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1
Q

what are the four functions of the circulatory system?

A
  1. transports O2 and nutrients
  2. transports heat throughout the body
  3. distributes energy thought the body
  4. defends against pathogens
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2
Q

what does a heartbeat consist of?

A

a complete contraction (systole) and a complete relaxation (diastole)

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3
Q

which direction do arteries carry blood in?

A

away from the heart

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4
Q

what is the largest artery in the body?

A

the aorta

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5
Q

what do arteries branch off into?

A

arterioles

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6
Q

what do coronary arteries supply blood to?

A

the heart

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7
Q

what kind of vessels are arteries?

A

they are thick and muscular and can withstand high pressure

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8
Q

what happens if coronary arteries are blocked?

A

it can cause a heart attack

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9
Q

what happens if an artery in the brain is blocked?

A

it can cause a stroke

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10
Q

which direction do veins carry blood in?

A

towards the heart

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11
Q

what kind of vessels are veins?

A

smaller and thinner than arteries, low pressure

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12
Q

what type of blood vessels contain valves?

A

veins

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13
Q

why do veins contain valves?

A

to prevent back flow because blood is usually travelling against gravity

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14
Q

what does blood movement in veins depend on?

A

the contractions of surrounding muscles

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15
Q

what is the largest vein called?

A

the vena cava (superior and inferior)

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16
Q

what are smaller branches of veins called?

A

venules

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17
Q

what happens when valves in the veins are faulty?

A

varicose veins

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18
Q

what are capillaries?

A

tiny blood vessels that connect to the smallest branches of arterioles and venules

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19
Q

how thick are capillaries?

A

one cell thick

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20
Q

what do capillaries do?

A

bring nutrients and oxygen to tissues and remove waste products

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21
Q

what makes the lub-dub sound of a heartbeat?

A

the valves opening and closing

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22
Q

what does a heartbeat consist of?

A

a complete contraction (systole) and a complete relaxation (diastole)

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23
Q

what does a contraction consist of?

A

the atria contracting followed by the ventricles

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24
Q

about how much blood do we have in our bodies?

A

5L

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25
Q

how much of the blood does plasma make up?

A

about 55%

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26
Q

what is plasma made of?

A
  • water
  • dissolved CO2
  • waste
  • hormones
  • proteins
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27
Q

what is the lifespan of a RBC?

A

about 120 days

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28
Q

where are RBCs, WBCs and platelets produced?

A

bone marrow

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29
Q

why is the shape of RBCs beneficial?

A

provides a large surface area for gas exchange and allows them to travel easily through the blood vessels

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30
Q

what is the benefit of RBCs not having a nucleus?

A

provides more room for hemoglobin on the surface of the cell

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31
Q

what iron binds to oxygen to transport it through the body?

A

hemoglobin

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32
Q

what is it called when hemoglobin bonds to oxygen?

A

oxyhemoglobin

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33
Q

what is sickle cell anemia?

A

a disorder that results in abnormally shaped RBCs which deliver less oxygen to the body

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34
Q

what is the lifespan of a white blood cell?

A

13-20 days

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35
Q

what are platelets responsible for?

A

clotting

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36
Q

what is the clotting process?

A
  1. dissolved fibrinogen comes in contact with a rough surface
  2. fibrinogen converts to active form: fibrin
  3. fibrin forms a mesh that traps RBCs to form a clot
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37
Q

is fibrinogen active or inactive?

A

inactive

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38
Q

what is the active form of fibrinogen?

A

fibrin

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39
Q

what is “bad” cholesterol?

A

LDL (from land animals) - it contributes to fatty buildups in arteries

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40
Q

what is “good” cholesterol?

A

HDL (from marine animals) - it carries LDL out of the body

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41
Q

what is atherosclerosis?

A

the build up of cholesterol inside the arteries (aka. coronary heart disease)

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42
Q

what is angina?

A

a cramping pain behind the breastbone, stretching out to the neck and arms caused by a lack of oxygen to the heart. often a symptom of atherosclerosis

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43
Q

what is a pathogen?

A

disease causing agent

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44
Q

what does fungi live off of?

A

dead or decaying organisms

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45
Q

what are examples of fungi?

A

athletes foot, ring worm

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46
Q

what is bacteria?

A

single celled organisms, no nucleus, can reproduce themselves

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47
Q

what are viruses?

A

microorganisms, require a host cell to reproduce, contain genetic information

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48
Q

what type of pathogen responds to antibiotics?

A

bacteria

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49
Q

what type of pathogen responds to vaccinations?

A

viruses

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50
Q

what are examples of bacteria?

A

strep throat, meningitis

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51
Q

what are examples of viruses?

A

HIV, flu, herpes

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52
Q

what is the first line of defence?

A

barriers that prevent the pathogen from entering the body

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53
Q

what prevents most pathogens from entering the body?

A

skin

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54
Q

how does skin prevent pathogens from entering the body?

A

it produces sweat and acidic oil secretions

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55
Q

how does the nose prevent pathogens from entering the body?

A

nasal hairs and mucus secretions

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56
Q

how do the eyes defend against pathogens?

A

they produce an antiseptic liquid

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57
Q

how does the stomach defend against pathogens?

A

HCl

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58
Q

what is the second line of defence?

A

occurs when the pathogen has entered the body, inflammation and fever help to fight against pathogens

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59
Q

what is the third line of defence?

A

this is an immune response specific to the pathogen

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60
Q

what are antigens?

A

unique proteins on the surface of a pathogen that triggers the immune response

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61
Q

what are antibodies?

A

proteins molecules produces in WBCs that bind to specific antigens to disable the pathogen

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62
Q

what is the first WBC to respond to a pathogen?

A

macrophages

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63
Q

what do helper T-cells do?

A

they bind to the antigens and send out hormone signals to coordinate the response of other cells

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64
Q

what do killer T-cells do?

A

if the pathogen is a virus they release a protein to destroy infected cells

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65
Q

what to B-cells do?

A

they produce antibodies

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66
Q

what do memory B and T cells do?

A

they remain in the body after the infection and remember the antibody so the immune response can be quicker next time that pathogen enters the body

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67
Q

what do suppressor T-cells do?

A

they signal the immune response to stop

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68
Q

where do T-cells mature?

A

in the thymus gland

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69
Q

where do B-cells mature?

A

in the bone marrow

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70
Q

where do antigens appear?

A

on the surface of the pathogen, then on the surface of the macrophage after it engulfs the pathogen

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71
Q

what cells respond specifically to viruses?

A

killer T-cells

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72
Q

what cells signal the immune response to stop?

A

suppressor T-cells

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73
Q

how to WBCs send signals?

A

through hormones

74
Q

how do antibodies help the immune response?

A

they bind to antigens which clumps pathogens so it’s easier for macrophages to engulf them

75
Q

at what point are you 7-10 days from recovery?

A

when the B-cells have produced antibodies

76
Q

what is the order of the immune response?

A
  1. WBCs identify a pathogen
  2. macrophages engulf the pathogen and present the antigen on its surface
  3. helper t-cells bind to and recognize the antigens, coordinating other cells to respond
  4. killer t-cells destroy infected cells (virus)
  5. b-cells produce antibodies
  6. memory t and B cells are produced and remain in the body
  7. suppressor t-cells signal the immune response to stop
77
Q

what is an autoimmune disease?

A

this is when the body recognizes its own cells and tissues as foreign pathogens and launch an immune response

78
Q

what are examples of autoimmune diseases?

A

multiple sclerosis, rheumatoid arthritis and lupus

79
Q

what do vaccines do?

A

they prevent infection by having the immune system produce memory cells against a specific pathogen

80
Q

what is a disease vector?

A

an organism that transmits pathogens to other organisms

81
Q

what is an example of a disease vector?

A

mosquitos (malaria)

82
Q

what WBC does the HIV virus attack?

A

helper T-cells

83
Q

what can cause a vaccination to be ineffective?

A

if the virus has mutated

84
Q

what is contained in a vaccination?

A

a weakened or altered form of the pathogen

85
Q

why don’t we use live pathogens in a vaccine?

A

so the full-blown form of the disease is not presented

86
Q

what is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

the body’s immune system attacking the bones and cartilage of the joints

87
Q

why do we suppress the immune system of transplant patients?

A

so they don’t reject the transplanted organ

88
Q

what is a chromosome?

A

a strand of DNA that contains the instructions for making proteins

89
Q

what is a gene?

A

a segment of DNA that carries instructions that result in the production of proteins

90
Q

what is DNA?

A

the twisted ladder shaped molecule that contains genetic information

91
Q

what is a centromere?

A

the region on a replicated chromosome that attaches the two identical copies during cell division

92
Q

what is an autosomal cell?

A

a cell of the body not involved in sexual reproduction

93
Q

what are homologous chromosomes?

A

a pair of identical chromosomes

94
Q

what is a gamete?

A

a sex cell, such as a sperm and an egg, produced during meiosis with only one copy of each chromosome type

95
Q

where is genetic information found?

A

in the nucleus of a cell

96
Q

how many pairs of chromosomes does a human have?

A

23 pairs

97
Q

how many chromosomes in total does a normal human have?

A

46

98
Q

what is a karyotype?

A

an image of all chromosomes in a cell organized in pairs from largest to smallest

99
Q

why are karyotypes useful?

A

they allow us to ID chromosomal errors and identify the sex of the offspring

100
Q

how much of the mass of the body do proteins make up?

A

over 50%

101
Q

what two processes are used in the reproduction of cells?

A

mitosis and meiosis

102
Q

what is mitosis?

A

two identical daughter cells are produced to replace dead or damaged cells

103
Q

in what type of cells does mitosis occur in?

A

autosomal

104
Q

how do autosomal cells spend most of their time?

A

in the “rest” or “living” stage

105
Q

how do chromosomes exists in the rest/living stage?

A

as chromatin

106
Q

what is the first step of mitosis?

A

DNA replication

107
Q

what happens during DNA replication?

A
  1. chromatin condenses to form chromosomes composed of two chromosomes attached at the centromere
  2. centrioles move to opposite sides of the cell and fibres extend from them to create the spindles
108
Q

in what stage of mitosis does the nuclear membrane disappear?

A

stage 1 or DNA replication

109
Q

how many stages are there in mitosis?

A

4

110
Q

what is the second stage of mitosis?

A

the spindle fibres align the centromeres along the equator of the cell

111
Q

what is the 3rd stage of mitosis?

A
  1. the centromeres split and the chromosomes separate, moving to opposite sides of the cell
  2. nuclear membranes form around each chromosome
112
Q

what is the 4th stage of mitosis?what is the 2nd stage of meiosis?

A
  1. the two cell membranes separate to form two distinct cells
  2. the two new cells uncoil and enter the living stage
113
Q

how many new cells are formed from mitosis?

A

2 identical cells

114
Q

how many new cells are formed during meiosis?

A

4

115
Q

how many chromosomes does each cell formed during mitosis have?

A

46 (diploid number)

116
Q

how many chromosomes does each cell formed during meiosis have?

A

23 (haploid number)

117
Q

what type of cells are formed during meiosis?

A

gametes

118
Q

what is the first stage of meiosis?

A

DNA condense and replication

119
Q

what is the 2nd stage of meiosis?

A
  1. the chromosomes line up and twist together to transfer genetic information
  2. the tetrad separates into two pairs of genetically unique chromosomes
120
Q

what is the 3rd stage of meiosis?

A

cell division 1 – the two pairs of chromosomes attach to spindle fibres and separate into two separate cells

121
Q

what is the 4th stage of meiosis?

A

cell division 2 – the chromosomes attach to spindle fibres and separate to form gametes

122
Q

how many pairs of autosomal cells does the human body have?

A

22

123
Q

how many pairs of sex cells does a human have?

A

1

124
Q

what is a haploid cell?

A

a sex cell, it only has 23 total chromosomes

125
Q

what sex chromosomes do males have?

A

one Y chromosome and one X chromosome

126
Q

what sex chromosomes do females have?

A

two X chromosomes

127
Q

what decides whether a baby is male or female?

A

the sperm, it can either have an X chromosome or a Y chromosome, but every egg has an X chromosome

128
Q

in which type of cellular reproduction can chromosomal errors occur?

A

meiosis

129
Q

what is an amniocentesis?

A

the process of removing some amniotic fluid to perform a karyotype and detect any chromosomal errors

130
Q

what is non-disjunction?

A

this is a chromosomal error where the chromosomes have failed to separate during cell division

131
Q

what does non-disjunction result in?

A

either having one extra chromosome (trisomy) or one less (monosomy)

132
Q

what is a trisomy?

A

when there is an extra homologous chromosome, so there’s 3 instead of 2

133
Q

what is a monosomy?

A

when there is one less chromosome – 45 instead of 46

134
Q

what are the three types of mutations?

A
  1. non-disjunction
  2. point mutation
  3. frameshift mutation
135
Q

what is point mutation?

A

the substitution of one nucleotide base for another

ex. THE FAT CAT
THE BAT CAT

136
Q

what are the two types of frameshift mutations?

A
  1. addition

2. deletion

137
Q

what is an addition?

A

a type of frameshift mutation, when a nucleotide base is replicated so there is one too many

ex. THE FAT CAT
THE FFA TCA T

138
Q

what is a deletion?

A

when one nucleotide base is missing

ex. THE FAT CAT
THE ATC AT

139
Q

who is considered the father of genetics?

A

gregor mendel

140
Q

what did Gregor Mendel conduct experiments on?

A

pea plants

141
Q

do genes apply to acquired traits?

A

no

142
Q

what is an example of an acquired trait?

A

language

143
Q

what is an example of an inherited trait?

A

eye color

144
Q

what is an allele?

A

alternate forms of a gene, letters are used to represent them

ex. G = blue flowers
g = pink flowers

145
Q

what is a dominant trait?

A

a gene that is stronger than a recessive gene, it only needs to be present in one parent in order to be shown in an offspring

146
Q

what is a recessive trait?

A

the weaker allele, both parents must contain the recessive trait in order for the trait to be expressed in the offspring

147
Q

what is a genotype?

A

a description using letters of the alleles present

ex. GG, Gg, gg

148
Q

what is a phenotype?

A

a word description of the alleles

ex. blue eyes vs brown eyes

149
Q

what does homozygous mean?

A

both alleles are the same

150
Q

what does homozygous dominant mean?

A

the alleles are both the dominant trait

ex. BB

151
Q

what does homozygous recessive mean?

A

the alleles are both the recessive trait

ex. bb

152
Q

what does heterozygous mean?

A

the alleles are different

ex. Bb

153
Q

what is the purpose of a punnet square?

A

to predict the possible genotype of offspring

154
Q

what is co-dominance?

A

when two traits are not dominant over each other

155
Q

what is sex-linked inheritance?

A

genes on sex chromosomes are responsible for sex-linked inheritance

156
Q

what is the smallest unit in DNA called?

A

a nucleotide

157
Q

what does a nucleotide consist of?

A
  1. phosphate group
  2. sugar molecule
  3. nitrogenous base
158
Q

what are the 4 nitrogenous bases?

A
  1. adenine
  2. cytosine
  3. thymine
  4. guanine
159
Q

what does the double helix consist of?

A

a base pairs attaching together

160
Q

what base does adenine bond to?

A

thymine

161
Q

what base does guanine bond to?

A

cytosine

162
Q

what base does thymine bond to?

A

adenine

163
Q

what base does cytosine bond to?

A

guanine

164
Q

what is the purpose of the double helix shape?

A

to make the shape of DNA thin and compact

165
Q

what are proteins made up of?

A

chains of amino acids

166
Q

what is a DNA triplet code?

A

a combination of any 3 bases that codes for a specific amino acid

167
Q

what is a mutation?

A

a heritable change in the sequence of nitrogen bases along a DNA molecule

168
Q

what is a genetic disease?

A

a disease caused by a mutation of one or more genes that can be inherited by future generations

169
Q

what is a carrier?

A

an individual who has the allele for a disease but does not show the symptoms of it

170
Q

what is a mutagen?

A

any agent that causes the likelihood of mutations to increase

171
Q

what is a carcinogen?

A

any agent that causes the likelihood of cancer to increase, they are usually mutagens

172
Q

what is genetic engineering?

A

the modification of genetic material through the actions of people

173
Q

what is gene therapy?

A

the technique of using a vector such as a virus in the treatment and possible cure of diseases

174
Q

what is a genetically modified organism?

A

an organism whose genetic material has been deliberately altered

175
Q

what is a pedigree chart?

A

a genetic family tree

176
Q

what represents females in a pedigree chart?

A

circles

177
Q

what represents males in a pedigree chart?

A

squares

178
Q

what represents affected individuals in a pedigree chart?

A

shaded symbol

179
Q

what does a half-shaded symbol represent on a pedigree chart?

A

a carrier

180
Q

how are antibiotic resistant genes passed?

A

some germs can give their resistance directly to other germs, but they occur naturally via mutations

181
Q

what is a plasmid transfer?

A

this is when plasmids containing DNA are transferred meaning resistance genes are transferred with it

182
Q

what is transformation?

A

this is the genetic alteration of a cell resulting from outside sources of genetic material

Science 30 (5 decks)

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