitosis (Outer kinetochore) to pull the sister chromatids apart

160
Q

What is the recombination rate related to in genes

A

The distance between the genes on the chromosome, the greater the distance, the more recombination will be observed. Smaller distance represents closer genes that will show fewer recombinations

161
Q

What does it mean if certain genes are consistently inherited together

A

It means that the genes are probably all on the same chromosome, an example of genetic linkage

162
Q

What is vitamin C

A

Ascorbic acid

163
Q

What does the human cold virus infect

A

It infects the upper respiratory tract of the human body, has the most effect on the nasal passages

164
Q

What immediate action of cocaine is to block the reuptake of neurotransmitters such as dopamine and serotonin causes what

A

It will result in an excess of neurotransmitters in the synapse

165
Q

What is a nosocomial infection

A

An infection that occurs after treatment in a hospital or other medical facility, but it must be unrelated to the condition that the patient was originally tested for.

166
Q

What is phagocytosis

A

During the penetration stage of viral replication, the virus can dissolve the cell membrane and insert its genome into the cell cytoplasm

167
Q

What causes athletes foot

A

A fungus

168
Q

Where are ribosomes made

A

rRNA is transcribed, linked to proteins and large and small ribosomal subunits are formed in the nucleolus and transported out separately through the nuclear pores

169
Q

What are lysosomes

A

THe cell’s digestive organelles

170
Q

What is the golgi complex

A

Involved in the processing and sorting of proteins and lipids

171
Q

What is the rough ER

A

Has ribosomes attached and is involved in the synthesis of secretory, lysosomal, membrane proteins and membrane lipids

172
Q

What is the primary function of the liver

A

Regulate blood sugar levels. It is crucial for metabolism it produces bile for digestion, stores and regulates sugars, fats, and other important nutrients, detoxifies blood, produces hormones (erthyropoiten), synthesizes blood proteins, aids in decomposition of blood cells, and etc

173
Q

What are osteoclasts

A

Cells that are involved in the resabsorption of bone, bone is broken down and minerals released. Excavate bone cavaties

174
Q

What are osteoblasts

A

Cells that form the bone matrix, make bone

175
Q

What are osteocytes

A

Cells commonly found in mature bone and can live as long as the organism itself, not active cell, does not divide

176
Q

What are osteons

A

Functional fundamental unit of compact bone (cylindrical)

177
Q

In the kidney, what is maximally reabsorbed into the bloodstream

A

100% of glucose and amino acids
91% of uric acid
60% of inorganic salts
reabsorbed into the blood by active transport

178
Q

Where does reabsorption take place in the kidney

A

In the proximal convoluted tubule, fluids entering are reabsorbed into the peritubular capillaries

179
Q

What is a isotonic solution

A

Even exchange between cell and environment, nothing happens

180
Q

What is a hypotonic solution

A

Extracellular environment is less concentrated than the cytoplasm of the cell, H2O will enter the cell and cause it to lyse (burst)

181
Q

What is a hypertonic solution

A

Extracellular environment is more concentrated than the cytoplasm of the cell, H2O will leave the cell and cause the cell to shrivel

PCAT (4 decks)

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