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Biology Flashcards

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1
Q

The Four Tenets of Cell Theory

A
  1. All living things are composed of cells
  2. The cell is the basic functional unit of life
  3. Cells only arise from pre-existing cells
  4. Cells carry genetic info in the form of DNA
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2
Q

Cristae

A

Folds of the inner mitochondrial membrane
Contains enzymes and molecules essential for ETC

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3
Q

Binary Fission

A

Replication of prokaryotic cells to form two identical daughter cells
Simpler than mitosis
Method of mitochondrial replication

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4
Q

Peroxisome

A

Aids in beta-oxidation of very-long-chain fatty acids
Also helps synthesize phospholipids and contains some enzymes for the pentose phosphate pathway

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5
Q

Microtubules

A

Largest diameter of cytoskeleton filaments. Hollow polymers of tubulin. Motor proteins are kinesin and dynein. Make up flagella and cilia. Organized at centrioles (MTOC)–> attach to sister chromatids during mitosis at their kinetochores and pull them apart.

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6
Q

Microfilaments

A

Thinnest of the filaments. Polymers of actin. Motor protein in myosin. Roles in muscle contraction and cytokinesis.

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7
Q

Intermediate Filaments

A

Diverse group of filaments, ranging in diameter. Include keratin, desmin, lamins, and vimentin. Aid in cell to cell adhesions and help maintain the cytoskeleton. Great tensile strength.

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8
Q

Parenchyma

A

Functional part of an organ. Composed of epithelial cells.

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9
Q

Stroma

A

Structural tissue of an organ. Composed of connective tissue.

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10
Q

Connective tissue

A

Cells produce proteins that maintain ECM. Provide structural framework so that epithelial and other cells can carry out organ/structures’ functions. Ex: bone, cartilage, tendons, ligaments, blood, adipose

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11
Q

Archaea

A
  • Usually exist under extreme conditions
  • Use alternate energy sources (photosynthetic, chemosynthetic, inorganic compounds from the environment)
    • Similar to bacteria because they are single-celled organisms and lack membrane-bound organelles. Also have a circular chromosome
  • Similar to eukaryotes because they both have RNA polymerases
  • Resistant to many antibiotics
  • Reproduce by binary fission/budding
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12
Q

Classification of bacteria by shape

A

Cocci: spherical
Bacilli: rod-shaped
Spirilli: spiral-shaped

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13
Q

Obligate anaerobes

A

Organisms that cannot survive in the presence of oxygen

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14
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes

A

Anaerobes that are unable to use oxygen in metabolism, but are not harmed by its presence

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15
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A

Organisms that can toggle back and forth between anaerobic and aerobic metabolism depending on availability of O2

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16
Q

Gram-Positive vs Gram-Negative

A

Gram-Positive: stain purple, thick cell wall of peptidoglycan, contains lipoteichoic acid
Gram-Negative: stains pink-red, thinner cell wall of peptidoglycan encased by an outer cell membrane, contains phospholipids and lipoproteins (which trigger a relatively dramatic immune response by the host)

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17
Q

Differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A
  • Cell wall
  • Membrane-bound organelles / presence of nucleus
  • Ribosomal subunit size (30S and 50S in prokaryotes, 40S and 60S in eukaryotes)
  • Location of electron transport chain (cell membrane in prok, inner mitochondrial mem in euk)
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18
Q

Genetic Recombination

A

Transfer of genetic material between prokaryotes. Increases genetic variation. Methods: transformation, conjugation, transduction, transposons

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19
Q

Transformation

A

Uptake of foreign genetic information from environment

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20
Q

Conjugation

A

“Mating” of bacteria, Requires contact of two cells. Conjugation bridge forms between donor and acceptor cells. Male (+) donor must have genes for sex factors (usually a plasmid but not always - Hfr).

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21
Q

Transduction

A

Transfer of genetic material by viral vector (bacteriophage)

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22
Q

Transposons

A

Genetic elements that can insert or remove themselves from genomes

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23
Q

Hfr cell

A

Donor cell in which sex factor genes have been integrated into genome. Stands for “high frequency” in terms of conjugation. Engages in conjugation often (what a slutty little Hfr cell)

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24
Q

Bacterial colony growth phases

A

Lag –> Exponential –> Stationary –> Death

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25
Q

Viral structure

A
  • Can be single- or double-stranded RNA or DNA
  • Covered by a protein coat (capsid)
  • May be enveloped by lipid-containing shell (makes these viruses more easily attacked)
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26
Q

Positive-sense RNA virus

A

Virus enters host cell and acts as mRNA, so it can be immediately translated by host cell. Contains genes for its own viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

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27
Q

Negative-sense RNA virus

A

Acts as a template for mRNA that will encode for the “desired” viral proteins. Must contain gene for RNA replicase to ensure that complementary strand is synthesized

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28
Q

Retroviruses

A

Single-stranded RNA with reverse transcriptase gene. In host cell, complementary DNA is synthesized with the reverse transcriptase. Viral DNA is then incorporated into host cells genome –> gets replicated every cycle of mitosis, host has it forever. Ex: HSV

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29
Q

Lytic cycle

A

Virus maximizes machinery of the host cell to reproduce as much as possible until the cell bursts and virions are released. Relatively non-advantageous to the virus because then it can no longer use the cell to replicate and spread

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30
Q

Lysogenic cycle

A

Virus integrates into host cell’s genome and gets replicated every time the cell divides. These viruses are known as proviruses. Infection with one provirus decreases susceptibility of the cell to superinfection (infection with multiple proviruses).

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31
Q

Prions

A

Proteins that cause misfolding of cells’ proteins. Convert alpha-helices to beta-sheets –> decreases solubility –> causes aggregation that disrupts cell processes

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32
Q

Viroids

A

Short, circular, single-stranded RNA that silences genes

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33
Q

Ampulla

A

Widest part of the Fallopian Tube. Location of fertilization

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34
Q

Cortical reaction after penetration by sperm

A

Release of Ca2+ ions, triggered by the penetration of the cell membrane of the ovum by the sperm. Depolarizes the membrane of the ovum, which prevent fertilization of the ovum by more than one sperm and increases the metabolic rate

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35
Q

Zygote

A

Fertilized ovum. Officially occurs after depolarization of the ovum membrane. Surrounded by the fertilization membrane

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36
Q

Monochorionic/monoamnionic twins

A

Monozygotic twins that share the same chorion and amnion

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37
Q

Monochorionic/diamniotic

A

Identical twins that each have their own amnion but share the same chorion

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38
Q

Dichorionic/diamniotic twins

A

Monozygotic twins that have different amnions and chorions

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39
Q

Cleavage (embrygenesis)

A

Rapid mitiotic cell division that occurs as the zygote moves to the uterus. Increases nucleus:cytoplasm and surface area:volume ratios

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40
Q

Indeterminate cleavage

A

Results in cells that can still develop into complete organisms. Monozygotic twin orginate from indeterminately cleaved cells

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41
Q

Determinate cleavage

A

Results in cells that are already committed to differentiation into a certain type of cell

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42
Q

Morula

A

Small solid ball of cells. Immediately after embryo stage. Undergoes blastulation

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43
Q

Blastulation

A

Morula becomes a hollow ball of cells known as a blastula.

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44
Q

Blastocyst

A

Mammalian blastula. Hollow mass of trophoplast cells that surround the blastocoel and the inner cell mass

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45
Q

Trophoblast cells

A

Cells on the outside of the blastula that later give rise to the chorion and placenta

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46
Q

Inner cell mass

A

Cells of the blastula that protrude into the blastocoel and later give rise to the organism

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47
Q

Chorion

A

Extraembryonic membrane that develops into the placenta. Contains chorionic villi that penetrate the endometrium

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48
Q

Umbilical cord and its blood vessels

A

Connects embryo to placenta. Has two arteries and one vein. The vein brings oxygen and nutrient-rich blood from the placenta to embryo. Arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste back to the placenta

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49
Q

Yolk sac

A

Site of early blood cell development. Supports the embryo until the placenta is developed

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50
Q

Allantois

A

Involved in early fluid exchange between the embryo and yolk sac. Surrounded by the amnion and chorion

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51
Q

Amnion

A

Tough membrane filled with amniotic fluid. Serves as a shock absorber to protect the embryo

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52
Q

Gastrulation

A

Generation of three distinct cell layers

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53
Q

Archenteron

A

The membrane invagination into the blastocoel during gastrulation. Later develops into the gut

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54
Q

Blastophore

A

Opening of the archenteron. In deuterostomes like humans, it develops into the anus

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55
Q

Ectoderm

A

Outer-most germ layer. Includes skin, hair, nails, face, lens of the eye, lower anal canal. Also includes the nervous system, adrenal medulla, and inner ear

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56
Q

Mesoderm

A

Middle germ layer of cells. Includes bones, muscles, circulatory system, gonads. Specifically includes connective tissue of the digestive and respiratory systems and the adrenal cortex

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57
Q

Endoderm

A

Inner-most germ layer. The linings of the digestive and respiratory tracts and their accessory organs

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58
Q

Germ layer of the adrenal medulla

A

Ectoderm

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59
Q

Germ layer of the adrenal cortex

A

Mesoderm

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60
Q

The process of fetal nerve development

A

Neurulation. Notochord (mesodermal cell) forms, forming the long axis of the organism. Then induces overlying ectodermal cells to form neural folds surrounding neural grooves. The folds grow and fuse into the neural tube, which gives rise to the CNS. Each fold has a neural crest cell at the tip, which migrate outward to form the PNS. Finally, ectodermal cells migrate over the neural tube to cover the NS.

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61
Q

Neural crest cells

A

Located at the tips of the neural folds. Migrate outward to form the PNS

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62
Q

Neural tube

A

Gives rise to the CNS. Made by fusion of neural folds. Made of ectodermal cells

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63
Q

Teratogens

A

Substances that interfere with embryonic development. Ex: alcohol, drugs, viruses, bacteria, and environmental toxins

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64
Q

Spina Bifida

A

Birth defect. Exposure of some portion or all of the spinal cord to the outside world. Due to maternal deficiency in folic acid. Wide range of severity of effects

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65
Q

Induction

A

Ability of one group of cells to influence the differentiation of nearby cells in embryonic development

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66
Q

Stages of cell specialization

A
  1. Specification: reversilby designated as a certain cell type
  2. Determination: irreversibly committed to a specific lineage, may be due to morphogens
  3. Differentiation: the cell actually changing structure, function, and biochemistry to be able to achieve a certain function
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67
Q

The first instance of differentiation in embryonic development

A

After the 16-cell stage of the morula. Differentiates into trophoblast cells or inner cell mass

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68
Q

Potency of Adult Stem Cells

A

Multipotent

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69
Q

Morphogens and common examples

A

Molecules that cause determination of cells. Ex: TGF-beta, sonic hedgehog (Shh), and epidermal growth factor (EGF)

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70
Q

Inducers

A

Growtth factors that induce differentiation or mitosis

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71
Q

Complete regeneration

A

Re-growth of damaged/removed tissue with identical tissue

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72
Q

Incomplete regeneration

A

Repair of damaged or removed tissue with non-identical tissue

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73
Q

Senescence

A

Biological aging at cellular and organism levels. At cellular levels, cells no longer divide possibly due to shortened telomeres

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74
Q

Telomerase

A

A reverse transcriptase that synthesizes the ends of chromosomes to prevent senescence. Found in germ cells, fetal cells, and tumore cells

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75
Q

Roles of the Placenta

A

Prevents mixing of fetal and maternal blood. Allows diffusion of O2, nutrients, antibodies, and waste (for removal)

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76
Q

Umbilical arteries

A
  1. Carry de-oxygenated blood away from the fetus.
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77
Q

Umbilical vein

A

Only 1. Carries oxygen and nutrient-rich blood from the placenta to the fetus

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78
Q

Fetal Shunts

A

Three of them: foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus, ductus venosus. Developed by the fetus to bypass slow-developing organs upon which it does not rely. These organs are the lungs and liver.

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79
Q

Foramen ovale

A

Shunt in fetuses that connects the right atrium to the left atrium to bypass the right ventricle. Thus the blood is pumped through the aorta instead of the pulmonary system (avoids the lungs)

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80
Q

Ductus arteriosus

A

In fetal development, shunts leftover blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta

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81
Q

Ductus venosus

A

In fetal development. Causes blood to bypass the liver by shunting blood from the placenta (in the umbilical vein) directly into the inferior vena cava.

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82
Q

Key Features of the First Trimester

A

Development of the heart, eyes, gonads, limbs, and liver. Cartilaginous skeleton begins to harden into bone. Brain is fairly developed by the end

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83
Q

Key Features of the Second Trimester

A

A lot fo growth. Face takes on human appearance. Fingers and toes elongate

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84
Q

Key Features of Third Trimester

A

Further rapid growth and brain development (although growth slows right before birth). Selective transport of antibodies from the mother.

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85
Q

Parturition

A

Vaginal childbirth

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86
Q

Hormones involved in childbirth

A

Prostaglandins and oxytocin. Control the rhythmic contractions of uterine muscle (smooth muscle)

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87
Q

Nerves vs Tracts

A

Nerves are in the PNS and can carry more than one type of information, their cell bodies are grouped together in ganglia. Tracts are in the CNS and can only carry one type of information, and their cell bodies are grouped in nuclei.

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88
Q

Location of most ribosomes and ER in neurons

A

Soma

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89
Q

Axon hillock

A

Transition region of the neuron from soma to axon. Function: integrating incoming signals and triggering AP if appropriate

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90
Q

Astrocytes

A

Nourish neurons and for the blood-brain barrier

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91
Q

Blood-brain barrier

A

Controls the transmission of solutes from the bloodstream into nervous tissue

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92
Q

Ependymal cells

A

Line the vetnricles of the brain and produce cerebrospinal fluid

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93
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid

A

Physically supports the brain and acts as a shock-absorber

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94
Q

Microglia

A

Phagocytic cells that ingest and break down waste products and pathogens in the CNS

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95
Q

Oligodendrocytes vs Schwann cells

A

Both produce myelin for neurons. Oligodendrocytes are in the CNS and Schwann are in the PNS

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96
Q

Types of glial cells/neuroglia

A

Astrocytes, ependymal cells, microglia, oligodendrocytes, Schwann cells

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97
Q

Methods of neurotransmitter-removal from the synapse

A

Enzymatic breakdown (ex: ACh), reuptake carriers taking leftover NT back into the presynaptic cell (ex: NE, dopamine, serotonin), or simple diffusion away from the synapse (ex: NO)

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98
Q

Supraspinal circuits

A

Neural pathways that involve the brain/brainstem

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99
Q

White matter

A

Axons encased in myelin sheaths. Found on the inside of the brain and the outside of the spinal cord.

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100
Q

Grey matter

A

Made of neural dendrites and unmyelinated cell bodies. Found on the surface of the brain and in the middle of the spinal cord

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101
Q

Dorsal root ganglia

A

Cell bodies of sensory neurons entering the spinal cord

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102
Q

Vagus nerve

A

Cranial nerve X. Responsible for parasympathetic innervation of the thoracic abdominal cavity

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103
Q

Neurotransmitter of the Parasympathetic NS vs Sympathetic NS

A

Para: both pre- and postganglionic neurons release ACh.
Sympathetic: preganglionic neuron releases ACh, postganglionic neuron releases NE

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104
Q

Temporal summation

A

Integration of multiple neural signals near each other in time

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105
Q

Spatial summation

A

Refers to the addition of multiple signals near each other in time

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106
Q

Haploid

A

Only having one of each chromosome in a pair. Germ cells/gametes are haploid

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107
Q

Restriction Points in Mitosis

A

G1->S: Controlled by p53. Also G2->M: checks for enough organelles and cytoplasm

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108
Q

S phase

A

Results in every chromatid being replicated and then boudn with its identical sister chromatid at the centromere

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109
Q

What proteins control progression of the cell cycle?\

A

Cyclins, CDKs, transcription factors

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110
Q

Prophase

A

Chromatin condenses into chromosomes. Polarization of centrioles/MTOC occurs (found in centrosomes, outside nucleus). Nuclear membrane dissolves, allowing microtubules to connect centrosomes to chromosomes at the kinetochores. Mitotic spindle forms

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111
Q

Metaphase

A

Kinetochores fibres align the chromosomes at the metaphase plate (equitorial plate)

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112
Q

Anaphase

A

Kinetochore fibres shorten, pulling apart sister chromatids

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113
Q

Telophase

A

Reverse of prophase: chromosomes uncoil, spindle disappears, new nuclear membrane forms

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114
Q

Cytokinesis

A

Separation of cytoplasm and organelles through pinching of dinucleate cell by actin ring

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115
Q

Meiosis I

A

Separation of homologous chromosomes. Results in haploid daughter cells.

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116
Q

Reductional division

A

Cell division that results in decrease of ploidy

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117
Q

Meiosis II

A

Separation fo identical sister chromatids. No change in ploid (haploid).

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118
Q

Equatorial Division

A

Ploidy is conserved in this kind of cell division

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119
Q

Prophase I

A

Condensation of chromatin into chromosomes. Nuclear mem dissolves, Meiotic spindle forms. Crossing over occurs

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120
Q

Metaphase I

A

Different from mitosis because here, homolgs align across from each other on either side of the metaphase plate and are held by 1 spindle fibre, not 2

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121
Q

Pathway fo Sperm

A

SEVE(N) UP:
seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, (nothing), urethra, penis

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122
Q

Semen

A

Sperm mixed with seminal fluid: a mix of fluids from seminal vesicles (fructose), prostrate gland (provide alkaline properties), and bulbouretrhal gland (lubricant)

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123
Q

Spermatogenesis

A
  1. Spermatogonia (diploid stem cell) goes through S stage to form…
  2. Primary spermatocyte (diploid) goes through meiosis I to form…
  3. Secondary spermatocyte (haploid) goes through meiosis II to form…
  4. Spermati (haploid) goes through maturation to form…
  5. Spermatozoa
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124
Q

Ovaries

A

Produce estrogen and progesterone. Filled with thousands of follicles (that will eventually give rise to eggs_

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125
Q

Follicles

A

Nourish and protect ova (eggs)

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126
Q

Ovulation

A

1 egg is released from follicle into the peritoneal sac/abdominal cavity. Then gets drawn into the fallopial tube/oviduct that leads into the uterus.

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127
Q

Oogenesis

A
  1. Primary oocyte (2n and arrested in prophase I) undergoes Meiosis I to become…
  2. Secondary oocyte (n) only proceeds through metaphase II if sperm penetrates the sona pellucida and corona radiata, so that it then becomes…
  3. Mature ovum (n) then completes meiosis II to become a zygote
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128
Q

Roles of LH and FSH in Male Sexual Development

A

Both released from anterior pituitary is response to GnRH from hypthalamus

LH: Triggers increased testosterone production in the Cells of Leydig in the testes
FSH: Stimulates Sertoli cells and ups sperm maturation

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129
Q

Roles of LH and FSH in Female Sexual Development

A

Both released from anterior pituitary is response to GnRH from hypthalamus

LH: Triggers release of progesterone from corpus luteum
FSH: Triggers increased production of estrogens

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130
Q

Estrogen

A

In embryos, causes reproductive tract to develop. In adults, causes thickening of the uterin lining (endometrium) each month.

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131
Q

Progesterone

A

Helps maintain and develop endometrium (but not the initial thickening - that is estrogen). By the end of the first trimester, it is released from the placenta rather than the corpus luteum.

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132
Q

Menstrual cycle hormone levels by stage

A

Follicular phase: estrogen and progesterone are low. GnRH, LH, and FSH are on the rise. Rising estrogen levels cause GnRH, LH, FSH to level off

Ovulation: Estrogen levels have gotten so high that is now causes (+) feedback-> SPIKE in FSH, LH, GnRH. Surge of LH triggers release of ovum from ovary to abdominal cavity

Luteal phase: Estrogen remains high. Progesterone steadily climbs (motivated by LH). Neg feedback causes decline of GnRH, LH, and FSH

Mestruation (no implantation): decrease in LH then progesterone, and eventually a rise in GnRH for next cycle

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133
Q

Hormones in pregnancy

A

Blastocyst secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) - very similar to LH.

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134
Q

Human chorionic gonatotropin (hCG)

A

Responsible for maintining release of progesteron from the corpus luteum during first trimester until the placenta is developed enough. Released from blastocyst. Only possible it zygote implants in endometrium. Very similar to LH.

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135
Q

Menopause

A

Ovaries become less sensitive to FSH and LH

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136
Q

Compare durations of effects of peptide hormones vs. steroid hormones

A

Peptide hormones’ effects usually have rapid onset but are short lived, whereas steroid hormones are slower to take effect but sustain for longer period of time

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137
Q

Direct hormones

A

Have major effect on non-endocrine tissues

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138
Q

Tropic hormones

A

Have major effect on other endocrine tissues

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139
Q

Albumin

A

A nonspecific steroid hormone carrier protein

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140
Q

Are steroid hormones active when bound to their carrier proteins?

A

No

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141
Q

What are the catecholamine hormones

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

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142
Q

Thyroxine and triiodothyronine

A

Thyroid hormones that regulate metabolic rate. They are amino acid derivatives. Effects are slow in onset but are long lasting

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143
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Gland in the brain that serves as the bridge between the nervous and endocrine systems. Secretes tropic hormones that act on the anterior pituitary

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144
Q

GnRH

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone. Released from hypothalamus. Stimulates release of FSH and LH from anterior pituitary

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145
Q

GHRH

A

Growth hormone-releasing hormone. Released from hypothalamus. Stimulates release ofgrowth hormone from the anterior pituitary

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146
Q

TRH

A

Thyroid-releasing hormone. Released from hypothalamus. Stimulates release of TSH from anterior pituitary.

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147
Q

CRF

A

Corticotropin-releasing factor. Released from hypothalamus. Stimulates release of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) from anterior pituitary

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148
Q

PIF

A

Prolactin-inhibiting factor. It is actually dopamine released from the hypothalamus. Inhibits the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary

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149
Q

Hypophyseal Portal System

A

Blood vessels between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary

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150
Q

How does the hypothalamus signal release of hormones from the posterior pituitary? Which hormones?

A

Axons of the neurons of the hypothalamus extend down to the posterior pituitary and signal release of oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH/vasopressin)

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151
Q

Oxytocin

A

Produced by hypothalamus but secreted by posterior pituitary. Stimulates uterine contractions during labor and milk letdown during lactation. Also plays a role in bonding.

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152
Q

Vasopressin

A

AKA antiduretic hormone (ADH). Release is motivated by excessively high osmolarity of the blood. ADH causes increased water resorption by the kidneys to decrease osmolarity of the blood. Produced by hypothalamus but secreted by posterior pituitary

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153
Q

Prolactin

A

Stimulates milk production by acting directly on the mammary glands. Released by the anterior pituitary when dopamine levels decrease. Dopamine has an inhibitory effect on the release of prolactin.

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154
Q

Endorphins

A

Decrease the perception of pain. Released from the anterior pituitary. The action of endorphins is mimicked by morphine

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155
Q

Growth Hormone

A

Released from the anterior pituitary. Promotes the growth of bone and muscle by preventing the uptake of glucose in the tissues that are not growing and stimulating the breakdown of fatty acids to increase the availability of glucose for bones and muscles

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156
Q

Epiphyseal plates

A

The regions of origin of bone growth. They seal shut during puberty

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157
Q

Gigantism

A

Condition characterized by excess growth hormone in children before their epiphyseal plates seal shut

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158
Q

Dwarfism

A

Deficit in growth hormone before a child’s epiphyseal plates shut.

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159
Q

Acromegaly

A

Excess levels of growth hormone in adults (after shutting of epiphyseal plates). Excessive growth of smaller bones mainly in hands, feet, and head

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160
Q

What events and receptors trigger the release of ADH (and from where)?

A

Triggers: low blood volume sensed by the baroreceptors, or high blood osmolarity as sensed by the osmoreceptors

ADH is produced in the hypothalamus but secreted from the posterior pituitary

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161
Q

Mechanism of action of ADH

A

Increases the permeability of the collecting duct so that more water is absorbed from the filtrate in the nephron –> more water is retained in the body

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162
Q

Positive feedback loop of ____ (hormone involved in smooth muscle contraction)

A

Oxytocin; positive feedback loop exists in that the uterine contractions stimulated by oxytocin trigger the release of more oxytocin, which causes stronger and stronger contractions

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163
Q

Function of the thyroid

A

Setting basal metabolic rate, promoting calcium homeostasis

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164
Q

Triiodothyronine and thyroxine

A

Amino acid hormones released by the thyroid that set basal metabolic rate by increasing cellular respiration. Formed by iodination of the tyrosine in the follicular cells of the thyroid.

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165
Q

Calcitonin

A

Release from the thyroid gland is triggered by high levels of Ca2+ in the blood. Increases Ca2+ excretion from the kidneys, decreases Ca2+ absorption in the gut, and increases storage of Ca2+ in the bone

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166
Q

Hypothyroidism

A

Deficiency of thyroid hormones. Characterized by being cold/lowered body temperature, slowed respiratory rate and HR, weight gain, and lethargy.

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167
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A

Excessive amounts of thyroid hormone. Symptoms include increased body temp/being hot all the time, weight loss, increased breathing and heart rates, and heightened activity level

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168
Q

Parathyroid hormone

A

Counteracts calcitonin to increase levels of Ca2+ in the blood. Does so by decreasing Ca2+ excretion in the kidneys, increasing absorption of Ca2+ in the gut (via Vitamin D), and increasing resorption of Ca2+ in the bones (releasing it into the blood)

Regulates Phosphorus homeostasis by increasing resorption of phosphate from bone and decreasing reabsorption in the kidney (increases the phosphate excreted in urine). They cancel each other out so that there are no drastic changes in phosphate levels

Activates vitamin D which is required for absorption of Ca2+ and PO4^2- in the gut.

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169
Q

Corticoids (place of secretion and the three classes)

A

Secreted from the adrenal cortex. Classes: glucocorticoids, mineral corticoids, and cortical sex hormones

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170
Q

Glucocorticoids - the two main ones

A

Cortisone and cortisol. They are corticosteroids released from the adrenal cortex that regulate blood glucose by increasing gluconeogenesis and decrease protein synthesis. Also decrease inflammation and the immunological response. Cortisone is a “stress hormone”

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171
Q

Mineralocorticoids - main example

A

Govern salt and water homeostasis. The main ex. is aldosterone, which increases Na+ reabsorption and decreases reabsorption of K+ and H+ in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct of the nephron.

Results in more K+ and H+, and less Na+ excreted in the urine

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172
Q

Describe the system that governs release of aldosterone

A

Renin-angiotensin-aldosteron system.

Low BP causes the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney to secrete renin. Renin cleaves angiotensinogen (previously inactive) into angiotensin I. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) in the lungs converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which then triggers the cortex to release aldosterone to motivate Na+ and water reabsorption in the nephron –> increases blood volume –> increases blood pressure

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173
Q

Cortical sex hormones

A

Androgens and estrogens. Plays a smaller role in male physiology because the testes secrete so much testosterone and other androgens.

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174
Q

The 3 Functions of Corticosteroids (the 3 S’s)

A

Sugar (glucocorticoids)

Salt (mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone)

Sex (cortical sex hormones)

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175
Q

Catecholamines

A

Class of amino acid-derived molecules, specifically, epinephrine and norepinephrine which trigger the sympathetic NS.

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176
Q

Islets of Langerhans - the types of cells and what they secrete

A

Hormone-producing cells in the pancreas. Three types: alpha (secretes glucagon), beta (secretes insulin), and delta (secretes somatostatin)

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177
Q

Glucagon

A

Increases blood glucose levels during times of fasting by triggering glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, and degradation of protein and fat

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178
Q

Insulin

A

Counteracts glucagon. Induces muscle and liver cells to take up glucose from the blood and store it as glycogen. Also induces fat and protein synthesis

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179
Q

Polyuria and polydipsia in diabetes mellitus

A

Increased urination and thirst (respectively) because the the excessive amount of glucose in the blood overwhelms the kidneys’ filtration system, so glucose winds up in the urine and takes too much water with it because glucose is osmotically active (ie urine concentration increases greatly in DM patients)

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180
Q

Type I Diabetes

A

Autoimmune destruction of beta cells in the pancreas. Low or absent levels of insulin. Treatment involves insulin injections

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181
Q

Type II Diabetes

A

Insulin receptors become desensitized to insulin due to high-carb diets and obesity (as well as genetic factors). Insulin cannot affect cells, so they do not take in glucose, thus keeping blood glucose levels high. Treatment involves lifestyle changes and medications that help the body use the insulin it produces

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182
Q

Somatostatin

A

Inhibitor of both insulin and glucagon secretion. Release is triggered by high blood glucose and high amino acid concentrations. Secreted by both the pancreas and the hypothalamus (where is inhibits the release of growth hormone)

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183
Q

Gonadotropins

A

LH and FSH

In males, trigger release of testosterone from the testes. In females, trigger release of estrogen and progesterone from the ovaries.

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184
Q

Pineal gland

A

Deep in the brain. Secretes melatonin, which likely regulates circadian rhythms. Also receives projections from the retina but is not involved in vision (likely means that pineal gland reacts to darkness and may cause “sleepiness”)

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185
Q

Erythropoietin

A

Hormone produced in the kidneys that stimulates bone marrow to produce more RBCs. Secreted in response to low O2 levels in the blood

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186
Q

Atrial natriuretic peptide

A

ANP. Released from the heart when chamber cells are stretched due to excess blood volume. Acts to increase Na+ excretion (increases urine volume, decrease blood volume and thus, pressure)

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187
Q

Nares

A

AKA nostrils

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188
Q

Vibrissae

A

Nasal hairs

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189
Q

Pharynx vs Larynx

A

Pharynx is located behind the nasal cavity and is allows passage of air and food.

Larynx is designed only for the flow of air. The opening is covered by the epiglottis to keep food out of the respiratory tract. Contains vocal cords

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190
Q

Trachea

A

Cartilaginous structure of respiratory tract through which air passes after the larynx.

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191
Q

Flow of air during inhalation

A

Nares -> Pharynx -> Larynx -> one of the two bronchi -> bronchioles -> alveoli

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192
Q

Surfactant

A

Detergent that covers alveoli, reducing surface tension.

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193
Q

Pleurae

A

The membranous sacs surrounding each lung

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194
Q

Visceral pleura

A

The surface of the pleura that is adjacent to the lungs. Innermost surface of the intrapleural space

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195
Q

Parietal pleura

A

The surface of the pleura that lines the chest cavity

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196
Q

Intrapleural space

A

Space within the membranous sacs (pleurae) surrounding each lung. Filled with a thin layer of fluid

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197
Q

Muscles responsible for inhalation

A

Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

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198
Q

What is the driving force of air rushing into the lungs during inhalation?

A

The low pressure in the intrapleural space compared to the lungs: Upon inhalation, the diaphragm flattens and the volume of the chest cavity increases, thus decreasing pressure in the intrapleural space, allowing the lungs to expand, then decreasing the pressure inside the lungs below atmospheric pressure. Air rushes into the lungs from the atmosphere

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199
Q

Mechanism of Exhalation

A

Does not have to be an active process. Relaxation of the diaphragm and external intercostals causes decrease in chest cavity volume -> increase in intrapleural pressure -> this along with the recoil of the lungs causes the lung pressure to exceed atmospheric –> pushes air out of lungs

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200
Q

How does one speed up exhalation?

A

Contraction of the internal intercostal muscles and abdominal muscle. They oppose the external intercostals and pull the rib cage down.

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201
Q

Vital Capacity

A

The difference between maximum and minimum volume of air in the lungs

VC = total lung capacity (TLC) - residual volume (RV)

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202
Q

Tidal volume

A

Volume of air inhaled or exhaled in a normal breath

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203
Q

Expiratory reserve volume

A

Volume of additional air that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal inhalation

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204
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume

A

Volume of additional air that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal inhalation

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205
Q

Ventilation center

A

Control center of breathing. Neurons in the medulla oblongata. Respond to the response of chemoreceptors that are sensitive primarily to high partial pressures of CO2.

When CO2 concentration is too high (hypercarbia), ventilation center will increase respiratory rate in order to exhale more CO2

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206
Q

Driving force behind gas exchange

A

Difference in partial pressures of O2 and CO2 between the deoxygenated blood that arrives at the alveoli and inside the alveoli themselves

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207
Q

Natural respiratory response to increased altitude where less oxygen is available

A

Body increases respiratory rate to try and get more oxygen into the body –> decreases CO2 concentration –> Hb is triggered holds on more tightly to oxygen rather than release it to the blood. To make up for this, the body makes more RBCs in order to increase O2 delivery to the cells

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208
Q

Thermoregulation via the repiratory system

A

Vasodilation (dissipates heat) and vasoconstriction (conserves heat) in the capillaries of the nasal cavity and trachea. Resp system can also transfer heat to the environment through the evaporation of water in mucous secretions (ex: dogs panting)

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209
Q

Lysozyme

A

Enzyme present in the nasal cavity that attacks the peptidoglycan cell walls of gram-positive bacteria

210
Q

Mucociliary escalator

A

Refers to the mechanism of mucous in the airway trapping foreign matter, then cilia propelling the mucus up to the oral cavity to be swallowed or expelled.

211
Q

Immune cells of the lungs

A

Macrophages: engulf and digest pathogens, signal the rest of the immune system that there is an invader.

Mast cells: have pre-made antibodies on their surfaces, so when the right substance bonds to the antibody, an immune response is induced. These antibodies are responsive to pollens and molds

212
Q

Respiratory response to acidemia

A

High H+ is sensed by the chemoreceptors in the blood-brain barrier –> increases respiratory rate to decrease [CO2], which promotes the bicarbonate buffer system in the blood to shift to in the direction that consumes H+.

213
Q

Spirometer

A

Can measure 3 out of 4 lung volumes: inspiratory reserve, exhilatory reserve, and tidal volumes, but cannot measure residual volume

214
Q

Atrioventricular valves

A

Separate the ventricles from the atria. The tricuspid valve (right) and the mitral/bicuspid valve (left)

215
Q

Semilunar valves

A

Separate the ventricles from the vasculature. Pulmonary valve (right) and aortic valve (left)

216
Q

Mitral valve

A

AKA bicuspid valve. Separates the left atrium and ventricle (blood flows from atrium to ventricle)

217
Q

Tricuspid valve

A

Separates the right atrium and right ventricle

218
Q

Pulmonary valve

A

Separates the right ventricle from the pulmonary circuit

219
Q

Systole

A

Period of ventricular contraction. AV Nodes close and blood is pumped out of the ventricles

220
Q

Atrial kick

A

Additional amount of blood that is forcefully pushed into the ventricles by atrial systole. About 5-30% of cardiac output

221
Q

SA Node

A

Origin of electrical impulses in the heart. Generates 60-100 signals per minute without requiring any stimulation. Located in the wall of the right atrium

222
Q

AV Node

A

Stimulated by the SA Node. Sits at the junction of the atria and ventricles. Signal is slightly delayed here in order to allow the ventricles to fill completely before they contract

223
Q

Bundle of His

A

Receives stimulation from the AV Node. Located in the interventricular septum (wall). Passes signals on to the Purkinje Fibers

224
Q

Perkinje Fibers

A

Distribute electrical signal evenly throughout ventricular muscle.

225
Q

Intercalated discs in cardiac muscle (definition and function)

A

Connect the cardiac muscle cells, many through gap junctions so that their cytoplasms are connected. This allows coordinated ventricular contraction

226
Q

Myogenic activity

A

Possessed by the heart in that it does not need any neurological input to contract.

227
Q

Vagus Nerve

A

Parasympathetic innervation of the heart

228
Q

Diastole

A

Semilunar valves are closed as the ventricles fill with blood from the atria. Pressure decreases during relaxation

229
Q

Cardiac output and stroke volume

A

CO: Total blood volume pumped by a ventricle in a minute.

SV: Volume of blood pumped out of the heart by a single beta

CO = HR * SV

CO is usually about 5 liters per minute

230
Q

Endothelial cells (and their role in vasculature)

A

These cells line all blood vessels. They are able to secrete chemicals that control vasodilation/vasoconstriction, allow WBCs to pass through during inflammation, and release chemicals that aid in blood clotting in the event of a wound.

231
Q

Compare: elasticity, resistance to flow, and mechanism of blood movement of arteries and veins

A

Arteries: highly elastic, thick smooth muscle walls, high resistance to flow, elastic recoil of the walls keeps arterial pressure high

Veins: inelastic, although they can stretch to accommodate HIGH volumes of blood - so low resistance. Blood movement is governed by skeletal muscle movements and valves to prevent backflow.

232
Q

Varicose veins

A

Veins that become enlarged where blood has pooled due to failed valves. Women are at higher risk of developing them during pregnancy because of increased total blood volume and the fetus pushing on their inferior vena cava

233
Q

Portal systems (and what are the three in the body?)

A

Connections of two distinct capillary beds in series (may be separated by vessels in between)

Three in the human body: hepatic, hypophyseal, and renal portal systems

234
Q

Hepatic portal system

A

Blood leaving the capillary bed of the gut will go through the hepatic portal vein and then the hepatic capillary bed before returning the heart

235
Q

Hypophyseal portal system

A

Allows for paracrine signaling of the hypothalamus directed onto the anterior pituitary. Capillary bed on the hypothalamus connects directly to the capillary system on the anterior pituitary

236
Q

Renal portal system

A

Blood leaving the capillaries of the glomerulus enters an efferent arteriole before surrounding the nephron in the vasa recta (a second capillary bed)

237
Q

Hematopoietic cells

A

Stem cells in bone marrow that give rise to all blood cells (RBCs, WBCs, and platelets)

238
Q

Functions of erythrocyte structure/makeup/shape

A

Biconcave because it increases surface area, allows passage through tiny capillaries, lack of membrane-bound organelles allows maximum space for Hb molecules, and lack of mitochondria specifically means that the cells will not use up the O2 they are carrying.

239
Q

Spleen

A

Recycles RBCs because they cannot divide (due to no nucleus)

240
Q

Hematocrit

A

Refers to the percentage of blood that is red blood cells. Normal ranges are females 36-46% and males 41-53%

241
Q

Hemoglobin

A

Molecules within RBCs that bind to O2 for transport.

Normal ranges in females and males are 12-16 g-dL and 13.5-17.7 g/dL, respectively

242
Q

Granulocytes (def. and the types)

A

Leukocytes that contain cytoplasmic granules that contain compounds that are toxic to foreign invaders. Involved in allergic reactions, allergies, pus formation, and destruction of bacteria.

Types: neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

243
Q

Agranulocytes

A

WBCs that do not contain granules

Monocytes/macrophages and lymphocytes (T and B cells)

244
Q

Different sites of maturation of lymphocytes

A

B-cells matured in the bone marrow.

T-cells matured in the thymus

245
Q

Macrophages (def and examples)

A

Phagocytose foreign matter, like bacteria. Each organ’s macrophages have their own name. Ex:

Microglia in brain
Langerhans cells in skin
Osteoclasts in bone

246
Q

Erythropoietin

A

Hematopoietic chemical released by the kidney that stimulates RBC development

247
Q

____ are the surface proteins of RBCs, and include A, B, and O

A

antigens

248
Q

Hemolysis

A

Rupture or destruction of blood cells. Occurs if a person receives the wrong blood type (i.e. patient with type A blood receives anti-A antibodies from either B blood or AB blood, which trigger an immunes response because the proteins appear to be foreign)

249
Q

People with type B blood naturally produce anti- __ antibodies

A

A

250
Q

Rh factor

A

Signifies the presence (Rh+) or absence (Rh-) of the D allele. Mainly important in maternal/fetal medicine.

251
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis

A

Condition in which the mother is Rh- and the fetus is Rh+. Anti-Rh antibodies produced by the mother can diffuse into fetal blood through the placenta and cause hemolysis (fatal to the fetus). Today it is preventable by medicine. It is only a problem after the first child because the mother will not start making the fatal antibodies until after the gestation period (it is an issue for any future pregancies)

252
Q

Sphygmomanometer

A

Measures the gauge pressure in the systemic circulation

253
Q

Blood pressure is expressed as the ratio between…

A

Systolic pressure (ventricular contraction) to diastolic pressure (ventricular relaxation)

254
Q

In which vascular structure is the largest drop in blood pressure

A

Arterioles

255
Q

Pressure differential equation (blood pressure)

A

delta P = CO * TPR

TPR = total peripheral resistance

256
Q

What cells and what conditions trigger the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system?

A

Low perfusion past the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney

257
Q

Oxygen saturation

A

The percentage of Hb molecules in the blood saturated by oxygen

258
Q

Structure of Hb

A

Each Hb has 4 heme groups, each of which contain a central iron atom that undergoes changes in oxidation state to bind to O2

259
Q

Predominant form of CO2 in the blood

A

bicarbonate ion (HCO3-)

260
Q

Carbonic anhydrase

A

Catalyzes the reaction of CO2 and water to form carbonic acid (a weak acid)

261
Q

Effect of decreased pH on Hb-O2 binding affinity

A

The increased concentration of H+ allows H+ to bind to Hb and lower its affinity for O2 –> shifts Hb curve right (this is the Bohr effect)

262
Q

Bohr effect

A

increased acidity of the blood leaving to a rightward shift in Hb-O2 binding curve (greater unloading of O2 to the tissues, as is what happens and what it needed after during high intensity exercise, which produces CO2 and lactic acid)

263
Q

Fetal Hb has a ___ affinity for oxygen. Why

A

Lower - because fetuses lack 2,3-BPG (2,3-biphosphoglycerate) which decreases the binding affinity of Hb for O2.

264
Q

How do carbohydrates, amino acids, and fats enter the bloodstream from the GI tract?

A

Carbs and am. acids: diffuse into capillaries at small intestine and then enter circulation via hepatic portal system

Fats: get absorbed into lacteals in small intestine, bypassing the hepatic portal system via the thoracic duct, where they are packaged into lipoproteins

265
Q

Starling forces (describe the opposing pressures)

A

Hydrostatic: This is the pressure of the fluid pushing out on the blood vessel walls. Generated by contraction of the heart and the elasticity of the arteries. Greater than osmotic pressure on the arteriole side of capillary beds, but then drops below it on the venule side as elasticity decreases

Osmotic/oncotic: The “sucking” pressure of the solutes in the blood, motivating water to flow into the bloodstream to dilute blood concentration (mainly of plasma proteins). Remains constant

266
Q

Lymph (and how is it returned to the bloodstream?)

A

Fluid of the lymphatic system, which takes up interstitial fluid and recycles it. Lymph is returned to the bloodstream through the thoracic duct

267
Q

Components of blood clots

A

Coagulation factor proteins and platelets

268
Q

Tissue factor

A

A protein that is exposed when blood vessels are damaged. Sensed by coagulation factors, signaling their release from the liver, in the same way that platelets recognize collagen upon vessel damage.

269
Q

Thrombin

A

Major player in coagulation. It is activated by thromboplastin from prothrombin. It is able to convert fibrinogen to fibrin

270
Q

Fibrin

A

Clot-formation protein. Activated by thrombin. Causes aggregation of fibers into a net that catches RBCs and other platelets to form a stable clot over the damage.

271
Q

Thrombus formation

A

blood clotting

272
Q

alpha_IIb-beta_3 integrin molecules

A

Adhere to fibrinogen to help form bridges between platelets in scabs.

273
Q

Plasmin

A

Protein that achieves breakdown of blood clots. Formed through activation of plasminogen

274
Q

Which blood type can be given to a patient without knowing their blood type?

A

O-

275
Q

Lymph nodes

A

Location for communication between immune cells so that they can mound an attack. B-cells can be activated here

276
Q

Gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)

A

Immune tissue in close proximity to the GI tract. Specifically includes tonsils, adenoids, Peyer’s patches and lymphoid aggregates int eh appendix

277
Q

T/F: eosinophils are granulocytes

A

TRUE: the only granulocytes are eosinophils, basophils, and neutrophils; all the rest of the immune system cells are agranulocytes

278
Q

Defensins

A

Antibacterial enzymes found on the skin

279
Q

Lysozyme

A

A nonspecific bacterial enzyme that is secreted in saliva and tears

280
Q

n

A
281
Q

Cell-mediated immunity

A

Subsection of the specific immune response driven by T-cells

282
Q

Humoral immunity

A

Subsection of the specific immune response driven by B-cells. Called humoral because the antibodies dissolve in the blood rather than inside of the specified cell

283
Q

Complement system

A

Nonspecific response component involving a set of proteins that can punch holes in the cells walls of bacteria

284
Q

Interferons

A

Proteins that prevent viral replication and dispersion. Cause neighboring cells to produce less viral and cellular proteins, as well as decrease the permeability of the cells, making it harder for a virus to infect them. They also upregulate MHC class I and II which increases antigen presentation and detection of the infected cells by the immune system. Interferons are responsible for many of the flu-like symptoms present due to viral infection

285
Q

Macrophages

A

Always present in tissue in inactive form –> gets activated upon infection –> phagocytoses invader via endocytosis –> digests it with enzymes–> MHC binds to antigens and presents them on the surface of the cell

286
Q

MHC I vs MHC II

A

I: present in ALL nucleated cells in the body. MHC-I pathway is known as the endogenous pathway because any protein produced or processed (like an antigen digested from a pathogen) within a cell can be presented by MHC I. Triggers killer T cells

II: only present in antigen-presenting cells like macrophages, dendritic cells, and some B- and skin cells. Takes in antigens from the environment and then presents them on the surface to trigger BOTH adaptive and innate responses. “Exogenous pathway” because the antigen was in antigen-form prior to being taken up by the cell.

287
Q

Pattern recognition receptors / toll-like receptors

A

TLRs and the most well-known PRRs on the surfaces of dendritic cells and macrophages. PRRs are able to recognize the type of invader in order to trigger production of the correct cytokines to recruit the right types of immune cells

288
Q

NK cells

A

Natural killer cells that are able to detect the down-regulation of MHC (characteristic in infected and cancer cells) and trigger apoptosis to minimize overall damage of other cells

289
Q

Neutrophils

A

Most popular leukocyte in the blood and are very short-lived. Phagocytic, and they target bacteria, following them via chemotaxis, up the concentration gradient of the bacteria until they find the source. Neutrophils can also find bacteria that have been opsonized by B-cells (marked with an antibody by a B-cell). Dead neutrophil accumulation forms pus

290
Q

Pus

A

Accumulation of dead neutrophils

291
Q

Opsonization

A

Marking of a cell with an antibody

292
Q

Eosinophils

A

Mainly involved in allergic response. Release large amounts of histamine, which enhances immune responses by vasodilating and increasing leakiness of the blood vessels –> inflammation

293
Q

Basophils

A

Less common player in allergic responses. Low population in the blood when the immune system is at rest, Have large, purple granules. Closely related to mast cells. Relase histamines

294
Q

Mast cells

A

Granulocytes with small granules. Exist in the lungs, mucosa, and epithelium. Release histamines in response to allergens –> inflammatory response

295
Q

Antibody structure

A

Y-shaped with two light and two heavy chains held together by disulfide and non-covalent interactions

296
Q

Naive B-cells undergo ____ and the ____ region in order to produce the correct antibodies against the pathogen at hand

A

Hypermutation; antigen-binding region

297
Q

Isotype switching

A

Process of cells switching which type of antibody (5 types) they produce based on the type of cytokine that is stimulating them

298
Q

Describe the two daughter cells that are produced from proliferation of a naive B-cell

A

Plasma cell: produces large amounts of antibodies. eventually die

Memory B-cell: Stays in the lymph node, waiting for re-exposure to the same antigen. can last a lifetime

299
Q

Positive selection of T-cells

A

Allowing the maturation of only the T-cells that can respond to the presentation of the antigen on MHC

300
Q

Negative selection of T-cells

A

Causing apoptosis in cells that are activated by proteins produced by the organism itself (self-activating)

301
Q

Thymosin

A

Peptide hormone that facilitates T-cell maturation. Secreted by thymic cells

302
Q

Helper T-cells

A

Present CD4+ cell markers. Recruit other immune cells. These cells are lost in HIV and prevents the immune system from mounting an appropriate response to infection. Respond to antigens presented on MHC-II molecules (exogenous antigen-presenting –> so these cells are most effective again bacterial, fungal, and parasitic infections)

303
Q

Cytotoxic T-cells

A

Present CD8+ markers on surface. Promote apoptosis of infected cells by directly injecting proapoptotic chemicals into the cell. Repond to antigens on MHC-I molecules, which present endogenous antigens, so T_c cells are most effective against viral infections

304
Q

Suppressor/regulatory T-cells

A

Exrpress CD4+ by also Foxp3. Function by toning down the immune response once an infection has been adequately attacked. These cells turn off automatically to prevent autoimmune disease

305
Q

Degranulation of Mast Cells leads to ____

A

The release of histamines

306
Q

Agglutination

A

Antibodies sometimes cause this formation of large insoluble complexes that can be phagocytized.

307
Q

Roles of dendritic cells in both innate and adaptive immunity

A

Innate: antigen-presenting cells in the skin

Triggers the adaptive response by signaling the proper T and B cells. The T cells, specifically are helper T cells and release interferon-gamma, which activates macrophages and increases their ability to kill bacteria

308
Q

Interferons

A

Cytokines released by virally infected cells that decrease the likelihood of neighboring cells becoming affected. Neighboring cells’ membranes decrease in permeability, experience reduced rates of translation and transcription, the body as a whole experiences symptoms due to the interferons, like fever, malaise, aches, etc.)

309
Q

Mechanism of CD8+ T-cells

A

They recognize the MHC-I/antigen complex presented on the surface of infected cells and then directly inject proapoptotic chemicals into the cell, killing it before it can spread its virus to neighboring cells in the form of virions.

310
Q

What is the body’s immune response to viruses that downregulate MHC-I?

A

NK cells (as part of the innate response) realize this unusual downregulation and consequently trigger apoptosis

311
Q

Self-antigens

A

Proteins present on the surface of cells in the body that signal the cell is healthy and normal.

312
Q

Autoimmunity

A

Disorder of the immune system that occurs when immune cells attack self-antigens.

313
Q

“Education” of immature T and B cells

A

Referring to the elimination of immature T and B cells in the thymus and bone marrow (respectively) that attack self-antigens. This process prevent autoimmune disorders, although it does sometimes fail.

314
Q

Active immunity

A

The type of immunity achieved by vaccination. Presentation of a weakened form of the pathogen causes the body to produce antibodies and memory cells against it so that the immune cells can mount a response more quickly in the event of natural exposure to the pathogen.

315
Q

Passive immunity

A

Achieved by transferring antibodies to a different individual

316
Q

Lymph nodes

A

Small bean-shaped structures along the lymph vessels that contain a lymph vessel, and artery, and a vein. The provide a space for immune cells to be exposed to possible pathogens

317
Q

Thoracic duct (what is it and where does it lead)

A

Large lymph duct that most lymph vessels lead to. Located in the posterior chest. Then delivers lymph to the subclavian vein near the heart

318
Q

Functions of the Lymphatic system

A

Drainage of the excess fluid left in tissues (due to decreased hydrostatic pressure and the venous ends of capillary beds). Also transports fats in the form of chylomicrons from the GI tract into the bloodstream via lacteals.

319
Q

Lacteals

A

Small lymphatic vessels located at the center of each villus in the small intestine

320
Q

Chyle

A

Milky white lymphatic fluid that is filled with chylomicrons

321
Q

Germinal centers

A

Collections of lymph nodes where B-cells can interact and mature

322
Q

Clonal selection

A

Activation of only the T-cells that bear the correct receptors for a specific antigen

323
Q

Intracellular vs Extracellular Disgestion

A

Intracellular: involves the oxidation of glucose and fatty acids for energy

Extraceullular: extraction of said nutrients from the food in the GI tract

324
Q

Alimentary canal

A

Lumen of the digestive tract that runs from the mouth to the anus. It is technically “outside” the body because it directly ineteracts with the outside world

325
Q

Order of structures in the GI tract, and the accessories

A

Order: mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus, rectum

Accessories: salivary glands, pancreas, liver

326
Q

Enteric nervous system

A

Neurons that govern the function of the digestive tract, stimulating peristalsis to move food through. Functions independently from the brain and spinal cord

327
Q

Mastication

A

Chewing. Increases the surface area to volume ratio so that enzymes can effectively target as much food as possible

328
Q

Innervation of the salivary glands

A

by the parasympatheic NS

329
Q

Enzymes of saliva

A

Salivary amylase: hydrolyzes starches into smaller sugars (AKA ptyalin)

Lipase: hydrolyzes lipids

330
Q

Structure of the esophagus

A

The top third is skeletal muscle and innervated by the somatic NS (voluntary), the bottom third is smooth muscle and innervated by the enteric system (involuntary), and the middle third is a mix of both.

Swallowing the bolus into the esophagus happens through the upper esophageal sphincter. The bolus exits into the stomach through the lower esophageal (cardiac) sphincter

331
Q

Four anatomical regions, curves, and lining of the stomach

A

Fundus and body (contain gastric glands), and antrum and pylorus (contain pyloric glands).

Lesser curvature refers to the interior curve. Greater curvature refers to the external curve.

Lining: Rugae

332
Q

Gastric glands (what are they and name the 3 cell types)

A

Def: Innervated by the vagus nerve (parasymp NS), respond to signals of sight, taste, and smell of food.

Cells types: mucous, chief, and parietal

333
Q

Chief cells in the stomach

A

Secrete pepsinogen (the zymogen form of pepsin) for protein breakdown

334
Q

Parietal cells

A

In the stomach. Release HCl to cleave pepsinogen into pepsin. Also secrete intrinsic factor.

335
Q

Pepsin

A

Cleaved from pepsinogen by H+ ions secreted by parietal cells. Mechanism involves cleavage of peptide bonds near aromatic amino acids.

336
Q

Intrinsic factor

A

A glycoprotein that helps proper absorption of vitamin B12

337
Q

Pyloric glands (in stomach)

A

Contain G-cells that secrete gastrin, which induces parietal cells in the stomach to secrete more HCl and signals stomach contractions

338
Q

Chyme

A

The semifluid result of the stomach’s enzymes and contractions on the food that was ingested.

339
Q

The small intestine

A

3 parts: duodenum, jejunum, and ileum

Main function is chemical digestion, with some minor absorption in the jejunem and ileum

340
Q

Duodenum

A

First portion of the small intestine. Food enters it through the pyloric sphincter. Releases enteropeptidase and brush-border enzymes: maltase, isomaltase, lactase, sucrase and peptidases. Also secretes hormones like secretin and cholecystokinin (CCK) into the bloodstream

341
Q

Brush-border enzymes

A

Present on luminal surface of cell surface lining the duodenum. Break down dimers and trimers of biomolecules into absorbable monomers

342
Q

Aminopeptidase

A

Found in the duodenum. Removes the N-terminal amino acid from a peptide

343
Q

Enteropeptidase

A

Activates trypsinogen to trypsin. Also activates procarboxypeptidases A and B

344
Q

Secretin

A

Peptide hormone that causes pancreatic enzymes to be released into the duodenum. Regulates the pH of the GI tract by regulating HCl secretion. An enterogastrone: a hormone that slows motility through digestive tract to increase time of chyme exposed to enzymes

345
Q

CCK

A

Released from the duodenum in response to the entrance of chyme. Function is to stimulate the release of both bile and pancreatic juices

346
Q

Bile salts

A

Amphipathic molecules that aid in mechanical digestions - helps emulsify fats and cholesterol into micelles –> makes them available to pancreatic lipase

347
Q

Endocrine vs Exocrine cells of the Pancreas

A

Endocrine: Islets of Langerhans

Exocrine: Acinar cells (produce pancreatic juices)

348
Q

Pancreatic amylase

A

Breaks down large polysaccharides into smaller ones

349
Q

The pancreatic peptidases

A

Trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, and carboxypeptidases A and B (all get activated into their functional forms by enteropeptidase)

350
Q

Pancreatic lipase

A

Breaks down fats into free fatty acids and glycerol

351
Q

Major and minor duodenal papillae

A

Ducts through which the pancreas’ acinar cells secrete their products into the duodenum

352
Q

Bile ducts

A

Connect the liver to the gallbladder (for storage) and the small intestine (for secretion).

353
Q

Hepatic portal vein

A

Delivers blood to the liver from the abdominal portion of the digestive tract because it is nutrient-rich and can be processed by the liver before draining into the inferior vena cava on its way to the heart.

354
Q

Functions of the liver

A

Detoxification of certain endogenous and exogenous compounds. Activates some drugs. Bile production. Processing of nutrients, and some storage. Synthesis of certain proteins like albumin and clotting factors.

355
Q

Components of bile

A

Bile salts, cholesterol, and pigments

356
Q

Bilirubin

A

The major pigment of bile. Byproduct of the breakdown of hemoglobin. Get attached the a protein in the liver and then secreted into bile for excretion

357
Q

Jaundice

A

Yellowing of the skin that occurs when the liver is unable to excrete bilirubin

358
Q

Proteins produced by the liver (and their functions)

A

Albumin: maintains oncotic pressure in the blood and carries many drugs and hormones

Clotting factors: blood coagulation

359
Q

Cirrhosis of the Liver

A

Scarring of the liver. Results in portal HTN/backup of fluid which can result in vomiting blood from the burst blood vessels. Hinders clotting factor production and the body’s ability to discard ammonia. Can also lead to carcinoma

360
Q

Gallbladder

A

Stores and concentrates bile. Pushes bile out into the biliary tree in response to the release of CCK

361
Q

Mode of transport of simple sugars and amino acids from the lumen of the small intestine

A

Secondary active transport and facilitated diffusion

362
Q

Transport of fatty acids from lumen of small intestine into cells

A

Short-chain fatty acids: diffusion into epithelial cells and then transport to liver through the hepatic portal circulation

Long-chain fatty acids, cholesterol, and triacylglycerides: get packaged into chylomicrons which then enter the lymphatic system via lacteals

363
Q

Mechanism of water intake in the small intestine

A

As solutes are absorbed, water is motivated to move with them out of the lumen to maintain proper osmolarity. Water moves transcellularly ( across cell mem) and paracellularly (squeezing between the cells) to reach the blood

364
Q

Main function of the large intestine and its three major sections

A

Function: water absorption

Sections: cecum, colon, rectum

365
Q

Cecum

A

First part of the large intestine. Accepts fluid from the small instestine through the ileocecal valce. Also the sight of attachment of the appendix

366
Q

Colon

A

Four sections: ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colons. Main function is to absorb water and salts to dehydrate the remaining material to feces.

367
Q

Internal vs external sphincters of the anus

A

Internal is under involuntary autonomic control

External is under somatic control

368
Q

Bacteria in the large intestine produce_____

A

Vitamin K, which is essential for the production of clotting factor and biotin

369
Q

Renal Hilum

A

A deep slit in the center of the medial surface of each kidney. Spans the width of the renal pelvis. Renal artery, vein, and ureter exit through this.

370
Q

Flow of blood in the kindeys

A

Renal artery - Afferent arterioles - Glomeruli - Efferent arterioles - vasa rectra (around the Loop of Henle) - venules - Renal vein

371
Q

Order of structures in the nephron

A

Bowman’s capsule - proximal convoluted tubule - descending then ascending limbs of the loop of Henle - distal convoluted tubule - collecting duct

372
Q

Detrusor muscle

A

Type of muscle that lines the bladder

373
Q

Sphincters of the urethra

A

Internal: smooth muscle, involuntary

External: skeletal muscle, voluntary

374
Q

Describe the innervation of the bladder and what causes excretion

A

The bladder is innervated by the autonomic NS. Parasympathetic neurons are activated by stretch receptors telling the brain that the bladder is full -> causes the bladder to contract, inducing a shape change that also causes the internal sphincter to contract. The person then has the conscious choice whether to relax the external sphincter.

375
Q

Pressure difference between Glomerulus and Bowman’s Space

A

Hydrostatic pressure in the glomeruli is higher than the oncotic pressure that is drawing water out of Bowman’s Space, so there is net filtration

376
Q

Does glucose diffuse out the glomeruli into Bowman’s space?

A

YES - although most of it is reabsorbed into the body later in the urinary tract.

377
Q

Volume of blood filtered by the kidneys per day

A

180 L

378
Q

Secretion in the kidney

A

Movement of solutes from the blood to the filtrate anywhere besides Bowman’s Space. Regulates levels of ions in the blood and helps remove molecules that were too big for filtration through the glomerular pores

379
Q

Proximal convoluted tubule

A

Site of major Na+ reabsorption. Filtrate is isotonic to the interstitium because a lot of other solutes and water move. Secretion of H+, K+, ammonia, and urea into the nephron from the interstitium. Reabsorption of amino acids, glucose, and vitamins occurs here

380
Q

Descending limb of the Loop on Henle

A

Permeable only to water. Dives deep into the renal medulla, the osmolarity of which gets higher and higher it goes inwards (as the loop travels down). More and more water is reabsorbed as the bottom of the loop is approached.

381
Q

Countercurrent multiplier system

A

Flow of filtrate through the loop of Henle is in the opposite direction from the flow of blood through the vasa recta, allowing for maximum reabsorption of water because this way, the filtrate is constantly exposed to hypertonic blood

382
Q

Ascending limb of the Loop of Henle

A

Permeable only to salts. Maximizes reabsorption of salts by taking advantage of the increasing medullary osmolarity. As the concentration of salts in the interstitium decreases and the filtrate is traveling up the loop, more and more salts will flow out of the loop and into the interstitium for return to the bloodstream via the vasa recta

383
Q

Diluting segment

A

The portion of the ascending loop at the transition from the inner to outer medulla. Characterized by larger cells lining the tubule that hava lot of mitochondria –> faciltate active transport of Na+ and Cl- out of the filtrate. The only portion of the nephron that can create urine that is more dilute than the blood

384
Q

Compare volume and tonicity of the filtrate at the beginning and end of the loop of Henle

A

Beginning: the filtrate is isotonic to the blood

End: filtrate is slightly diluted compared to the blood

MAJOR change: volume of the filtrate has significantly decreased, indicating great reabsorption of water

385
Q

Distal convoluted tubule

A

Subject to regulation by aldosterone, which promotes Na+ reabsorption. Water follows Na+ back into the body, too, so this concentrates the filtrate. DCT is also a site of secretion of waste from the body

386
Q

Collecting duct

A

Site of most water reabsorption –> determines the concentration of the urine. Permeability here is controlled by aldosterone and ADH. Increased permeability means that more water is reabsorbed, concentrating the urine (occurs due to high levels of ADH / aldosterone.

387
Q

Where is glucose reabsorbed from the filtrate in the kidney?

A

PCT, along with amino acids, Na+, and vitamins

388
Q

Juxtaglomerular cells

A

Release renin when stimulated by low blood pressure

389
Q

Effect of ACE inhibitors

A

Prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which is supposed to directly promote release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Therefore, aldosterone is not released so blood pressure remains low or is prevented from getting too high

390
Q

Aldosterone

A

A steroid hormone produced in the adrenal CORTEX that alters the abilities of the DCT and collecting duct to reabsorb sodium (which motivates water to flow with it

391
Q

Vasopressin / ADH

A

A peptide hormone synthesized by the hypothalamus and excreted by the posterior pituitary in response to increased blood osmolarity –> acts to change permeability of the collecting duct to take reabsorb more water to dilute the blood back to normal

392
Q

Blood pressure regulation by the kidneys

A

Vasoconstriction by the afferent arteriole will decrease blood pressure in the glomeruli, which stimulates the release of renin, leading to aldosterone-release to help increase reabsorption of Na+ (and effectively, water). Retention of water increases blood pressure.

Vasodilation of the afferent arteriole follows this pathway to decrease blood pressure by NOT stimulating release of renin

393
Q

Response of the kidneys to increased blood pH

A

Increase reabsorption of H+ and increase excretion of HCO3-

394
Q

The three layers of the skin

A

Going from deepest to surface:

hypodermis, dermin, epidermis

395
Q

Stratum basale

A

The deepest layer of the epidermis (which is the surface of the skin). Contains stem cells and is responsible for the proliferation of keratinocytes, which predominately make up the skin and produce keratin

396
Q

Stratum spinosum

A

Second deepest layer of the epidermis. Cells are connected to each other. The site of Langerhans cells (macrophages specific to the skin)

397
Q

Stratum granulosum

A

Middle layer of the epidermis (third from the top). Site of keratinocyte death and loss of nuclei

398
Q

Statum lucidum

A

Only present in thick, hairless skin like on the soles of feet or on palms

399
Q

Stratum corneum

A

Outermost layer of the epidermis. Has several dozen layers of flattened keratinocytes, forming a barrier against pathogens and prevents loss of fluids and salt. Contains openings for sweat and sebaceous glands

400
Q

Layers of the epidermis

A

Thinl: Come, Let’s Get Sun Burned

Stratum corneum, stratum, lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

401
Q

Sebaceous glands

A

Secrete an oily substance (sebum) into hair follicles that lubricates the skin

402
Q

Melanocytes

A

Melanin-producing cells in the stratum basale.

403
Q

Dermis

A

Middle layer of the skin under the epidermis and above the hypodermis. Site of origins of sweat glands, blood vessels, and hair follicles. Also contains several sensory receptors. Upper sublayer of this section is the papillary layer and beneath it is the reticular layer.

Sensory receptors: Merkel cells (pressure and texture sensations), Meissner’s corpuscles (light touch), Ruffini endings (stretch), Pacinian corpuscles (pressure and vibration)

404
Q

Hypodermis

A

Lowest layer of the skin. Contains fat and fibrous tissue

405
Q

Thermoregulation by the skin

A

Sweating: postganglionic cholinergic sympathetic neurons (special!) innervate sweat glands and trigger secretion when body temp is high. Cooling occurs due to evaporation of sweat from the skin

Piloerection: arrector pili muscles in the skin contract, causing hair to stand up, which helps trap a layer of heated air near the skin.

Shivering: converts ATP into mechanical and thermal energy, warming the body

Insulation: white fat and, more common in infants, brown fat which has much less efficient electron transport meaning that more heat energy is released as fuel is burned

406
Q

Where is Na+ reabsorption active in the nephron?

A

PCT, thick portion of the ascending loop, DCT.

It is passive in the thin portion of the ascending loop because [Na+] is so high by the time the urine reaches the bottom of the loop after descending

407
Q

Red fibers of skeletal muscle

A

Slow-twitch. Relatively high myoglobin content and function aerobically. Have a lot of mitochondria for oxidative phosphorylation. Predominant in muscle that must sustain contraction, like those responsible for contraction

408
Q

White muscle fibers

A

Fast-twitch. Lower myoglobin and relatively fewer mitochondria. Dominant in muscles that contract quickly but also fatigue quickly

409
Q

Nucleation of each of the muscle types

A

Skeletal: multinucleate
Smooth: uninucleate
Cardiac: primarily uninucleate, although some are dinucleate

410
Q

Intercalated discs

A

Structures that connect cardiomyocytes and have many gap junctions that allow the transfer of ions between cells, allowing for simultaneous depolarization of neighboring cells

411
Q

Myogenic activity

A

Contraction of muscle without input from the nervous system. Smooth and cardiac muscle cells are capable of this

412
Q

Effect of epinephrine on the heart

A

Binds to adrenergic receptors on the cardiac muscle cells and triggers a cascade that increases Ca2+ concentration in the cells, which increases contraction

413
Q

Titin

A

Protein in the sarcomere that anchors actin and myosin together, thus preventing excessive stretching

414
Q

Parts of the Sarcomere (ie all of the lines, bands, and zones)

A

Z-line: the boundary of the sarcomere
M-line: middle of the sarcomere that runs down the middle of the thick filaments
I-band: region containing only thin filaments
H-zone: contains only thick filaments
A-band: contains thick filaments in its entirety (the only one of these zones that remains constant in length throughout contraction)

415
Q

Myofibrils

A

Skeletal muscle cell structures of sarcomeres attached end-to-end. Surrounded by the sarcoplasmic reticulum

416
Q

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

A

A modified ER than encases the myofibrils and contains a high [Ca2+]

417
Q

Sarcoplasm

A

Modified cytoplasm in skeletal muscle cells

418
Q

Sarcolemma

A

Cell membrane of a myocyte. Able to distribute action potentials across entire cell using T-tubules

419
Q

Muscle fiber

A

Another name for a skeletal muscle cell. Contains many myofibrils in parallel

420
Q

The role of Ca2+ in skeletal muscle contraction

A

Depolarization from T-tubules reaches the sarcoplasmic reticulum, releasing Ca2+ into the cell. Ca2+ binds to troponin which induces a conformational change in tropomyosin, effectively exposing the myosin-binding site

421
Q

Steps of the cross-bridge cycle

A

Myosin binding site is already exposed and myosin is carrying ADP+P_i. Rapidly successive release of ADP and P_i provides energy for the power stroke which pulls the actin over the myosin, shortening the sarcomere. New ATP then binds to myosin, decreasing its affinity for actin, so it unbinds. This ATP is then partially hydrolyzed, which recocks the myosin head back into place for another cycle

422
Q

Mechanism of relaxation

A

ACh is decreased in the NMJ by acetylcholinesterase, allowing the sarcolemma to repolarize, leading to a decrease in Ca2+ release. SR also takes up Ca2+. This causes tropomyosin to re-cover the myosin-binding sites on actin and the sarcomere is allowed to re-lengthen

423
Q

Tonus

A

Constant low-level contraction, present in blood vessels

424
Q

Latent period

A

Time between reaching threshold for contraction and the onset of contraction. During this time, action potentials are traveling over T tubules to the SR and Ca2+ is released from there.

425
Q

Tetanus (as the physiological phenomenon)

A

Muscles are exposed to such frequent and prolonged stimulation that they are unable to relax. Results in muscle fatigue. Occurs in the disease tetanus and, to a lesser degree, under normal conditions, too.

426
Q

Creatine phosphate

A

One of the energy reserves in skeletal muscle cells. “Stores” ATP through the following reaction

creatine + ATP <=> creatine phosphate + ADP

creatine phosphate undergoes dephosphorylation to produce ATP when the cell needs it

427
Q

Oxygen debt

A

The difference between the amount of O2 needed by the muscle cell and the amount actually present. Myoglobin helps minimize this by storing O2 through high-affinity binding and then releasing it during times of extreme exercise.

428
Q

Myglobin

A

One of skeletal muscle cells’ energy stores. Binds with high affinity to O2 to hold in reserve to be able to keep aerobic respiration going when O2 is running low.

429
Q

Shift in the myoglobin-O2 binding curve during exercise

A

Rightward shift, indicating decreased affinity of myoglobin for oxygen. This allows unloading of the O2 so that the muscle cell can use it in aerobic respiration

430
Q

From which germ layer is bone derived?

A

Embryonic mesoderm

431
Q

Cancellous bone

A

Spongy bone. The inside contains bony points called trabeculae surrounded by bone marrow. In the core of bones

432
Q

Segments of long bones

A

Diaphyses (the shafts) swell at each end into the metaphyses, which terminate into epiphyses

433
Q

Red bone marrow

A

Filled with hematopoietic stem cells that give rise to blood cells

434
Q

Yellow bone marrow

A

Composed of fat and is relatively inactive

435
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A

AKA growth plates. Located at the internal edge of each epiphysis. During puberty, they are filled with mitotic cells and contribute to growth until the plates close

436
Q

Periosteum

A

Protective sheath around long bones, the cells of which are capable of differentiating into bone-forming cells. Essential for bone growth and repair

437
Q

Bony matrix and osteons

A

Osteons are the structural units of the bony matrix and allow for even distribution of organic and inorganic materials. Each osteon is laid out in concentric circles known as lamellae, surrounding a central microscope channel, which contain blood vessels, nerve fibers, and lymph vessels

438
Q

Lacunae

A

The spaces int eh bony matrix between lamellae. They house osteocytes. Interconnected with each other by canaliculi in order to exchange nutrients and wastes between the osteocytes and both types of canals

439
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Build new bone

440
Q

Osteoclasts

A

Macrophages present in bone that cause breakdown of old bone, thus releasing the Ca2+ and phosphate into the bloodstream

441
Q

Parathyroid hormone

A

Responds to low Ca2+ levels in the blood by triggering bone resorption, thus increasing Ca2+ and phosphate levels in the blood

442
Q

Vitamin D

A

Activated by parathyroid hormone. Promotes bone resorption, thus recycling old bone to allow formation of new, healthier bone

443
Q

Calcitonin

A

Response to high levels of Ca2+ in the blood and triggers bone formation, thus lowering Ca2+ in the blood

444
Q

Chondrin and Chondrocytes

A

Chondrin is the firm but elastic matrix that makes up cartilage. It is secreted by cells called chondrocytes

445
Q

Endochondral ossification

A

Hardening of cartilage into bone. Responsible for formation of most long bones in the human body

446
Q

Intramembranous ossification

A

Undifferentiated embryonic connective tissue (mesenchymal tissue) is transformed into and replaced by bone. This is how the bones of the skull are formed

447
Q

Synovial fluid

A

Lubricates the joint. Secreted by the synovium into the joint/articular cavity

448
Q

Origin and insertion

A

Origin: the end of a muscle that has the larger attachment to bone, usually proximal

Insertion: the end of the muscle that has the smaller attachment to bone, usually distal

449
Q

Which chemical forms most of the inorganic components of bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite crystals

450
Q

Locus

A

Location of a gene on a chromosome. Each gene has a particular one

451
Q

Penetrance

A

The proportion of individuals in a group carrying a certain allele and actually express the phenotype

452
Q

Expressivity

A

Describes varying phenotypes despite identical genotypes

453
Q

Mendel’s second Law of Independent Assortment

A

Inheritance of one genotype does not affect the inheritance of another

454
Q

In which phase of meiosis does recombination occur?

A

Prophase I

455
Q

Transforming principle

A

Bacteria can increase genetic variability by sharing genes with members of their species in close proximity. Discovered by Griffith

456
Q

Transposons

A

Elements that can freely insert and remove themselves from a genome. They can disrupt a gene is they attach in the middle of one

457
Q

Chromosome-level mutations are ____-scale ompared to nucleotide-level mutaitons

A

large

458
Q

Translocation mutation

A

When a segment of DNA from one chromosome is swapped with a segment of DNA from another chromosome

459
Q

Inborn errors of metabolism

A

Defcts in genes required for metabolism

460
Q

Genetic Leakage

A

Flow of genes between species. Sometimes to produce hybrid offspring like mules

461
Q

Genetic drift

A

Changes in the gene pool of a species due to chance. Causes a reduction in genetic variability

462
Q

Inbreeding depression

A

Overall reduced fitness of the population due to inbreeding and consequent decrease in genetic variation

463
Q

Recombination frequency

A

The likelihood that two alleles are separated from each other during recombination. Tightly linked genes have recombination frequencies near 0 percent, whereas weakly linked genes have RFs near 50%. Analysis of these values allows us to create a genetic map

464
Q

Conditions of Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium

A

All five must be met to achieve a stable gene pool and NO evolution:

  1. Population is very large (no gen. drift)
  2. There are no mutations in the gene pool
  3. Mating between individuals is the population is random (no sexual selection)
  4. There is no migration of individuals into or out of the population
  5. The genes in the population are equally successful at being reproduced
465
Q

Hardy-Weinberg equations

A

p+q = 1
p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

p: the frequency of the dominant allele
q: the frequency of the recessive allele

466
Q

Rate of occurence of the dominant phenotype (H-W equation)

A

p^2 + 2pq

467
Q

Inclusive fitness

A

A measure of an organism’s success in the population, based on the number of offspring, the ability to support the offspring, and then the ability of the offspring to support others

468
Q

Punctuated equilibrium

A

Theory of evolution that was theorized by studying the fossil record. It supports the idea that species would be relatively stagnant and not evolving over long periods of time and then go through short bursts of evolution

469
Q

Modes of natural selection

A

Stabilizing selection, directional selection, and disruptive selection

470
Q

Stabilizing selection

A

Keeps phenotypes within a certain range by selecting against extremes. Ex: birthweight remains in a narrow range because either extreme can be dangerous

471
Q

Directional selection

A

Emergence and dominance of an initially extreme phenotype

472
Q

Disruptive selection

A

Two extreme, distinct phenotypes are selected over the norm. These distinct phenotypes are known as polymorphisms

473
Q

Polymorphisms

A

Naturally occurring differences in the form between members of the same population. Ex: light and dark coloration of butterflies in the same species

474
Q

Adaptive radiation

A

Concept that describes the rapid rise of a number of different species from a common ancestor. It is promoted by rapid environmental changes or isolation of small groups of the ancestral species

475
Q

Niche

A

An environment (encompassing habitat, resources, and predators) for which a certain species is adapted to survive in

476
Q

Prezygotic reproductive isolation

A

Mating between species is no longer possible due to evolution. Zygote cannot even form

477
Q

Postzygotic reproductive isolation

A

Allows gamete fusion, but the zygote is not stable or viable enough to survive. Two groups can no longer mate with each other due to speciation apart

478
Q

Molecular clock model

A

The degree of genomic similarity correlates with the amount of time since two species split off from the same common ancestor

479
Q

Where are post-transcriptional modifications carried out?

What about post-translational?

A

P-transcrip: In the nucleus

P-transl: A couple of locations are possible including the cytoplasm, ER, and Golgi

480
Q

Euploidy

A

Having one or more complete sets of chromosomes

481
Q

Tissue with the highest number of glucagon receptors

A

Liver.

NOT skeletal muscles because the primary function of glucagon is to increase blood glucose levels, and skeletal muscles’ glycogen stores are not broken down for release into the bloodstream, rather, the muscles use the glucose themselves

482
Q

Endosome

A

A collection of intracellular sorting organelles

483
Q

In beta-oxidation, which carbons wind up in which products?

A

C1 and C2 wind up in the acetyl-CoA (the two-carbon molecule)

C3 (and above) wind up on the acyl CoA - the remaining fatty acid chain

484
Q

Describe the effect on SDS-PAGE of a protein having an abundance of negative charged residues in its peptide chain prior to SDS denaturation

A

Many negativeley charge residues will result in SDS-PAGE producing an estimate of the protein’s weight that is less than the actual value because the the negative charge induced by SDS plus the existing negative charge intensifies the charge so much that the protein will travel further in the gel towards the positive end (indicating smaller size) than what is accurate

485
Q

Passive Immunity

A

The transfer of active humoral immunit in the form of ready-made antibodies, from one individual to another.

Ex: diffusion of antibodies from mother to fetus through the placenta

486
Q

Contrast Anaphase I and Anaphase II of Meiosis

What are the resulting ploidies of meiosis I vs II?

A

Anaphase I: Separation of homologous chromosomes

Anaphase II: Separation of sister chromatids

Cells after meiosis I: 2 haploid cells, 2 sister chromatids of each chromosome
After meiosis II: 4 haploid cells, 1 sister chromatid of each chromosome

487
Q

Autosomal genes

A

Genes that are NOT located on X or Y chromosomes. They are expressed to the same extent in males and females

488
Q

Males tend to exhibit X-linked disorders ____ frequently than females in the population because…

A

more; they only have one X chromosome, so the “dominant” X allele has to be the one that is on there (the single allele), in contrast to females who can have an abnormality on one X chromosome be canceled out by a normal allele on their other X chromosome

In short: males only have one allele for x-linked genes so they would have to express it

489
Q

Genes that are located close to each other on a chromosome have a _____ chance of being separated in recombination

A

Low

490
Q

Parallel evolution

A

Describes when two closely related species (with a common ancestor) develop similar characteristics due to a similar environment

491
Q

Divergent evolution

A

Describes the evolution of two species descended from a common ancestor, but now inhabit distinct environments, so have now developed different characteristics

492
Q

T/F: Genes that are rarely expressed are likely found on Euchromatin

A

False - genes that are located on the loosely wrapped euchromatin are more available for transcription machinery to access them, so it makes more sense for low-expression genes to be located in the more tightly coiled heterochromatin

493
Q

Describe the use of Hybridization to detect gene expression

A

Determine whether there is a specific mRNA of interest by incubating cytosol from the cell of interest with a fluorescently labeled complementary RNA. The degree of fluorescence after washing away the unbound mRNAs shows the degree of hybridization, which can be used to determine the amount of mRNA of interest present in the cytosol sample.

494
Q

DNA Mismatch Repair Machinery (def and mechanism)

A

Corrects mismatched bases in DNA strands during replication - does NOT repair RNA.

Mechanism: Upon detection of a mismatched base, a nuclease enzyme cuts out the erroneous nucleotide and a couple of its neighboring nucleotides, and then repairs the sequence with DNA polymerase. DNA ligase seals the nicks

495
Q

Synapsis

A

During prophase I of meiosis when homologous chromosomes recognize each other and line up side by side to form a tetrad. Allows cross over to occur, thus increasing genetic diversity

496
Q

Epitope and bond-type

A

The antibody binding region on an antigen. Antibody binds noncovalently

497
Q

Ubiquitin tags

A

Label proteins for destruction by flagging them to be sent to the proteasome

498
Q

Lysosome vs Proteasome

A

Lysosome degrades secretory proteins that entered the cell via endocytosis, whereas proteasome degrades cytosolic proteins that were sent to it due to ubiquination

499
Q

k_cat

A

Turnover number of an enzyme. Equal to the number of substrate molecules converted to product per second under saturating conditions

500
Q

Slope of a Lineweaver-Burke plot

A

Km/Vmax

501
Q

Effect of Urea on Proteins

A

Urea denatures the proteins by exposing hydrophobic groups and interfering with H-bonding in the amino acid backbone.

Increases unfolding

502
Q

Average weight of a single Amino Acid

A

110 Da

503
Q

How is the tertiary structure of a protein stabilized?

A

Via noncovalent interactions between amino acid sidechains

ONE EXCEPTION: disulfide bonds (covalent) can occur between Cys sidechains, require an oxidizing environment (cannot happen in the cytosol because it is a reducing environment)

504
Q

Ternary complex

A

A group of 3 bound molecules with at least one of them being a protein

May either bind in a specific order or random

505
Q

Native PAGE

A

Takes place in a gel that is free of any detergents or reducing agest, which means that the native structure of the protein is retained

506
Q

Succinate-Ubiquinone Reductase

A

Complex II of the ETC, also called succinate dehydrogenase. An oxidoreductase that moves electrons from succinate to Complex III.

The first e carrier in Complex II is FADH2, and then the carrier that takes the e to Complex III is ubiquinone (reduced to ubiquinol).

507
Q

As the ETC progresses, the reduction potentials of the electron carriers gets _________.

A

Higher!

508
Q

Stereospecific reactions of the Citric Acid Cycle

A

Formation of D-isocitrate via Aconitase

Formation of L-malate via fumarase

509
Q

Fructose -2.6-bisphosphate

A

Synthesis of this enzyme is triggered by insulin - it then activates PFK-1 –> driving glycolysis.

Also inhibits gluconeogenesis by allosterically inhibiting the catalytic activity of F1,6BP

Increases net catabolism of glucose

510
Q

Innervation of the adrenal medulla

A

ONLY innervated by the sympathetic nervous system

511
Q

Respective cellular locations of fatty acid oxidation and synthesis

A

Oxidation: mitochondria (primarily - note that longer chains must start out in the peroxisome)

Synthesis: cytosol

512
Q

Chaperones

A

Proteins that facilitate proper folding and prevent aggregation

513
Q

Signal sequences

A

Portions of mature mRNA located in the 5’ region. They signal the ribosome that translation needs to finish occurring at the location of the Rough ER

514
Q

Full name of NADH

A

Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide + hydrogen

515
Q

Endomembrane system

A

The portion of the cell that is responsible for modifying proteins that will be secreted (e.g. cleavage of insulin into its mature form)

516
Q

Major Histocompatibility Complex

A

Group of genes that encode for proteins involved in immune system’s ability to recognize the self

517
Q

Increased levels of which hormone indicate increased levels of stress?

A

Cortisol

518
Q

Quorum Sensing

A

The ability of cells to detect and respond to cell population density by appropriate regulation of genes

519
Q

Functions of Liver Cells

A
  • Regulation of blood glucose via glycogenolysis, glycogenesis, and gluconeogenesis
  • Storage of glycogen, minerals (iron), and vitamins
  • Synthesis of macros like plasma proteins (albumin, clotting factors), fats, ketone bodies, and cholesterol
  • Production and secretion of bile
  • Breakdown/detoxification of numerous drugs and metabolic waste products
520
Q

Nuclear Localization Sequence

A

Short sequence of amino acids that mediates transport of the protein from the cytoplasm into the nucleus

521
Q

Cell type that lines Bowman’s Capsule

A

Simple squamous epithelial

MCAT (6 decks)

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