biological molecules Flashcards

1
Q

what is a monomer

A

smaller repeating units from which larger molecules are made

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2
Q

what are polymers

A

moleculea made up from many monomers joined together

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3
Q

what is a condensation reaction

A

joins two molecules together with the formation of a chemical bond and involves the elimination of a water molecule

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4
Q

what is hydrolysis

A

breaks a chemical bond between two molecules and involves the use of a water molecule

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5
Q

what does a carbohydrate contain

A

carbon, hydorgen and oxygen
commonly used by cells as respiratory substrates and from structural components in plasma membranes and cell walls

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6
Q

what is a monosacharide

A

monomers from which larger carbohydrates are made.

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7
Q

example of a monosacharide

A

glucose, galactose, fructose
all have the formula C6 H12 O6

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8
Q

what is a isomer

A

share the same chemical formula but have different structures
e.g. alpha glucose and beta glucose

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9
Q

what is the difference between alpha and beta glucose

A

on carbon one the position of the hydrogen and carboxyl group are inverted
alpha glucose reads ho ho on the bottom whereas beta is ho h

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10
Q

what is a dissacharide

A

formed by condensation of two monosacharides with a glycosidic bond
they are soluble in water and have the formula of C12 H22 O11

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11
Q

examples of a dissacharide

A
  • maltose = two glucose
  • sucrose = glucose and fructose
  • lactose = glucose and galactose
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12
Q

what is starch and what are its properties

A
  • polysacharide found in plant cells made up of alpha glucose
  • 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic bonds
  • when hydrolysed releases glucose for respiration
  • insoluble in water
  • large molecule so cant cross cell surface membrane
  • branched and coiled which makes it compact, fits many alpha glucose in a small area
  • branched so faster hydrolysis
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13
Q

glycogen and its properties

A
  • polysacharide found in the liver and muscle cells made up of alpha glucose
  • 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic bonds
  • coiled which makes it compact for storage of many glucose molecules
  • branched, more ends so faster hyrdolysis to rapidly release glucose for respiratory substrate to release ATP
  • insoluble, not easily lost from the cell, does not affect water potential
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14
Q

cellulose and its properties

A
  • polysacharide found in plant cell walls
  • beta glucose
  • 1,4 glycocidic bonds
  • every other b glucose must be inverted
  • long straight chains which link together by many H bonds to form microfibrils the fibrils
  • this gives mechanical strength
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15
Q

what is the test for reducing sugars

A
  • add benedicts solution
  • heat
  • positive result will be red precipitate
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16
Q

what is the test for non reducing sugars

A
  • obtain negative result with benedicts sugar test
  • boil with acid
  • neutralise with NaHCO3
  • heat with benedicts
  • positive result is red precipitate
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17
Q

starch test

A

iodine solution stains blue black in the presence of starch

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18
Q

what are the two quantitiave methods used to see how much sugar is present in a benedicts test

A

1) produce a dilution series of known concentration of glucose solutions. Use a colorimeter measure the absorbance of the solution after carrying out a benedicts test, the higher the absorbance the more sugar is present. Use this data to plot a calibration curve.

2) filter and dry precipitate then find the mass using a balance. The bigger the mass the more sugar is present.

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19
Q

what is chromatography

A

technique used to seperate a mixture into its individual components.
relies on differences in solubility of the different solutes within a mixture.
higher the solubilty the further it will travel.
monosacharides are colourless so will stain first.
a spot of the stained monosacharide sample mixture is placed on a line at the bottom of the chromatography paper.
spots of knwon standard solutions of different monosacharides are placed on the line beside the sample spot.

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20
Q

structure and function of a tryglyceride

A
  • contains carbon, hydorgen, oxygen
  • insoluble
  • formed when a condensation reaction occurs between glycerol and 3 fatty acids to form an ester bond
  • hydrophobic / non polar
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21
Q

structure and function of phospholipids

A
  • contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and phosphorus
  • insoluble
  • glycerol, 2 fatty acids and a phosphate
  • both hydrophobic tails and hydrophillic heads
  • allows formation of the phosphlipid bilayer
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22
Q

emulsion test for lipids

A
  • add ethanol
  • shake
  • add water
  • shake
  • positive test will show cloudy white emulsion
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23
Q
A
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24
Q

What are the building blocks of proteins?

A

Amino acids

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25
Q

How many standard amino acids are there?

A

20

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26
Q

What is a dipeptide?

A

A molecule formed from two amino acids linked by a peptide bond.

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27
Q

What type of bond connects amino acids in a protein?

A

Peptide bond

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28
Q

What level of protein structure is characterized by the sequence of amino acids?

A

Primary structure

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29
Q

True or False: The secondary structure of proteins involves the folding of the polypeptide chain.

A

False

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30
Q

What are the two main types of secondary structures in proteins?

A

Alpha helices and beta sheets

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31
Q

What level of protein structure involves the overall three-dimensional shape?

A

Tertiary structure

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32
Q

True or False: Quaternary structure involves the assembly of multiple polypeptide chains.

A

True

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33
Q

What determines the tertiary structure of a protein?

A

Interactions between R groups of amino acids.

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34
Q

Fill in the blank: A polypeptide chain is made up of a sequence of _____ linked by peptide bonds.

A

Amino acids

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35
Q

What type of interactions can stabilize tertiary structure?

A

Hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, and disulfide bridges.

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36
Q

What is the effect of denaturation on protein structure?

A

It disrupts the secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures without breaking peptide bonds.

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37
Q

Which level of protein structure is not affected by denaturation?

A

Primary structure

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38
Q

What is a common example of a protein with quaternary structure?

A

Hemoglobin

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39
Q

Which amino acid contains sulfur and can form disulfide bonds?

40
Q

Fill in the blank: The sequence of amino acids in a protein is determined by the _____ of the gene encoding that protein.

A

DNA sequence

41
Q

How do dipeptides form?

A

Through a condensation reaction between two amino acids.

42
Q

What is the significance of the R group in amino acids?

A

It determines the properties and function of the amino acid.

43
Q

What is a peptide bond?

A

A covalent bond formed between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another.

44
Q

True or False: All proteins have a quaternary structure.

45
Q

What level of protein structure is represented by alpha helices and beta sheets?

A

Secondary structure

46
Q

what is the general structure of an amino acid

A

NH2 ( represents amine group), COOH ( represents carboxyl ) and R ( side chain )

47
Q

buiret test for protiens

A
  • add biuret reagent
  • if protien is present colour will change purple
  • if test is negative colour will remain blue
48
Q

how do you seperate protiens and amino acids

A

1) paper chromatography
- unknown amino acid placed on origin line
- different aa will have different solubilities so wil travel different distanes dependant on size and charge
- unknown is compared to the known standards for identification
2) gel electropherisis
- seperates based on size and mass of the protien and the charge on the protiens

49
Q

What is the primary function of enzymes?

A

To act as catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in biological processes.

50
Q

True or False: Enzymes are consumed in the reactions they catalyze.

51
Q

What is the active site of an enzyme?

A

The region on the enzyme where substrate molecules bind and undergo a chemical reaction.

52
Q

Fill in the blank: Enzymes are typically ________ proteins.

53
Q

What model describes enzyme-substrate interaction where the enzyme changes shape to fit the substrate?

A

Induced fit model

54
Q

What is the effect of temperature on enzyme activity?

A

Enzyme activity generally increases with temperature up to an optimal point, after which it decreases due to denaturation.

55
Q

Multiple Choice: Which factor does NOT affect enzyme activity?

A

Color of the enzyme

56
Q

What is the role of coenzymes in enzyme function?

A

Coenzymes assist enzymes by transferring chemical groups or electrons during reactions.

57
Q

True or False: Enzymes can catalyze multiple types of reactions.

58
Q

What is enzyme specificity?

A

The ability of an enzyme to choose exact substrate from a group of similar chemical molecules.

59
Q

Fill in the blank: The ________ concentration of substrate typically increases the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions.

60
Q

What happens to enzymes at high substrate concentrations?

A

They become saturated, and the reaction rate reaches a maximum velocity (Vmax).

61
Q

Multiple Choice: What is an enzyme inhibitor?

A

A substance that decreases enzyme activity.

62
Q

What are allosteric sites?

A

Sites on an enzyme where molecules can bind and change the enzyme’s activity.

63
Q

True or False: Competitive inhibitors bind to the active site of an enzyme.

64
Q

What is the significance of the enzyme-substrate complex?

A

It is the intermediate formed when an enzyme binds to its substrate, leading to a chemical reaction.

65
Q

Fill in the blank: Enzymes are sensitive to ________ changes in pH.

66
Q

What does a high enzyme concentration imply for reaction rates?

A

It can lead to an increased rate of reaction, assuming substrate is available.

67
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting enzyme activity?

A

Presence of light

68
Q

What is denaturation in relation to enzymes?

A

The process where an enzyme loses its three-dimensional structure, resulting in loss of function.

69
Q

True or False: Enzymes can function outside of their optimal temperature and pH.

70
Q

What is the term for the maximum rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?

71
Q

Fill in the blank: Enzymes are typically ________ under optimal conditions.

A

most active

72
Q

What is the role of feedback inhibition in metabolic pathways?

A

It regulates the activity of enzymes to prevent overproduction of substances.

73
Q

Multiple Choice: Which type of inhibitor changes the shape of the enzyme?

A

Non-competitive inhibitor

74
Q

What happens to enzyme activity if the temperature exceeds its optimum level?

A

The enzyme may denature, leading to a decrease in activity.

75
Q

What is the primary factor that affects the rate of enzyme-controlled reactions?

A

Enzyme concentration

76
Q

True or False: Increasing substrate concentration always increases the rate of reaction.

77
Q

Fill in the blank: The optimal _____ is the temperature at which an enzyme’s activity is highest.

A

temperature

78
Q

What effect does pH have on enzyme activity?

A

Each enzyme has an optimal pH; deviations can reduce activity.

79
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following factors does NOT affect enzyme activity? A) Temperature B) pH C) Substrate concentration D) Color of the enzyme

A

D) Color of the enzyme

80
Q

What happens to enzymes at temperatures significantly above their optimal temperature?

A

They denature and lose activity.

81
Q

Define ‘enzyme substrate complex’.

A

The temporary complex formed when an enzyme binds to its substrate.

82
Q

True or False: Competitive inhibitors increase the rate of enzyme reactions.

83
Q

What is the role of coenzymes in enzyme reactions?

A

They assist enzymes by transferring specific atoms or functional groups.

84
Q

Short Answer: Name one way to measure the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction.

A

By measuring the amount of product formed over time.

86
Q

What is the main purpose of the required practical investigating the effect of a named variable on the rate of enzyme activity?

A

To determine how changes in a specific variable affect the rate at which enzymes catalyze reactions.

87
Q

True or False: Enzymes are affected by temperature, pH, and substrate concentration.

88
Q

Fill in the blank: The variable that is systematically changed in an experiment is called the _____ variable.

A

independent

89
Q

What is the dependent variable in an experiment investigating enzyme activity?

A

The rate of the enzymatic reaction.

90
Q

Which enzyme is commonly used in experiments to investigate the effect of temperature on enzyme activity?

91
Q

Multiple Choice: Which factor would likely increase the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction? A) Lowering the temperature B) Increasing substrate concentration C) Decreasing pH

A

B) Increasing substrate concentration

92
Q

What is the effect of extreme pH levels on enzyme activity?

A

Extreme pH levels can denature enzymes, leading to a decrease in activity.

93
Q

Short Answer: Name one method to measure the rate of enzyme activity.

A

Measuring the volume of product formed over time.

94
Q

True or False: Each enzyme has an optimal temperature at which it works best.

95
Q

What is the term for a substance that increases the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction without being consumed?

96
Q

what is phosphorylation

A

addition of a phosphate
makes substrates more reactive
can change active site of an enzyme so it is complementary to the substrate ( activates enzyme )