Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Determinants of Health > Biological Determinants of Health - Session 1 > Flashcards

Biological Determinants of Health - Session 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is an emerging infectious disease?

A

a previously unrecognized infectious disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a reemerged infectious disease?

A

IDs that were one under control, but now are not, such as drug resistant and XDR versions of TB, cholera, dengue, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What kind of virus is Zika?

A

a flavivirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What family of viruses does Zika come from?

A

Flaviviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the vector of the Zika virus?

A

arthropods, primarily ticks and mosquitos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some examples of viruses carried by mosquitos?

A

Yellow Fever, Dengue, West Nile, Zika

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When was Zika first identified in humans, and where?

A

1952 in many parts of Africa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where did Zika spread after Africa?

A

Asia, and then eventually Brazil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When did the outbreak of Zika hit Brazil?

A

March 2015, declared a PH Emergency on Feb 2016

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why was Zika declared a public health emergency?

A

An association between Zika, microcephaly, and other neurological disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are two ways Zika can be transmitted?

A

Through the mosquito vector and from mother to baby during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the symptoms of Zika?

A

fever, rash, joint pain, and conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which mosquito carries and transmits Zika?

A

Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is one severe side effect of Zika in adults?

A

Gillian-Barre syndrome, an autoimmune response that attacks the nervous system, causing weakness of muscles and in some cases paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some public health interventions for Zika? 5

A

Travel advisories, protection from mosquitos, reproductive health, screening and monitoring , research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where did Ebola come from?

A

A single zoonotic transmission event where a boy was infected from a bat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When did the worst of the Ebola outbreak begin?

A

December 2013

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What’s the viral reservoir of Ebola?

A

fruit bats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What makes ebola so virulent?

A

majority of patients are unable to develop sufficient immune responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the mechanism of the ebola virus?

A

It blocks INF interferon, who’s job is to prevent viral infection and induce other immune cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does Ebola infect after interferon?

A

Macrophages and monocytes, releasing large amounts of cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the result of cytokine release in Ebola infection?

A

Increases permeability of blood vessels, and recruits more macrophages to maximize the number of cells Ebola infects, and then the coagulation cascade is activated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What causes death in Ebola?

A

hypovolemic shock from massive hemorrhage, or from catastrophe thrombosis, the formation of blood clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How can Ebola spread?

A

person to person with direct contact with body fluids of an infected person, including blood, stool, vomit, urine, saliva, semen, and breast milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Can Ebola be transmitted through fomites?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Can Ebola be transmitted through air?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are some public health interventions for Ebola?

A

early diagnosis, contact tracing, patient isolation and care, infection control during burial, reduce wildlife to human transmission, reduce human to human transmission, outbreak containment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Related specific microbes to specifc diseases, and the concept of contagiousness

A

Robert koch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Koch’s postulates

A

Bacteria has to be present in every case of disease, bacteria must be isolate from host and grown in pure culture, the specific disease has to be reproduced iff a pure culture is inoculated into a healthy susceptible host, bacteria must then be recovered from the experimentally infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how is the microbiome acquired

A

originally after birth from the vaginal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What relationship does the microbiome have with humans

A

protective and symbiotic relationship, protection through nutrients, immunity, and barrier/protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

microbes that can cause host damage

A

pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

the ability of a microbe to cause damage

A

virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are some ways microbes can enter the body to cause an infection?

A

respiratory tract, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, skin, mucous membranes, bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How are microbes transmitted to people?

A

direct contact, indirect contact, soil, water, animal, bugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Infection that spreads from person to person

A

communicable disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Infection that spreads very easily from person to person

A

contagious disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

an infection by a microbe that results in an expression of illness

A

symptomatic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

colonization of the body by a microbe that does not cause symtoms

A

asymptomatic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

a usually commensal microbe that can cause infection in someone with a weakened immune respone

A

opportunistic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

infection limited to a small area of the body

A

local infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

infection found throughout the body

A

systemic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

infection that develops rapidly and lasts briefly

A

acute infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

infection that develops slowly and lasts a long time

A

chronic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

an inactive infection which can become active and produce symptoms in the future

A

latent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

isolated case, a disease that occurs in a single case or scattered cases

A

sporadic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

someone who has the virus but no clinical manifestations of the disease

A

asymptomatic carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

disease at a rate that substantially exceeds what is expected based on the norm

A

epidemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

termination of all transmission of an infection by the extermination of the infectious agent

A

eradication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

the eradication of an infectious agent from a large geographic region

A

elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

an epidemic that become worldwide

A

pandemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

amount of time between infection and symptom onset

A

incubation period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

how is tuberculosis spread?

A

droplet nuclei expelled when person with infectious B coughs, sneezes, speaks, or sings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

can transmission how TB happen from someone with a latent infection?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what determines a TB infection?

A

infectiousness, environment, duration or exposure, and virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

how many of those with TB infection get active disease?

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How many of those with latent infection will go on to become actively infected?

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Why screen for Tb?

A

find people with latent Tb who would benefit from treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

derived from substances that are made by microorganisms and kill or inhibit other microorganisms

A

antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what structures do antibiotics target?

A

structures unique to bacterial structures, including cell wall, ribosomes, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

4 mechanisms of bacterial resistance

A

destroy the antibiotic, modify the antibiotic, pump out antibiotic, mutate the target sructure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

MRSA

A

methicillin resistant staph auras - usually harmless but can become infectious if enters a break in the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

a version of MRSA that can be transmitted outside of the hospital, and is associated with severe infctions, though it is less resistant to antibiotics

A

Community acquired MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is MRSA’s virulence dependent on?

A

virulence factors that both enhance its ability to attach and incite host cells and inhibit the immune systemm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How is antibiotic resistance transferred from one bacteria to another

A

horizontal gene transfer through transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the range of the Aedes mosquito?

A

Tropical areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

isolated infections - occur in a single or scattered case

A

sporadic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

examples of a sporadic infection

A

pneumococcal pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

refers to the constant underlying presence of a disease in an area

A

endemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

an example of an endemic disease

A

malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

a disease that appears above the normal levels, and substantially exceeds those levels

A

epidemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What’s an example of an epidemic disease?

A

smallpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When an epidemic goes global

A

pandemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What’s an example of a pandemic?

A

H1N1

75
Q

Why has there been a measles outbreak in the US?

A

families delay or don’t vaccinate their kids

76
Q

When did Measles get reintroduced in the US?

A

late 2014 early 2015 outbreak in Disney

77
Q

What are some reasons parents choose not to vaccinate?

A

complacency, internet, preservatives, autism, concerns of overwhelming the immune system

78
Q

the public health concept that if large enough members are vaccinated, a measure of protection is given to the sensitive population by blocking widespread infection

A

heard immunity

79
Q

What reasons do some children need to remain unvaccinated even though they are highly susceptible to measles?

A

Immunocompromised, or too young to receive the vaccine

80
Q

What virus does measles come from?

A

Rubeola

81
Q

Symptoms of measles

A

fever, runny nose, cough, red eyes, sore throat, followed by a rash

82
Q

Why is measles so contagious?

A

virus is viable in the air for 2 hours, long latency period, sickness lasts a week

83
Q

How is measles treated?

A

supportive care, and vitamin A suplemnets, rehydration, and antibiotics for eye and ear infections, as well as to prevent against pneumonia

84
Q

What are the two parts of the immune system

A

innate and acquired

85
Q

The primitive, non-specific, but fast acting part of the immune system

A

innate

86
Q

the part that is more specific to particular organisms, involves antibodies, and is slower to act in the immune system

A

adaptive/acquired immune system

87
Q

What are the two main cell classes in the adaptive immune system?

A

T and B cells which respond to specific threat

88
Q

A group of signaling proteins that are released by a cell infected with a virus that signals for response of neighboring cells to stem the infection

A

INFs or interferons

89
Q

Respond to viral infections - in B cells, they secrete antibodies that neutralize the bacteria or virus, and the other is a cell-mediated response where the T cells kill the virus-infected cells

A

Lymptocytes

90
Q

How does the immunity response change as the infection progresses?

A

Initial immune response is the innate immunity (IgM), and then the acquired immunity comes later and lasts longer (IgG)

91
Q

How can we acquire immunity to some diseases?

A

memory B cells are immediately activated upon a secondary exposure

92
Q

Which cells are the basis for vaccines?

A

memory B

93
Q

Why do we need the innate immunity?

A

it takes time for the required immune response to build up - in the mean time we need a fast-acting response

94
Q

What are the two arms of the adaptive immune system?

A

B (humoral) and T (cellular) cells

95
Q

What do B-cells do?

A

For the most part, they make antibodies that bind to the pathogen and flag the pathogen for destruction by the macrophages

96
Q

What are the 4 steps of phagocytosis?

A

chemoattraction, adherence, ingestion, destruction

97
Q

How do vaccines work?

A

expose individuals to a weakened or killed pathogen so an immune response is created, so that if an actual exposure occurs, the immune system readily response to the exposure

98
Q

Vaccine type that contains a weakened version of the living virus - effective, but immunoupressed can’t get them

A

live, attenuated vaccines

99
Q

What type of vaccine is MMR?

A

live, attenuated

100
Q

What type of vaccine is varicella?

A

live, attenuated

101
Q

What type of vaccine is oral polio?

A

live, attenuate

102
Q

An killed virus is used in the vaccine - usually you need more than one dose to produce and maintain immunity

A

inactivated vaccines

103
Q

What is the inactivated polio vaccine’s vaccine type?

A

innactivated

104
Q

What type of vaccine is whole pertussis?

A

inactivated

105
Q

Vaccine that only has parts of the virus or bacteria and not the entire organism - has fewest number of side effects

A

subunit

106
Q

What kind of vaccine is cellular pertussis?

A

subunit vaccine

107
Q

Vaccine that contains weakened toxins so the body can fight off the natural toxin?

A

toxoid vaccine

108
Q

What type of vaccine is DTap?

A

toxoid - contains diphtheria and tetanus toxoids

109
Q

Vaccine that fight bacteria with sugar like coating?

A

conjugate

110
Q

What type of vaccine is Haemophilus influenza type B?

A

conjugate

111
Q

recombine pathogens so that it appears to be the dangerous pathogen, but acts like a more benign pathogen

A

recombinant vector vaccine

112
Q

Name two examples of passive immunity

A

antibodies passed from mother to baby through placenta or breastmilk, or antibodies to a particular antigen injected after a known or suspected infection (rabies)

113
Q

Non-living particles that contain a nucleic acid, coat protein, and a lipid envelop in some cases - cannot live outside of a host cell

A

Viruses

114
Q

explain how DNA viruses replicate

A

uses the host cell machinery to synthesize viral DNA. the viral DNA enters the nucleus to make RNA to code for viral proteins, then this is packaged for spread to other cells

115
Q

explain how +ssRNA viruses replicate

A

have genomes that ae like mRNA, that can used directly to make viral proteins

116
Q

how are retroviruses different?

A

they are a +ssRNA that brings in reverse DNA Pol to convert their RNA into DNA, and they inset into the the host genome

117
Q

Why is it harder for us to get immune to the common cold, rhinovirus?

A

It;s a non enveloped virus with over 100 serotypes, so each cold is a new virus

118
Q

How does the immune system respond to virus?

A

initial immune response includes fever, resulting from mast cells and macrophages, which helps fight infection by slowing the rate of viral reproduction

119
Q

What are some ways to reduce the spread of viruses?

A

cover mouth or nose when sneezing or coughing, wash hands, avoid contact with other’s bodily fluids

120
Q

What type of virus is the influenza?

A

-ssRNA virus in the family orthomyxoviridae

121
Q

How many single strand RNA segments does the influenza virus have?

A

8

122
Q

What are the two major glycoproteins on the surface of influenza a?

A

hemagglutinin and nauraminidase

123
Q

involves different strains of viruses combining to make a new virus to create a very sudden, large change that can lead to a pandemic

A

antigenic shift

124
Q

strains defined by tiny differences between subtypes

A

Antigenic drift

125
Q

How does antigenic drift occur?

A

occurs through mutations that arise since RNA viruses can’t fix their mutations

126
Q

Which strain of influenza causes disease in humans?

A

A

127
Q

How many subtypes of hemagglutinin in influenza are there?

A

15

128
Q

How mnay subtypes of hemaglutinin in influenze are there?

A

9

129
Q

What are the two most common subtypes of influenza A?

A

H1N1 and H3N2

130
Q

How do we know what influenza vaccine to make?

A

We monitor and predict which strain of flu will show up and make vaccines accordingly

131
Q

How does untreated HIV lead to AIDS?

A

it slowly destroys the immune system and CD4+ T helper cells, meaning the immune system is severely weakened and can’t fight off normally harmless organisms (opportunistic infections)

132
Q

What cells does HIV infect and wipe out?

A

CD4+ T helper cells

133
Q

What does the CD4+ cell do?

A

regulates the immune response to an infection

134
Q

What are the modes of transmission of HIV?

A

sexual contact or blood exposure or milk exposure to someone infected with HIV

135
Q

What are some ways that transmission can be prevented?

A

prevent MTC transmission through c-sections and by not breastfeeding, use antiretrovirals to reduce viral blood load to undetectable, postexposure prophylaxis, pre-exposure prophylaxis

136
Q

Why did stress evolve?

A

mechanism to react rapidly to danger - fight or flight

137
Q

Where does the stress response begin?

A

amygdala - emotion processing part of the brain

138
Q

Where does the amygdala send the stress signal?

A

the hypothalamus, which is the comment center

139
Q

the autonomic system we can’t consciously control

A

sympathetic nervous system

140
Q

What does the hypothalamus active?

A

sympathetic nervous system

141
Q

What does the HPA axis release during a stress response??

A

cortisol - keeps the body on high alert

142
Q

What does cortisol do?

A

increases glucose in bloodstream, and update in nervous system, raises BP, surpasses immune, digestive, reproductive, and growth systems

143
Q

homeostasis, or maintaining stability through change

A

allostasis

144
Q

the wear and tea that the body experiences due to repeated cycles of allostasis turning on or shutting off cortisol responses

A

allostatic load

145
Q

how many pairs of chromosomes do we have?

A

23

146
Q

Griffith experiment

A

transforming factor which turned nonvirulent strains virulent in the presence of heat killed virulent strains

147
Q

Hershey Chase experiment

A

used bacteriophages and labeled phosphorous and suffer to discover that DNA was the genetic material

148
Q

heritable modifiactions that change gene expression but do not change the sequence

A

epigenetics

149
Q

what are three epigenetic systems

A

DNA methylation, histone modication, and non-coding RNA

150
Q

a disease of high blood glucose levels

A

diabetes mellitus

151
Q

occurs when individuals make little or no insulin, the hormone that control blood glucose levels

A

Type 1 diabetes

152
Q

occurs in individuals who make insufficient insulin or whose cells resist insulin

A

Type 2 diabetes

153
Q

a group of risk factors that include, Type 2 diabetes, high blood pressure, excess abdominal fat, and high cholesterol that in combination increase the risk of heart disease and stroke

A

metabolic syndrome

154
Q

lowers blood glucose levels, secreted from beta cells from the pancreas

A

insulin

155
Q

raises blood glucose levels, is secreted from the alpha cells from the pancreas

A

glucagon

156
Q

the form of diabetes that is an autoimmune response

A

type 1

157
Q

why does insulin not necessarily work for Type 2 diabetes?

A

cells lose their ability to respond to insulin

158
Q

how does insulin work?

A

insulin increases glucose uptake by getting more GLUT transporters to the cells membrane when blood glucose levels are high

159
Q

what does hyperglycemia result in?

A

microvascular disease, and microvascular complications

160
Q

why is diabetes a public health concern?

A

85% of diabetics have type 2, more common as we age, and increasing in every country, including low and middle income

161
Q

What are the primary risk factors for diabetes?

A

physical inactivity, cigarette smoking, alcohol, obesity

162
Q

what are the two basic types of malnutrition?

A

protein-energy and micronutrient

163
Q

the lack of enough proteins and carbs that defines hunger

A

protein-energy malnutrition

164
Q

insufficient vitamins and minerals

A

micronutrient deficiency

165
Q

results from a severe and often sudden lack of food, or disease. results in a child actually digesting their own muscle for energy

A

wasting

166
Q

a child who is too small for their age because they have not developed properly

A

stunting

167
Q

What are some reasons there is still food scarcity?

A

nature, war, poverty trap, agricultural infrastructure, over-exploitation, and distribution of local resources

168
Q

characterized by protein deficiency, generalized by bloating and edema

A

Kwashiokor

169
Q

characterized by extreme wasting from not getting enough calorie intake

A

marasmus

170
Q

What is the relationship between malnutrition and disease?

A

malnutrition exacerbates other disease

171
Q

primary source of energy

A

carbs

172
Q

how are carbs broken down?

A

polysaccharides into oligosaccharides, then disaccharides, then smile sugars, glucose, galactose, and fructose

173
Q

where does glucose go when we eat it?

A

pancreas B cells, which release insulin

174
Q

What are the 3 simple sugars we can use?

A

glucose, galactose, and fructose

175
Q

What are some issues with fructose?

A

less sweet, so we use more, but no insulin responses, so our appetite is not surpassed, and fructose can only be taken up in the liver, excess fructose is concerted into triglycerides in the liver (converted to fat)

176
Q

elements we need for metabolic processes

A

minerals

177
Q

the most common and widespread nutritional disorder - causes anemia because this mineral is needed in hemmaglutin

A

ion

178
Q

mineral responsible for maintaining a strong immune system and promoting good health, as well as growth and develop,eat

A

zinc

179
Q

what is the role of fat in the diet?

A

most energetic food - stored and then broken down slowly

180
Q

suppress autoimmune response, lower LDL and CVD

A

essential fatty acids

181
Q

mineral used in the thymus to produce t3 and t4 hormones the control body’s metabolism and prevents in utero complications

A

iodine

182
Q

important in preventing blindness, anemia, and infections

A

vitamin a

183
Q

involved in carbon metabolism, and dan synthesis, and especially important when fetus is rapidly growing - low amounts associated with spina bifida

A

folate

184
Q

how was the green revolution affected hunger?

A

more people can be fed using oderninzed farming and GMA crops

Determinants of Health (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions