Biology Flashcards
1
Q
[circulatory syst.] this system is made up of the heart, blood, and vascular system
A
circulatory system
2
Q
[circulatory syst.] the ___ is made up of cardiac muscles that are involuntary and contains a large number of nuclei in order to compensate for the large amount of energy, in the form of ATP, to pump blood throughout the body.
A
heart
3
Q
[circulatory syst.] the heart is composed of ____ and 2 ventricles
A
2 atria
4
Q
[circulatory syst.] the _____ forms the most anterior surface of the heart
A
right ventricle
5
Q
[circulatory syst.] the left ventricle forms the ____
A
heart apex
6
Q
[circulatory syst.] the ventricles are separated by the _____
A
interventricular septum
7
Q
[circulatory syst.] the muscles of the ventricles are _____ than that of the atria because these chambers pump blood to the anterior and posterior portion of the body
A
thicker
8
Q
[circulatory syst.] the _____ is thicker than the right ventricle because it pumps blood to the rest of the body
A
left ventricle
9
Q
[circulatory syst.] in between the atria and ventricles there are valves to
A
prevent backflow of blood to previous chambers
10
Q
[circulatory syst.] the valve found at the right portion of the heart is known as the
A
tricuspid valve
11
Q
[circulatory syst.] the valve found on the left portion of the heart is called
A
bicuspid [mitral] valve
12
Q
[circulatory syst.] the rhythmic contraction of the heart is regulated by the
A
sino-atrial node [SA node] or the pacemaker
13
Q
[circulatory syst.] this serves as the network that conveys blood all throughout the body
A
blood vessels
14
Q
[circulatory syst.] the blood vessels are made up of smooth muscles that are capable of
A
vasomotion
15
Q
[circulatory syst.] vasomotion refers to the ability of the blood vessels to constrict or dilate known as
A
vasoconstriction and vasodilation
16
Q
[circulatory syst.] types of blood vessels
A
arteries, arterioles, veins, venules, and capillaries
17
Q
[circulatory syst.] _____ have thicker walls than veins because of the high pressure and blood carriers from the heart
A
arteries
18
Q
[circulatory syst.] arteries convey blood ____ from the heart
A
away
19
Q
[circulatory syst.] veins convey blood ____ to the heart
A
back
20
Q
[circulatory syst.] this is where exchange of gases and waste materials happen
A
capillaries
21
Q
[circulatory syst.] capillaries are so small that only a ____ file of RBCs can pass through
A
single
22
Q
[circulatory syst.] the blood in the arteries are ____ thus the bright red color
A
oxygenated
23
Q
[circulatory syst.] veins carry _____ blood giving it a dark red or bluish color, except pulmonary arteries
A
deoxygenated
24
Q
[circulatory syst.] pulmonary arteries carry _____ blood
A
deoxygenated
25
[circulatory syst.] pulmonary veins carry _____ blood
oxygenated
26
[circulatory syst.] means the force exerted by the blood against any unit area of the vessel well. this is measured by the cardiac output multiplied by the total peripheral resistance (BP = CO x TPR)
blood pressure
27
[circulatory syst.] ________ is measured by the heart rate multiplied by the stroke volume (CO = HR X SV)
cardiac output
28
[circulatory syst.] this refers to the amount of blood ejected by the heart
stroke volume
29
[circulatory syst.] types of circulation
pulmonary, systemic
30
[circulatory syst.] type of circulation with deoxygenated blood from the inferior and superior vena cava -> right atrium -> triscupid valve -> right ventricle -> pulmonary artery -> lungs -> pulmonary vein -> left atrium
pulmonary circulation
31
[circulatory syst.] type of circulation with movement from left atrium -> bicuspid valve -> left ventricle -> aorta -> rest of the body -> superior/inferior vena cava -> right atrium
systemic circulation
32
[circulatory syst.] part of the part that supplied oxygenated blood for the entire body
aorta
33
[circulatory syst.] the heart receives supply through the
coronary arteries
34
[nervous syst.] this is the command center of the body
nervous system
35
[nervous syst.] the nervous system is divided into 2 parts namely the:
central and peripheral NS
36
[nervous syst.] the nervous system is formed by a network of many billion nerve cells (neurons), all assisted by many more supporting cells called
glial cells
37
[nervous syst.] _____ are responsible for the transmission of signals in nerve cells
action potential
38
[nervous syst.] action potential occurs at
nodes of ranvier
39
[nervous syst.] this is the conduction of action potential from node to node
saltatory conduction
40
[nervous syst.] in the action potential, the nerve impulse jumps along the
nerve fiber
41
[nervous syst.] saltatory conduction increases the velocity of ____ in myelinated fibers and also conserves energy for the axon
nerve transmission
42
[nervous syst.] the central nervous system is composed of the
brain and spinal cord
43
[nervous syst.] the CNS is responsible for high intelligence based activities like
speaking, thinking, processing of thoughts and emotions
44
[nervous syst.] which NS is responsible for acting upon the stimulus felt by the 5 sense?
CNS
45
[nervous syst.] what are the parts of the brain?
spinal cord, pons, medulla, cerebellum, epithalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, cerebrum
46
[nervous syst.] brain part: this serves as the main pathway for the conduction of impulses and message from the brain to various parts of the body and vice versa, also connects the brain to the PNS
spinal cord
47
[nervous syst.] brain part: connects the cerebral cortex to the medulla; center of communication and coordination between the 2 hemispheres
pons
48
[nervous syst.] brain part: controls involuntary functions like respiration, digestion, swallowing, and sneezing; also bridge the signals from the spinal cord to the various parts of the brain
medulla
49
[nervous syst.] brain part: this coordinates movement and balance; monitors motor commands from the cerebrum
cerebellum
50
[nervous syst.] brain part: this is responsible for the secretion of melatonin, controls emotions, connects limbic system to the other brain parts
epithalamus
51
[nervous syst.] brain part: this relays sensory impulses to and from the cerebral cortex
thalamus
52
[nervous syst.] brain part: this serves as the body's thermostat, regulates hunger, sleep, thirst, sexual urges and mating behavior, flight or fight response, pleasure, and controls the anterior pituitary gland in secreting hormones
hypothalamus
53
[nervous syst.] brain part: controls and regulates perception, thinking, voluntary movement and learning
cerebrum
54
[nervous syst.] type of NS that carries messages to and from the CNS
PNS
55
[nervous syst.] 2 parts of the PNS
somatic NS and autonomic NS
56
[nervous syst.] this type of PNS controls voluntary muscles and transmits sensory information to the CNS
somatic NS
57
[nervous syst.] this type of PNS controls involuntary body functions
autonomic NS
58
[nervous syst.] 2 parts of the autonomic NS
sympathetic NS and parasympathetic NS
59
[nervous syst.] this type of autonomic NS arouses body to expand energy
sympathetic NS
60
[nervous syst.] this type of autonomic NS calms body to conserve and maintain energy
parasympathetic NS
61
[nervous syst.] this type of autonomic NS is made up of all the nerves and ganglia outside the brain and spinal cord
PNS
62
[nervous syst.] a structure containing nerve cells and synapses between them
ganglia
63
[nervous syst.] the PNS consists of ______ and ______ connected by a synapse
sensory neurons and motor neurons
64
[nervous syst.] the ______ sense the stimuli from the external environment and relays in to the CNS for processing
sensory neurons
65
[nervous syst.] when a certain action has already been decided by the CNS, this impulse will be sent to the _____ at the site where the stimulus was received for the corresponding action to it
motor neuron
66
[nervous syst.] somatic NS is made up of the
afferent (sensory) neurons and efferent (motor) neurons
67
[nervous syst.] somatic NS: the afferent neurons are responsible for transmitting impulses ____ from the area where you would receive the stimulus to the CNS
away
68
[nervous syst.] somatic NS: the efferent neurons are responsible for the
conductance of motor reflexes from the CNS to the area where the impulse was received
69
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: also called the adrenergic NS (flight or fight response)
sympathetic NS
70
[nervous syst.] sympathetic NS: what are the included actions?
increasing alertness, heart rate, dilation of bronchial tubes to increase lung airflow, stimulates sweat glands and adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine
71
[nervous syst.] sympathetic NS: inhibits intestinal motility and dilates blood vessels of skeletal muscles to _____
increase blood flow
72
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: also called the cholinergic NS (rest and digest response)
parasympathetic
73
[nervous syst.] parasympathetic NS constricts bronchial tubes to decrease airflow to the lungs, and stimulate the secretion of _______
salivary mucus
74
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: stimulates intestinal motility and secretion to promote digestion, has no effect on sweat glands; also stimulates the bladder wall to contract and the internal sphincter to cause urination
parasympathetic NS
75
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: eye constriction
parasympathetic NS
76
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: slowing of heartbeat
parasympathetic NS
77
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: lung bronchi constriction
parasympathetic NS
78
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: stomach digestion stimulated
parasympathetic NS
79
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: liver bile is stimulated
parasympathetic NS
80
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: stimulates peristasis and secretion in intestines
parasympathetic NS
81
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: contracts bladder
parasympathetic NS
82
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: dilation of eyes
sympathetic NS
83
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: inhibition of salivary gland
sympathetic NS
84
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: accelerates heartbeat
sympathetic NS
85
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: dilate bronchi lungs
sympathetic NS
86
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: inhibits stomach digestion
sympathetic NS
87
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: stimulates glucose release in liver
sympathetic NS
88
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: inhibits peristasis and secretion in intestine
sympathetic NS
89
[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: releases bladder
sympathetic NS
90
[digestive syst.] this system breakdowns the food materials that were ingested by the organism in order to harness energy.
digestive system
91
[digestive syst.] part: entry point of food and water towards the gastrointestinal canal
mouth
92
[digestive syst.] part: masticate food materials in the mouth into smaller pieces
teeth
93
[digestive syst.] part: moves the food materials in the mouth for better facilitation of mastication, serves as the main organ for tasting the food ingested
tongue
94
[digestive syst.] part: secretes saliva which contains enzyme known as salivary amylase or ptyalin that catalyzes primary carbohydrate digestion
salivary glands
95
[digestive syst.] part: serves as the passageway of both food and air
pharynx
96
[digestive syst.] part: covers the trachea when swallowing food to prevent it from entering the respiratory tract
epiglottis
97
[digestive syst.] part: connects the mouth to the cardiac end of the stomach; passageway of the bolus to get to the stomach via peristalsis
esophagus
98
[digestive syst.] part: further mechanical and chemical digestion of food materials ingested; site of primary fat digestion
stomach
99
[digestive syst.] part: absorbs nutrients from the stomach through small-finger like projections (microvilli); site of primary lipid digestion, made up of 3 parts
small intestine
100
[digestive syst.] small intestine is made up of 3 parts namely:
duodenum, jejunum, ileum
101
[digestive syst.] what is the longest portion of the small intestine?
ileum
102
[digestive syst.] part: absorption of water not absorbed in the small intestine; serves as the temporary storage of undigested materials
large intestine
103
[digestive syst.] part: serves as the exit point of the fecal materials from the body
rectum
104
[digestive syst.] masticated food materials that passes through the esophagus
bolus
105
[digestive syst.] mechanically and chemically digested food from the stomach acted upon by the acidic substances in it. it enters the duodenum of the small intestine for completion of digestion
chyme
106
[digestive syst.] cell type: this secretes mucin
mucin neck cell
107
[digestive syst.] function of mucin
protects the walls of the stomach against the acidic environment in it; activated into mucus when reacted with water
108
[digestive syst.] cell type: this secretes hydrochloric acid
parietal cells
109
[digestive syst.] function of hydrochloric acid
activates pepsinogen into pepsin, maintains the acidity of the stomach
110
[digestive syst.] cell type: this secretes pepsinogen
chief cells
111
[digestive syst.] function of hydrochloric acid
reacts with HCl to be activated into pepsin and carry out chemical digestion in the stomach
112
[digestive syst.] this type of secretion digests milk in young mammals
rennin
113
[digestive syst.] this type of secretion digests fats in the stomach
lipase
114
[digestive syst.] this can protect the stomach walls only it has been activated into mucus
mucus
115
[endocrine syst.] responsible for the secretion of hormones needed in the development, growth, and the development of organisms
endocrine system
116
[endocrine syst.] these are long distance chemical signals which travel via blood or lymph; they are mainly concerned in maintaining homeostasis
hormones
117
[endocrine syst.] these are duct glands
exocrine
118
[endocrine syst.] duct glands secrete
enzymes
119
[endocrine syst.] the method of transport for exocrine glands is through
ducts
120
[endocrine syst.] target of exocrine glands
organ near gland
121
[endocrine syst.] these are ductless glands
endocrine glands
122
[endocrine syst.] endocrine glands secrete
hormones
123
[endocrine syst.] the method of transports of hormones
bloodstream
124
[endocrine syst.] target of endocrine seretions
organ distant from gland
125
[endocrine syst.] this secretes testosterone
testis
126
[endocrine syst.] what hormone functions for stimulates development of male sex organs and secondary sex characteristics
testosterone
127
[endocrine syst.] this secretes estrogens (estradiol, estrone, estriol) and progesterone
ovary
128
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates development of female sex organs and secondary sex characteristic, maturation of follicles, formation and maintenance of bone tissue, and contraction of uterine muscles
estrogen
129
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates secretion of substances from the lining of the uterus (endometrium) in preparation for egg implantation in the uterine wall
progesterone
130
[endocrine syst.] this secretes thyroxine 4, triiodothyronine 3, calcitonin
thyroid gland
131
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates cellular metabolism, lipid production, carbohydrate utilization, and CNS and ANS activation
thyroxine 4
132
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates cellular metabolism, lipid production, carbohydrate utilization, and CNS and ANS activation but in active form and more abundant manner?
triiodothyroxine 3
133
[endocrine syst.] what hormone decreases serum (blood) calcium concentrations by promoting uptake of calcium into bone tissue
calcitonin
134
[endocrine syst.] this secretes epinephrine (adrenaline), and norepinephrine?
adrenal gland, medulla
135
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates fight or flight response, increases heart rate, dilates blood vessels, increases oxygen delivery to muscle and brain tissue, increase blood glucose and is commonly used in clinical settings?
epinephrine
136
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates fight or flight response, increases heart rate, dilates blood vessels, increases oxygen delivery to muscle and brain tissue, increase blood glucose and is a treatment for depression and epilepsy?
norepinephrine
137
[endocrine syst.] this secretes cortisol or glucocorticoid, aldosterone (mineralocorticoid), and androgens
adrenal gland, cortex
138
[endocrine syst.] what hormone activates physiological stress response to maintain blood glucose concentrations, augments constriction of blood vessels to maintain blood pressure, and stimulates anti-inflammatory pathways
cortisol
139
[endocrine syst.] what hormone regulates balance of salt and water in the body?
aldosterone (mineralocorticoid)
140
[endocrine syst.] what hormone contributes to growth and development of the male reproductive system and serve as precursors to testosterone and estrogen?
androgens
141
[endocrine syst.] what hormone is used for testing pregnancy?
HCG
142
[endocrine syst.] what gland secretes corticotropin, growth hormone, thyrotropin, luteinizing hormone, and prolactin?
pituitary gland in the anterior lobe
143
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates the growth and secretion of cells of the adrenal cortex, increases skin pigmentation?
corticotropin (adrenocorticotropin, ACTH)
144
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates growth of essentially all tissues in the body?
growth hormone (GH, somatotropin)
145
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates secretion of thyroid hormone and growth of thyroid cells?
thyrotropin (thyroid stimulating hormone, TSH)
146
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates maturation of egg follicles in females and development of spermatozoa in males?
follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
147
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates rupture of mature egg follicles and production of progesterone and androgens in females and secretion of androgens in males.
luteinizing hormone (LH; interstitial cell stimulating hormone, ICSH)
148
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates and maintains lactation in breastfeeding mothers?
prolactin
149
[endocrine syst.] what gland/tissue secretes oxytocin and vasopressin?
pituitary gland, posterior
150
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates milk ejection or letdown during breastfeeding, and uterine muscle contraction during childbirth?
oxytocin
151
[endocrine syst.] what hormone regulates fluid volume by increasing or decreasing fluid excretion in response to changes in blood pressure?
vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH)
152
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates melanin synthesis in skin cells to increase pigmentation, may also suppress appetite
melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)
153
[endocrine syst.] this gland/tissue secretes melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)
pituitary gland, intermediate lobe
154
This gland/tissue secretes corticotropin-releasing hormone, growth hormone-releasing hormone, thyrotropin-releasing hormone, gonadotropin-releasing hormone, prolactin-inhibiting factor, somatostatin
hypothalamus
155
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates the synthesis and secretion of corticotropin from the anterior pituitary gland?
corticotropin-releasing hormone
156
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates the synthesis and secretion of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland?
growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
157
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates and regulates secretion of thyrotropin from the anterior pituitary gland and may modulate neuronal activity in the brain and spinal cord?
thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
158
[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates synthesis and secretion of FSH and LH?
gonadotropin-releasing hormone
159
[endocrine syst.] what hormone inhibits secretion of PRL?
prolactin-inhibiting factor (dopamine)
160
[endocrine syst.] what hormone inhibits the secretion of GH, glucagon, and GI hormones?
somatostatin
161
[endocrine syst.] this gland or tissue secretes glucagon and insulin?
pancreatic islets of langerhans
162
[endocrine syst.] what hormone is released by alpha cells, maintains blood glucose concentrations by stimulating release of glucose from the liver? [gutom feeling]
glucagon
163
[endocrine syst.] what hormone increases blood sugar?
glucagon
164
[endocrine syst.] what hormone is released by beta cells, lowers blood sugar, stimulates glucose uptake and storage in adipose muscle, and liver? [busog feeling]
insulin
165
[endocrine syst.] this gland/tissue secretes parathyroid hormone?
parathyroid gland (PTH)
166
[endocrine syst.] what hormone increases serum calcium concentrations from bone tissue?
parathyroid hormone
167
[endocrine syst.] _____ occurs to supply needed calcium in blood in relation to the parathyroid hormone
bone degradation
168
[ontogeny] the nervous system, sensory epithelia of the eye, ear and nose, epidermis, nails, hair, mammary glands, hypophysis, subcutaneous glands, and enamel of the teeth are derived from what germ layer?
ectoderm
169
[ontogeny] the connective tissues, cartilage, bones, striated and smooth muscles, heart walls, blood and lymph vessels, kidneys, gonads, genital ducts, lining of body cavities, spleen, suprarenal cortices are derived from what germ layer?
mesoderm
170
[ontogeny] the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts, tonsillar parenchyma, liver, thymus, thyroid, parathyroid, pancreas, epithelial lining of the urinary bladder and urethra, epithelial lining of tympanic activity, tympanic antrum and auditory tube are derived from what germ layer?
endoderm
171
[ontogeny] ontogeny means
organogenesis
172
[ontogeny] the beginning stage embryogenesis where only a solid ball of cells is present
morulation
173
[ontogeny] part of embryogenesis where the solid ball of cells becomes hollow
blastulation
174
[ontogeny] part of embryogenesis where the germ layers have been established
gastrulation
175
[physiology] this is the mechanism by which biological processes have the ability to self-regulate
feedback
176
[physiology] type of feedback where an accumulation of an end product of a process slows that process
negative feedback
177
[physiology] what type of feedback happens when there is excess accumulation of ATP during cellular respiration and inhibits an enzyme near the beginning of the pathway to slow down sugar breakdown?
negative feedback
178
[physiology] type of feedback where an end product speeds up its production
positive feedback
179
[physiology] what type of feedback is present when aggregation of platelets during injury attracts more platelets to form a clot?
positive feedback
180
[physiology] also called hemostasis
blood clot formation
181
[physiology] when does blood clotting occur?
when endothelium of the blood vessels is exposed to the blood
182
[physiology] what are the steps of blood clotting?
vasoconstriction -> formation of platelet plug -> coagulation which reinforces the platelet plug with a fibrin mesh
183
[physiology] during hemostasis, how is the fibrin mesh formed?
from the release of thromboplastin that will convert prothrombin to thrombin with the help of calcium ions, thrombin will then convert fibrinogen into fibrin
184
[physiology] this is the process of bone formation by osteoblasts
ossification or osteogenesis
185
[physiology] this takes place during ossification of bones and can also occur in other tissues
calcification
186
[physiology] the development of bone from fibrous membranes is called
intramembranous ossification
187
[physiology] the development of bone from hyaline cartilage is called
endochondral ossification
188
[biliary syst.] this system involves the liver, gallbladder, hepatic, and bile ducts
biliary system
189
[biliary syst.] the ______ is a part of the extrahepatic biliary system where bile is stored and concentrated
gallbladder
190
[biliary syst.] this is essential for digesting fats and is found in most animals
bile
191
[biliary syst.] the bile then gets stored in the gallbladder through the _____
cystic duct
192
[biliary syst.] where does bile form?
liver
193
[biliary syst.] bile flow is controlled by the opening and closing of the sphincter of oddi and the _____
ampulla of vater
194
[renal physio] ____ functions to rid the body of waste material that are either ingested or produced by metabolism, also functions to control the volume and electrolyte composition of the bodily fluids
kidney
195
[renal physio] this is the functional unit of the kidney
nephron
196
[renal physio] each nephron has a
glomerulus
197
[renal physio] several hormones provide specificity of tubular reabsorption for different
electrolytes and water
198
[renal physio] this hormone is important in regulating sodium reabsorption and secretion of potassium and hydrogen ions
aldosterone
199
[renal physio] the release of aldosterone is stimulated by ________
increased extracellular potassium concentration and increased in angiotensin II levels
199
[renal physio] this is the most powerful sodium-retaining hormone
angiotensin II
200
[renal physio] angiotensin II formation increases during _____
low blood pressure and low extracellular fluid volume
201
[renal physio] increased secretion of aldosterone causes renal sodium and water retention, helping to increase extracellular fluid volume and restore ____
blood pressure to normal
202
[renal physio] the increased formation of angiotensin II helps return blood pressure to and extracellular volume towards normal by
increasing sodium and water reabsorption
203
[renal physio] this hormone increases water permeability in the tubules to conserve water in circumstances of dehydration
antidiuretic hormone/vasopressin
204
[renal physio] the action of ADH plays a key role in controlling the degree of dilution or the
concentration of the urine
205
[immune response] this refers to the ability of your immune system to defend against infection and disease
immunity
206
[immune response] 2 types of immunity that the adaptive immune system provides
humoral immunity and cell-mediated immunity
207
[immune response] this type of immunity is from serum antibodies produced by plasma cells
humoral immunity
208
[immune response] someone who has never been exposed to a specific disease can gain humoral immunity through the administration of ______ from someone who has been exposed and survived the same disease
antibodies
209
[immune response] ____ refers to the bodily fluids where these free-floating serum antibodies bind to antigens and assist with elimination
humoral
210
[immune response] this type of immunity can be acquired through T cells from someone who is immune to the target disease or infection
cell-mediated immunity
211
[immune response] this refers to the fact that the response is carried out by cytotoxic cells
"cell-mediated"
212
[immune response] someone who has been exposed to a specific disease can gain cell-mediated immunity through administration of _____ from someone that has been exposed, and survived the same disease
T cells
213
[immune response] 2 types of immunity
innate/natural/nonspecific and acquired/adaptive
214
[immune response] lymphocytes: these mature in the bone marrow, synthesize and secrete antibodies
B cells
215
[immune response] each B cell produces only ___ type of antibody
1
216
[immune response] lymphocytes: these mature in the thymus gland
T cells
217
[immune response] lymphocytes, type of T cell: these kill virus-infected cells by secreting proteins that penetrate and puncture cell membrane, this shuts off replication of the pathogen
cytotoxic T cells (CD8+)
218
[immune response] lymphocytes, type of T cell: these stimulates other components of the immune response by secreting signaling molecules that activate B cells, cytotoxic cells, inflammatory cells, and phagocytes
helper T cells (CD4+)
219
[immune response] lymphocytes, type of T cell: HIV destroys ____ making people with HIV susceptible to opportunistic infections
helper T cells
220
[immune response] lymphocytes, type of T cell: these turn off the immune response once the pathogen has been defeated
suppressor T cells
221
[immune response] 2 types of humoral immunity:
passive, active
222
[cell bio] what organelle has a dense nucleolus which synthesizes rRNA needed for ribosome formation?
nucleus
223
[cell bio] this organelle synthesizes lipids, metabolizes carbohydrates, and detoxifies drugs and poisons
Smooth ER
224
[cell bio] what organelle synthesizes proteins, repairs damages in the plasma membrane by sending proteins and phospholipids to it?
rough ER
225
[cell bio] RER uses _____ in order to transport proteins and phospholipids to the damaged part of the plasma membrane
vesicles
226
[cell bio] what organelle modifies, stores, and send proteins to its specific destinations?
golgi apparatus
227
[cell bio] this has a _____ and a _______ that receives proteins for modifications for delivering them
cis-face, trans face
228
[cell bio] this organelle digests macromolecules and cellular respiratory by-products by the action of hydrolytic enzymes?
lysosomes
229
[cell bio] lysosomes can fuse with autophagosomes for _______
autophagy
230
[cell bio] it has a highly folded inner compartment called ______ that increases the surface area for harvesting energy
cristae
231
[cell bio] this organelle breaks fatty acids into smaller molecules, it also detoxifies alcohol and other harmful substances y transferring hydrogens to poison to oxygen
peroxisomes
232
[cell bio] peroxisomes produces _____ by transferring hydrogen from substrates to oxygen; bounded only by a single membrane
hydrogen peroxide
233
[cell bio] this organelles serves as the traffic way of vesicles and organelles in the cell
cytoskeleton
234
[cell bio] most cell walls are made up of _____
cellulose
235
[cell bio] channels that links cells for cell to cell communication and are usually found perforating the cell wall
plasmodesmata
236
[cell bio] this organelle serves as the storage of waste products in plant cells, and is the site of breakdown of waste by hydrolysis
central vacuole
237
[cell cycle] accounts for almost 90% of the cell cycle that is subdivided into 3 parts
interphase
238
[cell cycle] 3 parts of the interphase
G1, S phase, G2
239
[cell cycle] in this phase, the newly produced cells in the M phase grows by imbibing water and producing more and producing more proteins in anticipation for DNA synthesis
G1 phase
240
[cell cycle] in this phase, the cell doubles the number of chromosomes by DNA replication
S phase
241
[cell cycle] in this phase, the cell grows further and checks for errors that may be present in the duplicated chromosomes in preparation for cell division
G2 phase
242
[cell cycle] the phase where the cell undergoes meiosis or mitosis
M phase
243
[cell cycle] type of cell division that undergoes 2 divisions
meiosis
244
[cell cycle] mitosis has ____ daughter cells per division
2
245
[cell cycle] meiosis has ____ daughter cells at the end of the second division
4
246
[cell cycle] mitosis produces 2 genetically _____ daughter cells
identical
247
[cell cycle] meiosis produces 4 genetically _____ daughter cells
different
248
[cell cycle] the daughter cells are diploid
mitosis
249
[cell cycle] the daughter cells are haploid
meiosis
250
[cell cycle] cell division for growth, repair, and asexual reproduction
mitosis
251
[cell cycle] cell division for production of gametes, perpetuation of species and genetic diversity
meiosis
252
[mitosis] stage marked by very thick and dense chromosomes, chromosomes are still enclosed in the cell nucleus within the nuclear envelop
prophase
253
[mitosis] this stage is marked by the alignment of chromosomes at the center of the cell, halfway between the mitotic spindle poles
metaphase
254
[mitosis] during metaphase, movement is mediated by the ______
kinetochore microtubules
255
[mitosis] this stage is marked by the retraction of microtubules, increasing the separation of sister chromatids
anaphase
256
[mitosis] during this phase, sister chromatids reach opposing poles, the small nuclear vesicles in the cell begin to re-form around the group of chromosomes at each end
telophase
257
[meiosis] meiosis 1 is known as _____, because the cells produced in this cycle have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell
reductional meiosis
258
[meiosis] in meiosis 1, homologous pairs of chromosomes known as _____ separate instead of sister chromatids
tetrads
259
[meiosis] meiosis 2 is mitotic in nature because the number of the cell entered meiosis 2 is ____
preserved
260
[meiosis] what is the longest stage of meiosis 1?
prophase 1
261
[meiosis] why is P1 of M1 the longest?
because 5 main processes occur
262
[meiosis] what are the 5 main processes of P1 of M1?
leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, diakinesis
263
[meiosis] part of P1 of M1 where chromosomes start to condense, thus becoming visible
leptotene
264
[meiosis] part of P1 of M1 where homologous chromosomes start to pair (synapse)
zygotene
265
[meiosis] part of P1 of M1 where homologous chromosomes are closest to each other and crossing over takes place
pachytene
266
[meiosis] part of P1 of M1 where homologous pairs start to separate except at the point of crossing over (chiasma)
diplotene
267
[meiosis] part of P1 of M1 where max condensation of the chromosomes is achieved, the nucleolus disappears and nuclear envelope fragments disperse
diakinesis
268
[spermatogenesis] when does spermatogenesis start?
puberty
268
[spermatogenesis] how many sperm cells are produced from a parent cell?
4
269
[oogenesis] only ___egg cell is produced per cycle?
1
270
[oogenesis] when does oogenesis begin?
during fetal development
271
[oogenesis] how many eggs are produced from a parent cell?
1
272
[oogenesis] when does the 1st cell cycle arrest occur in egg cells?
diplotene stage of P1 in M1
273
[oogenesis] the first arrest of the egg cells continue only during _____
puberty in women
274
[oogenesis] when does the 2nd cell cycle arrest occur in egg cells?
during metaphase 2 and resumes when the egg is fertilized
275
[oogenesis] polar bodies are removed via ____
menstruation
276
[cellular resp.] cellular respiration can be summarized by this equation
C₆H₁₂6O₂ -> 6CO₂ + 6H₂O
277
[cellular resp.] stages of cellular respiration
glycolysis, anaerobic respiration, Kreb's cycle, ETC
278
[cellular resp.] this process breakdowns 6-carbon glucose into 3-carbon molecule (pyruvate), 10 step process that occurs in the cytoplasm, anaerobic process thus O₂ is not required
glycolysis
279
[cellular resp.] products of glycolysis
2 ATP per glucose, 2 NADH per glucose molecule
280
[cellular resp.] this is an anaerobic process where NAD+ is regenerated to increase its affinity to electrons and hydrogens in glycolysis, happens during hypoxemic states such as physical activity
anaerobic respiration
281
[cellular resp.] products of anaerobic respiration
ethanol, lactic acid, carbon dioxide
282
[cellular resp.] this aerobic process completely breaks down glucose, breakdowns pyruvate into C and H₂O, formation of CO₂ and H₂O from the liberation of c and H₂O, loading of H and electrons to NAD+ and FAD to form NADH and FADH2, occurs in the mitochondrial complex, and the acetyl group detaches from the co-enzyme A and enters the reaction cycle
Kreb's cycle
283
[cellular resp.] products of the Kreb's cycle
2 ATP, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2
284
[cellular resp.] movement of electron carriers excited by electrons and protons from the Kreb's cycle in a chain, release of energy as electrons transfers from one stair to another, formation of H₂O as the electrons and protons react with oxygen which is the last electron acceptor
ETC
285
[cellular resp.] total number of ATP formed from glycolysis, Kreb's cycle, and the ETC
36-38
286
[taxonomy] who proposed the 5 kingdom scheme?
Robert H. Whitaker
287
[taxonomy] type of kingdom where organisms are motile and cannot produce their own food (heterotrophs)
kingdom animalia
288
[taxonomy] kingdom in which organisms are not motile, they have cellulosic cell walls, and are autotrophs who produce their own food
kingdom plantae
289
[taxonomy] kingdom composed of eukaryotic plant-like organisms that do not have chlorophyll, are saprophytic, and they obtain their nutrition from decaying organisms, and they have cell walls made of chitin
kingdom fungi
290
[taxonomy] fungi obtain nutrients from decaying matter through an organ called ____
hyphae
291
[taxonomy] this kingdom is made up of all the unicellular eukaryotic animal-like protists
kingdom protista
292
[taxonomy] the only organism that is both animal-like and plant like is ___
Euglena sp.
293
[taxonomy] this kingdom is composed of all the unicellular prokaryotic organisms in the biosphere (bacteria and extremophiles)
kingdom monera
294
[taxonomy] this domain consists of all extreme bacteria and some species of algae
domain archaea
295
[taxonomy] this domain consists of all unicellular prokaryotic organisms
domain bacteria
296
[taxonomy] this domain consists of multicellular, colonic, or filamentous organisms
domain eukarya
297
[plant phy] these generate cells for the formation of new organs
meristems
298
[plant phy] refers to the one main vertical root
taproot
299
[plant phy] taproots give rise to lateral roots also called
branch roots
300
[plant phy] points on the stem where leaves are attached
nodes
301
[plant phy] segment between nodes on a stem
internodes
302
[plant phy] the elongation of a young root is concentrated near the tip consisting of a
terminal bud
303
[plant phy] the ____ has the potential to form a lateral shoot
axillary bud
304
[plant phy] this is the phenomenon wherein the growth of axillary buds is inhibited, a condition where vertical growth supercedes lateral growth in a plant.
apical dominance`
305
[plant phy] 3 basic plant organs
root, stem, leaves
306
[plant phy] 3 plant tissue system
dermal, vascular, ground
307
[plant phy] this tissue system is the outer protective covering
dermal tissue system
308
[plant phy] skin of fleshy plants
epiderm
309
[plant phy] skin of woody plants
periderm
310
[plant phy] this system carries out long-distance transport of materials between roots and shoots
vascular tissue system
311
[plant phy] the _____ conveys water and dissolved minerals from roots to shoot
xylem
312
[plant phy] this transports sugars from the leaves to whereever they are needed
phloem
313
[plant phy] this system includes various cells specialized for storage, photosynthesis, and support
ground tissue system
314
[plant phy] this type of plant cell performs most of the metabolic functions of the plants
parenchyma cells
315
[plant phy] this type of plant cell helps in the support of young plant parts
collenchyma cells
316
[plant phy] this type of plant cell have thick cell walls strengthened by lignin, they are specialized for support of older plants and are dead at functional maturity
sclerenchyma
317
[plant phy] equation for photosynthesis
6CO₂ + 12 H₂O + light energy -> C₆H₂O₆ + 6O₂ + 6H₂O
318
[plant phy] _____ with chlorophyll serves as the light trapping strcture
chloroplast
319
[plant phy] 2 main phases of photosynthesis
light-dependent reactions, Calvin cycle
320
[plant phy] the light dependent reaction synthesizes ___ and _____ to serve as fuel in the Calvin cycle
ATP, NADPH
321
[plant phy] Calvin cycle is known for fixing ____ in the chloroplast
carbon dioxide
322
[plant phy] in the Calvin cycle, carbon dioxide is converted into ____ and making glucose out of it
6-carbon sugar (RUBISCO)
323
[plant phy] light dependent reactions occur in ___
thylakoids
324
[plant phy] Calvin cycle occurs in the ____ of the chloroplast
stroma
325
[plant hormones] ripens fruits, opposes auxin effects, promotes or inhibits root growth, flower development and leaf formation
ethylene
326
[plant hormones] influences root growth and differentiation, stimulation of cell division and growth, stimulation of germination, delay senescence
cytokinins
327
[plant hormones] stimulates stem elongation, root growth and cell differentiation and branching, regulation of fruit development, enhancement of apical dominance, functions in phototropism and gravitropism, promotion of xylem differentiation and retards leaf senescence
auxin (IAA)
328
[plant hormones] influences root growth and differentiation, stimulation of flowering and fruit development, promotion of seed and bud germination
giberellins
329
[photoperiodism] the environmental stimulus plants use to detect the time of the year is the ___
photoperiod
330
[photoperiodism] the color of light that is the most effective in interrupting the night time portion of photoperiod
red
331
[mol bio] these are substances that hasten up the reaction by lowering the activation energy of a certain chemical process without using up itself in the catalysis
enzymes
332
[mol bio] this enzyme catalyzes hydrolysis
hydrolase
333
[mol bio] this enzyme catalyzes rearrangement of atoms within a molecule
isomerase
334
[mol bio] this enzyme catalyzes joining of 2 or more chemicals together
ligase, polymerase
335
[mol bio] this enzyme catalyzes splitting a chemical into smaller parts without water
lyase
336
[mol bio] this enzyme catalyzes transfer of electrons or hydrogen atoms from one molecule to another
oxidoreductase
337
[mol bio] this enzyme catalyzes moving a functional group from one molecule to another
transferase
338
[mol bio] what pump expels 3 molecules of Na in exchange for 2 K ions
Na+-K+ pump
339
[mol bio] type of transport where materials are moved across the membrane via a concentration gradient
passive transport
340
[mol bio] an example of passive transport that is responsible for the movement of water from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration, meaning water moves to an area where there is more solute concentration
osmosis
341
[cell tonicity] tendency of water is to move in the cell causing cell to swell due to low solute compared to that of the cell
hypotonic solution
342
[cell tonicity] tendency of water is to move out the cell causing cell to plasmolyze due to high solute compared to that of the cell
hypertonic solution
343
[cell tonicity] type of solution where there is an equal concentration of solute in and out of the cell
isotonic
344
[genetics] the process by which DNA replicates itself by using a DNA strand template
replication
345
[genetics] what is the mode of replication?
semi conservative
346
[genetics] where is replication initiated?
origin of replication
347
[genetics] what direction does replication proceed?
5' to 3' direction
348
[enzyme] unzips the double stranded DNA at the Ori site
helicase
349
[enzyme] provides RNA primers in order to initiate replication, supplies RNA primers in the Okazaki fragments to be later joined by ligase
primase
350
[enzyme] synthesizes majority of the DNA in the 5' to 3' direction, main enzyme for replication in bacteria
DNA polymerase III
351
[enzyme] can also polymerize nucleotides in the 5' to 3' direction, mainly for DNA repair and exonuclease activity
DNA polymerase I
352
[enzyme] completely connects the areas in the Okazaki fragments not used by DNA polymerase I
Ligase
353
[enzyme] relieves the tension and stress on the unzipped DNA strand preventing them from supercoiling
topoisomerase
354
[enzymes] prevents the unzipped strands of the DNA from the reattaching again
single strand binding protein
355
[RNA] there is a presence of ____ groups on the second carbon
-OH
356
[transcription] the process by which RNA is formed using the antisense DNA strand as its template
transcription
357
[transcription] this is the main enzyme responsible for the synthesis of the nucleotides, where the process results to the formation of single stranded RNA
RNA polymerase
358
[transcription] the 3 main processes of transcription
initiation, elongation, termination
359
[transcription] occurs wen RNA polymerase (RNAP) binds to a promoter; a sigma factor is a transcription, initiation factor that enables binding of RNAP to gene promoters
transcription
360
[transcription] is the synthesis of RNA from DNA template via the addition of nucleotides from the environment
elongation
361
[genetics] phosphate group + deoxyribose + base
nucleotides
362
[genetics] sugar + base + no phosphate
nucleoside
363
[transcription] occurs when RNAP meets a terminator sequence, may or may not involve a RHO factor
termination
364
[translation] the process of forming amino acid sequences (proteins) from an mRNA template
translation
365
[translation] links amino acids together
peptide bonds
366
[translation] building blocks of proteins
amino acids
367
[translation] translation utilizes an open reading flame (ORF) that consists of
start codon intervening sequence, stop codon
368
[translation] start codon
AUG
369
[translation] stop codons
UAA, UAG, UGA
370
[types of RNA] carries amino acids coded for by the codons in the mRNA and delivers these amino acids to the site of protein synthesis
transfer RNA
371
[types of RNA] primary component of ribosomes, responsible for reading the sequences of amino acids and linking these together
ribosomal RNA
372
[types of RNA] serves as the template for the formation of proteins
messenger RNA
373
[mendelian mode of inheritance] the law which states that 2 members of a single gene pair separate from each other during gamete formation, thus, for each gene with 2 alleles, half of the gametes carry one allele and the other half carry the other allele
law of segregation
374
[mendelian mode of inheritance] the law which states that genes on a different chromosome independently behave in the production of gametes, thus leading to the randomization of the genotypes/phenotypes of the offspring
law of independent assortment
375
[assumptions of mendelian law] dominance is
complete
376
[assumptions of mendelian law] trait is governed by a ___ only
single allele
377
[assumptions of mendelian law] genes are found on different chromosomes that is why their behavior is ____ of each other
independent
378
[assumptions of mendelian law] genes are _____, thus every parent has the same number of alleles
autosomal
379
[assumptions of mendelian law] traits have no selective value, every phenotype has ___ chances of survival
chances
380
[non-mendelian] a type of inheritance wherein neither traits from the parents is dominant to the other, traits are blended
incomplete dominance
381
[non-mendelian] a type of inheritance wherein both traits from the parents are manifested
codominance
382
[non-mendelian] a type of inheritance wherein multiple alleles affect a certain trait
multiples alleles
383
[inheritance] a type of inheritance wherein multiple number of genes affect a certain trait
polygenes
384
[pedigree analysis] type of inheritance where genes responsible foe the phenotypes of an organism is located in the 22 pairs of non-sex determining chromosomes
autosomal inheritance
385
[pedigree analysis] 2 types of autosomal inheritance
autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive
386
[pedigree analysis] type of autosomal inheritance where dominant conditions are expressed in organisms with just 1 copy of the mutant allele, affected males and females have equal probabilities of transmitting the trait to their offspring
autosomal dominant
387
[pedigree analysis] type of autosomal inheritance where trait is manifested only when 2 copies of the aberrant allele is present
autosomal recessive
388
[pedigree analysis] what type of autosomal inheritance are Huntington's diesase, achondroplasia, and polycystic kidney disease?
autosomal dominant
389
[pedigree analysis] what type of autosomal inheritance are tay-such's, hemochromatosis, phenylketunoria
autosomal recessive
390
[pedigree analysis] all x-linked recessive traits are manifested in males, because they only have ___ X chromosome
1
391
[pedigree analysis] mother to son transmission
x-linked recessive
392
[pedigree analysis] duchenne muscular dystrophy, hemophilia A, red-green colorblindness, congenital deafness are attributed to
x-linked recessive
393
[pedigree analysis] father to daughter transmission
x-linked dominant
394
[pedigree analysis] retinitis pigmentosa, chondrodysplasia punctata, hypophosphatemic rickets are attibuted to
x-linked dominant
395
[pedigree analysis] if there is sexual predilection, then it is
x-linked
396
[pedigree analysis] it there is a 50/50 ration for men and women who are affected then it is
autosomal
397
[pedigree analysis] pedigree shows some generation without affected individuals then it is
autosomal recessive
398
[pedigree analysis] never skips a generation, only males are affected
y linked (holandric)
399
[ecology] autotrophs
primary producers
400
[ecology] heterotrophs
consumers
401
[ecology] detritivores
decomposers
402
[ecology] highest form of ecological organization which refers to all the life forms, and factors that affects and influences these life forms
biosphere
403
[terrestrial biomes] vertically layered plants, most intense competition of light among plants, equatorial and subequatorial regions
tropical forests
404
[terrestrial biomes] occurs in band near 30 degrees North and South latitude, water storage in succulent plants, deep roots, reduced leaf surface area
desert
405
[terrestrial biomes] equatorial and subequatorial regions, presence of thorns, small leaves for the dry condition
savanna
406
[terrestrial biomes] midlatitude coastal regions, tough evergreen leaves, woody plants to reduce water loss, hot-resistant seeds
chaparral
407
[terrestrial biomes] extends in a band across northern America and Eurasia to the edge of the Arctic Tundra, production of cones
taiga
408
[terrestrial biomes] covers expansive areas of the Arctic, stunted growth of plants mostly grasses, mosses, forbs, presence of permanent frozen layer of soil (permafrost)
tundra
409
[general marine biome] land meets water and gets submerged twice a day
intertidal zone
410
[general marine biome] shallow water over continental shelves that is easily reached by water
neritic zone
411
[general marine biome] the area off the shore of the continental shelf with an average depth of 200m
oceanic zone
412
[general marine biome] layers of the ocean that receives the greatest illumination where planktons and most organism thrive
photic zone
413
[general marine biome] layer of the ocean that receives lesser amount of light
aphotic zone
414
[general marine biome] layer of the ocean that receives little or no light where bioluminescent fish and organism thrive
abyssal zone
415
[general marine biome] layer rich in nutrients containing sand and other sediments found at the bottom of the biome
benthic
416
[general marine biome] part of the sea not near the sea coast or continental shelf
pelagic zone
417
[general freshwater biome] receives largest amounts of sunlight and provides space for growing organisms to thrive
littoral zone
418
[general freshwater biome] not very well-lit, not suitable for plant growth, provides home for planktons
limnetic zone
419
[general freshwater biome] zone that receives a decent amount of light
euphotic zone
420
[general freshwater biome] zone that contains sediments and organismal debris suitable for plant growth
benthic zone
421
[general freshwater biome] lakes that are very deep, with high concentration of dissolved oxygen but little nutrients, only few planktons
oligotrophic lakes
422
[general freshwater biome] lakes that are fairly shallow, have lots of nutrients, low concentration of dissolved oxygen, thus high concentration of planktons
eutrophic lakes
423
[ecology] refers to the sequence of community and ecosystem changes after a certain disturbance
ecological succession
424
[ecology] 2 types of ecological succession
primary and secondary
425
[type of ecol succession] occurs in virtually lifeless area where no soil has formed in a new volcanic island or glacier and occurs for hundreds to thousands of years
primary succession
426
[type of ecol succession] organisms present include autotrophic and heterotrophic prokaryotes and protists
primary succession
427
[ecological succession] type of selection where many offspring are produced but only a small investment of resources is put into each offspring
R-selection
428
[ecological succession] type of selection there is a heavy investment in each offspring to ensure higher probability of survival
K-selection
429
[type of ecol succession] R-selected organisms inhabit the area
primary succession
430
[type of ecol succession] occurs when an existing community was wiped-out by disturbances leaving the soil intact, and occurs in a faster rate
secondary succession
431
[type of ecol succession] organisms present are woody shrubs, forest trees, perennial trees
secondary succession
432
[type of ecol succession] K-selected organisms inhabit the area
secondary succession
433
[ecology] defined as the maximum population size that a particular environment can support
carrying capacity
434
[ecology] in the logistic growth model, the per capita rate of increase declines as carrying capacity is reached, thus it produces an____ growth curve
S-shaped
435
[reproductive isolation] the _____ defines a species as a population whose members have the potential to interbreed and produce viable offsprings
biological species concept
436
[reproductive isolation] is the existence of biological barriers that impede members of 2 species from producing viable offsprings
reproductive isolation
437
[reproductive isolation] impede mating between species or hinder the fertilization of ova of members of different species attempt to mate
prezygotic barriers
438
[reproductive isolation] if fertilization does happen, this prevents hybrid zygote from developing into fertile adults
postzygotic barriers
439
[reproductive isolation] types of prezygotic isolating mechanisms
temporal, ecological, behavioral, mechanical
440
[type of prezygotic isolating mechanism] occurs when 2 species mate at different times of the year
temporal
441
[type of prezygotic isolating mechanism] occurs when 2 species occupy different habitats
ecological
442
[type of prezygotic isolating mechanism] occurs when 2 species have different courtship behaviours
behavioral
443
[type of prezygotic isolating mechanism] occurs when physical differences prevent copulation
mechanical
444
[reproductive isolation] types of postzygotic isolating mechanisms
hybrid inviability, hybrid infertility, hybrid breakdown
445
[type of postzygotic isolating mechanism] occurs when hybrids are produced but fail to develop to reproductive maturity
hybrid inviability
446
[type of prezygotic isolating mechanism] occurs when hybrids fail to produce functional gametes
hybrid infertility
447
[type of prezygotic isolating mechanism] occurs when F1 hybrids are fertile, but F2 generations fail to develop properly
hybrid breakdown
448
[animal body types] produces own heat via metabolic processes
endotherms
449
[animal body types] gains heat through the environment
ectotherms
450
[animal body types] constant body temperature, maintains body temperature within narrow range
homeotherms
451
[animal body types] body temperature adjusts based on the environment, tolerates a wide variation in internal body temperature because of environmental variation
poikilotherms
