Biological and Biochemical Foundations Score 122 Flashcards

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1
Q

What contributes to Cerebal edema?

A

Cerebral edema is the accumulation of fluid in the brain. Increased cerebral blood flow. Increased cerebrospinal fluid. Increased serum glucose.

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2
Q

What is ketogenesis?

A

Ketogenesis is the biochemical process through which organisms produce ketone bodies through breakdown of fatty acids and ketogenic amino acids. This process supplies energy under circumstances such as fasting or caloric restriction to certain organs, particularly the brain, heart and skeletal muscle. It can be triggered by a severe insulin deficiency.

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3
Q

What are some common things seen as an effect of diabetic ketoacidosis?

A
  1. Decrease in plasma pH
  2. Increased plasma fatty acid concentration.
  3. Cells won’t have an accumulation of intracellular glucose
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4
Q

When is NADH most likely used?

A

NADH is often utilized as a cofactor in both catabolic and anabolic reactions as a hydrogen donor. Look for added hydrogens.

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5
Q

What is the relative risk ratio?

A

The relative risk (RR) ratio provides us with meaningful information as to whether or not there is an increased risk associated with a given condition and the occurrence of an event. In order to be statistically meaningful, both the RR and lower bound of the confidence interval (CI) must exceed 1

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6
Q

What is the effect of Increasing the osmotic pressure of serum plasma?

A

Increasing the osmotic pressure of serum plasma (by administration of hypertonic saline) would pull fluid from the brain into the bloodstream where it can be excreted

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7
Q

What is the effect of Increasing cellular electrolyte uptake in central nervous system neurons?

A

it would increase the osmotic pressure of the intracellular compartment, increasing cellular uptake of electrolytes would most likely increase the accumulation of fluid in the brain

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8
Q

What is the effect of Decreasing generation of ketone bodies?

A

Administration of insulin will result in the down-regulation of both lipolysis and ketogenesis, decreasing the generation of ketone bodies

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9
Q

What is antigenic?

A

Antigenic molecules can cause antibody production

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10
Q

What is amphipathic?

A

Detergents are amphipathic (or amphiphilic) molecules because they are both hydrophilic and hydrophobic

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11
Q

What is Amphoteric?

A

Amphoteric molecules can act as either acids or bases. Examples of amphoteric molecules are amino acids (due to their amino and carboxyl ends) or bicarbonate (HCO3–) which neutralizes stomach acid in the duodenum and functions as a blood buffer

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12
Q

What is allosteric.?

A

Allosteric regulators are small molecules that can bind to allosteric sites on enzymes and control their activity

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13
Q

How does E.coli grow best?

A

37 degrees. If bacteria are growing in liquid culture, they must be continuously shaken to ensure proper mixing and distribution of nutrients, and to provide a constant oxygen supply.

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14
Q

What is a true statement about RNAase?

A

It contains peptide bonds and is degraded non-specifically in strong acid conditions. RNAase is an enzyme that degrades RNA by breaking the phosphodiester bonds in the RNA backbone. Enzymes are proteins and are therefore made of amino acids connected by a covalent peptide bond. Proteins are degraded specifically by proteases and nonspecifically in strong acid conditions or extreme temperatures. Enzymes increase the rate of the reaction by decreasing the activation energy in a reaction and are not consumed in the reaction, but are regenerated

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15
Q

What does myelination of nerves do?

A

Myelination speeds up nerve conduction by allowing action potentials to “skip over” myelinated regions of the neuron; these action potentials are instead transmitted between the nodes of Ranvier on the axon. Demyelination due to illness slows nerve conduction enough that a patient would have difficulty contracting the diaphragm. An action potential, once initiated, is “all or none”; it cannot have a large or small amplitude

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16
Q

What does methylation of DNA do?

A

Methylation of DNA (called imprinting) and methylation of histones with subsequent heterochromatin formation can both silence gene expression

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17
Q

What is RNA interference?

A

is a posttranscriptional method of regulating gene expression.RNAi is mediated by siRNA (small interfering RNA) or miRNA (micro RNA). These small non-coding RNAs bind to complementary sequences on mRNA and the resulting double stranded RNA is degraded. The reduction in mRNA leads to a reduction in the gene product

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18
Q

What is the promoter region?

A

the promoter is just the binding site for RNA pol; the start point of transcription is located downstream from the promoter, and typically the regulatory regions for repressor/enhancer binding are between them

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19
Q

What is the boiling point temp of a substance?

A

The boiling point temperature of a substance is the temperature at which its vapor pressure equals the atmospheric pressure. If the atmospheric pressure is lowered, the substance will boil when its vapor pressure is lower, i.e., at a lower temperature

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20
Q

How can you change an equilibrium constant (K)?

A

The only way of changing the value of an equilibrium constant, K, and therefore a value like pKb, is to change the temperature

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21
Q

How does the solubility of a gas change when pressure is changed?

A

The solubility of a gas decreases with decreasing pressure

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22
Q

How is the solubility of a compound affected when Ksp changes?

A

The solubility of a compound increases as Ksp for that compound increases. More moles of the Zn(OH)2 will be dissolved than Fe(OH)2 in the starting solutions based on Ksp values.
Zn(OH)2 1.8 x 10–14
Fe(OH)2 1.1 × 10–14

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23
Q

What is the dissociation equation for a compound?

A

M(OH)2(s)—->M^2+(aq)+2OH-(aq)

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24
Q

How would adding NaOH to a solution (looking at dissociation equation) affect the equilibria?

A

M(OH)2(s)—->M^2+(aq)+2OH-(aq)
When NaOH is added, the OH– concentration is increased and we would expect the equilibria of both solutions to shift to the left as predicted by Le Chatelier’s principle (or the common ion effect).

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25
Q

What is pepsin?

A

An enzyme made in the stomach that breaks down proteins in food during digestion. Stomach acid changes a protein called pepsinogen into pepsin.

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26
Q

What are serous cells?

A

Serous cells make serous secretions, which in the salivary gland would include salivary amylase (or ptyalin) and salivary lipase.

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27
Q

What blood cells contain nuclei?

A

White blood cells contain nuclei and genetic material but not red blood cells.

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28
Q

What is a balanced translocation?

A

genetic information is neither missing nor added.

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29
Q

What is a Robertsonian translocation?

A

the parent has the majority of their genome intact, but that the long arm of their chromosome 21 has moved and has attached opposite the long arm of chromosome 14. The short arms of chromosomes 14 and 21 are lost but the passage describes how this has little effect. This would appear on the parental karyotype as a missing chromosome 21 (and an elongated chromosome 14), thus the parent would appear to have only 45 total chromosomes. When this parent has offspring, one possibility is that she will pass on her normal chromosome 21 as well as the Robertsonian chromosome (the 14:21 combination). The father of the child will pass on his normal chromosome 21, and the child will thus inherit three copies of chromosome 21.

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30
Q

What is chimerism?

A

Chimerism is described as the fusion of two non-identical zygotes early in development, and each differentiates into distinct tissues making up a single fetus. Two non-identical zygotes must have arisen from two eggs that were fertilized by two sperm

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31
Q

What is polyspermy?

A

Polyspermy is the fertilization of an egg by multiple sperm, and the results of such unions are lethal. If multiple sperm fertilize an egg, the embryo inherits multiple paternal centrioles. This causes competition for extra chromosomes and results in the disruption of the creation of the cleavage furrow, thus causing the zygote to die.

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32
Q

When does nondisjunction occur and what are the effects?

A

ANAPHASE. If a single nondisjunction event occurred in anaphase II of spermatogenesis, it would only affect two out of the four resulting gametes. The primary spermatocyte would generate two normal secondary spermatocytes. One of the secondary spermatocytes would perform normal anaphase II and would generate two normal spermatids. The secondary spermatocyte that undergoes nondisjunction in anaphase II would produce two abnormal spermatids, one that would fertilize an egg to cause trisomy and another that would fertilize an egg and cause monosomy. Thus, the probability of Down syndrome occurring if nondisjunction occurred in anaphase II of spermatogenesis would be 25%. If the nondisjunction event occurred in anaphase I, both secondary spermatocytes would be affected and all four spermatids would be affected; two would generate zygotes with trisomy and two would generate zygotes with monosomy. Thus, the probability of Down syndrome occurring if nondisjunction occurs in anaphase I is 50%

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33
Q

What does GnRH do and what is it?

A

Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone. GnRH travels from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary to have its effect. The hypothalamus is connected to the anterior pituitary via a portal system, which is a series of two capillary beds placed in sequence. This system allows hormones such as GnRH that have been released into the blood by the hypothalamus to be rapidly taken up by the anterior pituitary before they circulate around the rest of the body, during which time they might degrade. the anterior pituitary does not contain nerve axons from the hypothalamus

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34
Q

How do diabetes drugs work?

A

When cells are resistant to insulin, glucose stays in the blood. Over time, high blood sugar levels can cause damage to the kidneys, the eyes, and blood vessels, in addition to other side effects. Diabetes drugs work to reduce blood sugar by assisting in the movement of glucose out of the blood and into cells

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35
Q

What is glycogenolysis?

A

Glycogenolysis is a process via which the liver releases glucose into the bloodstream in response to low blood sugar levels; increasing glycogenolysis would increase blood sugar levels, rather than lower them

36
Q

What is the role of cortisol for blood sugar?

A

One of the roles of cortisol is to increase blood sugar levels, so increasing cortisol would also lead to increased, not decreased, blood sugar levels

37
Q

How does glucagon affect blood sugar?

A

the release of glucagon does increase blood sugar levels, and therefore suppressing its release would lower blood glucose levels, the release of glucagon is likely already suppressed in an individual with diabetes as blood sugar levels are already quite high. Suppressing glucagon further is not likely to improve this condition as much as a drug that targets the main problem, insulin resistance

38
Q

What does an increase in estrogen do?

A

Women with PCOS have high levels of estrogen and are not ovulating, thus the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is disrupted. Because of the failure to ovulate, the corpus luteum (the only source of progesterone during the menstrual cycle) never develops, thus women with PCOS have very low levels of progesterone

39
Q

What does an increase in testosterone do?

A

Increased levels of testosterone lead to hirsutism (increased male secondary sex characteristics such as facial hair)

40
Q

What problems can increased blood sugar cause?

A

Increased blood sugar levels can lead to a host of complications such as renal failure, blindness, impaired wound healing, and increased risk of myocardial infarction

41
Q

What is the role of luteinizing hormone in men?

A

Induce the interstitial (or Leydig) cells to produce testosterone

42
Q

What are sustentacular (Sertoli) cells stimulated by?

A

The sustentacular (Sertoli) cells are stimulated by FSH to assist in the process of spermatogenesis

43
Q

What does inhibin do?

A

is secreted by the sustentacular cells to inhibit FSH release; this suppresses further spermatogenesis

44
Q

What is the point of attachment for nucleotides to add to DNA and RNA?

A

3’ OH group. Nucleotides in both DNA and RNA possess a 3’-OH which serve as a point of attachment for additional nucleotides during replication and transcription. These bonds between nucleotides are known as phosphodiester bonds. The inclusion of a 2’-OH group in RNA results in decreased stability, making it more susceptible to hydrolysis, not less

45
Q

Addition of reactants to an equilibrated system will result in what change of Keq?

A

do not vary with reagent concentration

46
Q

Addition of reactants to an equilibrated system will result in what change of delta G knot?

A

do not vary with reagent concentration. ΔG°’ specifies a specific set of reagent concentrations, temperature, and pressure.

47
Q

Addition of reactants to an equilibrated system will result in what change of delta G?

A

Addition of a reactant (or a product) would change the ΔG for that reaction. The relationship between ΔG°’ and ΔG is described by the equation ΔG = ΔG°’ + RT ln Q. Given that Q changes with reagent concentration, ΔG must also change. As ΔG°’ specifies a specific set of reagent concentrations, temperature, and pressure.

48
Q

Addition of reactants to an equilibrated system will result in what change of the rate constant k?

A

do not vary with reagent concentration

49
Q

What is Osmotic pressure?

A

Osmotic pressure is a colligative property, and therefore is not affected by the charge of the molecules, but rather by the number of particles dissolved in the solvent. Since the proteins are trapped within the blood vessels, their elevated concentration would induce flow of water into the blood

50
Q

What is a parietal cell?

A

an oxyntic (acid-secreting) cell of the stomach wall.

51
Q

What does Activation of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system do?

A

Activating the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system would further increase heart rate and hypertension. Sympathetic Nervous System This division of autonomic nervous system is responsible for controlling fight or flight response. It controls the involuntary responses of the body when a person is in some serious situation. The sympathetic responses prepare the body to deal with some fight or flight conditions

52
Q

What is a transition?

A

Transitions are the substitution of a purine with a purine or a pyrimidine with a pyrimidine

53
Q

What is a transversion?

A

is the substitution of a purine with a pyrimidine or the reverse.

54
Q

What is a point mutation?

A

a mutation affecting only one or very few nucleotides in a gene sequence.Point mutations can have a significant impact on the function of a protein if they occur in an intron or an exon. Of the examples provided, the substitution of UAA for UAG will be least likely to influence the structure of a protein as both codons are stop codons

55
Q

What is porphyria?

A

Disorders resulting from buildup of certain chemicals related to red blood cell proteins.
Porphyria is a group of disorders caused by an overaccumulation of porphyrin which helps hemoglobin, the protein that carries oxygen in the blood.

56
Q

What is the effect of constriction of the efferent arteriole?

A

Constriction of the efferent arteriole will restrict the flow of blood out of the glomerulus and result in increased pressure within the glomerulus. This would increase GFR. The efferent arterioles are blood vessels that are part of the urinary tract of organisms. Efferent (from Latin ex + ferre) means “outgoing”, in this case meaning carrying blood out away from the glomerulus.

57
Q

What is GFR?

A

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is a test used to check how well the kidneys are working. Specifically, it estimates how much blood passes through the glomeruli each minute. An increase in GFR would result in more filtrate passing through the nephron, and increased loss of sodium

58
Q

What conditions would reduce ATP synthesis in the mitochondria?

A

A reduced transport of ADP into the mitochondria would mean that less ADP is available to the ATP synthase for phosphorylation to ATP. Since NADH and FADH2 are both substrates of the electron transport chain (ETC), high levels of these substances would tend to stimulate the ETC and increase ATP production. High pH in the matrix (low [H+]) and low pH in the intermembrane space (high [H+]) are the expected condition. This is the gradient that drives proton flow through the ATP synthase back into the mitochondrial matrix, leading to ATP production

59
Q

What is a (+) RNA virus?

A

All (+)RNA viruses have infective genomes because the genome acts like mRNA and can be immediately translated to produce viral proteins

60
Q

What is a retrovirus?

A

A retrovirus is a type of (+)RNA virus that undergoes the lysogenic cycle

61
Q

What is a (-) RNA virus?

A

(–)RNA viral genomes are not immediately infective. The (–)RNA must be converted to (+)RNA by an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (this enzyme must be carried by the virus and encoded in the viral genome) to generate mRNA that can be translated to make viral proteins. If the genome (and only the genome) of a (–)RNA virus enters a cell or is combined with active host cell extracts, nothing will happen. If RNA-dependent RNA polymerase is added, the genome will then be infective and viral progeny will form

62
Q

What is the difference in ATP yield between eukaryotes and prokaryotes and when does it occur?

A

The difference occurs in the electron transport chain and is 2 ATP. The difference in ATP yield between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is 2, with prokaryotes producing 32 ATP and eukaryotes producing 30 ATP. In prokaryotes, the 2 NADH produced in glycolysis have direct access to the cell membrane where the electron transport chain occurs. However in eukaryotes, the electrons from glycolytic NADH must be transported into the mitochondria before they can enter the electron transport chain; furthermore they do not begin their interaction with the ETC until its second protein (coenzyme Q. Glycolysis has the same output in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

63
Q

What is a Thioester formation?

A

formation of a bond between a cysteine residue, containing a thiol (R—SH) functional group, and ubiquitin’s C-terminus, containing a carboxyl group. A reaction between a thiol and carboxylic acid will produce a thioester

64
Q

What is a Transesterification?

A

Transesterification involves a nucleophilic addition-elimination between an ester and an alcohol

65
Q

What is a Disulfide bond formation?

A

Disulfide bond formation involves the oxidation of two thiol groups to form a disulfide bridge

66
Q

What is an Aldol condensation?

A

An aldol condensation reaction involves the addition of an enolate to a ketone or aldehyde resulting in the formation of an α,β-unsaturated carbonyl compound

67
Q

Which area of the brain would most directly be involved with ‘image-forming vision’?

A

Visual information travels from the retina to the thalamus to the visual cortex in the occipital lobes

68
Q

What is the hypothalamus involved in?

A

The hypothalamus is involved with emotion, autonomic function, and hormone release

69
Q

What are the Parietal Lobes involved in?

A

involved in general sensation including touch and gustation(tasting)

70
Q

What are the basal nuclei involved in?

A

motor control

71
Q

What is melanopsin?

A

Melanopsin, like rhodopsin, is a photopigment which aids in the conversion of a photon into an electrical response in photoreceptors. If melanopsin is responsible for the activation of Gq, it will cause the exchange of bound GDP for GTP on the alpha subunit, resulting in the dissociation of the subunit

72
Q

How does a G-protein coupled receptor work?

A

If melanopsin is responsible for the activation of Gq, it will cause the exchange of bound GDP for GTP on the alpha subunit, resulting in the dissociation of the subunit. The ultimate hydrolysis of GTP by the alpha subunit will result in its deactivation

73
Q

What is a sign conserving synapse?

A

a “sign-conserving” synapse is one in which the polarity of the response is maintained (e.g., depolarization of the presynaptic cell results in depolarization of the post synaptic cell

74
Q

What is a sign inverting synapse?

A

a “sign-inverting” synapse reverses the polarity of the response.

75
Q

What does a decrease in action potential firing rate indicate?

A

A decrease in action potential firing rate likely indicates a hyperpolarization of the cell in response to S-cone activation. This could be accomplished several ways, including opening of chloride channels to allow for an influx of chloride. A decrease in resting potassium permeability would lead to a depolarization (as more potassium is retained in the cells); this would increase the likelihood of firing an action potential

76
Q

What is an H1 Receptor?

A

H1 receptors are integral/transmembrane proteins that are found on the cell’s membrane. All protein translation begins in the cytoplasm. If the protein being translated has a specific signal sequence, it will undergo the secretory pathway. All integral/transmembrane proteins undergo the secretory pathway. Integral/transmembrane proteins have hydrophobic transmembrane sequences that are part of the functional protein. The H1 receptor is not a peripheral protein since it is permanently attached to the membrane and spans the membrane to carry the signal to the cell interior. Further, it does not bind any of the hydrophobic hormones. It binds histamine, an amino acid derivative.

77
Q

What is hypotension?

A

Low blood pressure

78
Q

What is urticaria?

A

hives

79
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

inflammation of the brain

80
Q

What does Erythropoietin do?

A

Stimulates production of red blood cells

81
Q

What does adrenocorticotropic hormone do?

A

It stimulates the release of cortisol, a potent anti-inflammatory agent, which could help control hives and itching

82
Q

What occurs in interphase and when does interphase occur?

A

Interphase occurs before and after PMAT. Comprised of G1 phase, S phase and then G2 phase. The zygote and the morula are approximately the same size; this means that the earliest cell divisions after fertilization function to increase the number of cells but not the cell mass. The cells therefore spend little time in G1 or G2. but must still complete DNA replication in S-phase and mitosis.

83
Q

What does a condensation reaction produce?

A

Water and forms bonds.

84
Q

What does a hydrolysis reaction produce?

A

Use water and breaks bonds.

85
Q

What is formed from the catabolization of proteins and amino acids?

A

Deamination of amino acids in the liver and kidneys, to form α-keto acids and ammonia. The carbon backbone (or α-keto acid) is recycled into other metabolic pathways, and ammonia is converted to urea (not uric acid) in the liver then excreted by the kidney. Uric acid is a product of the metabolic breakdown of purine nucleotides, not amino acids

86
Q

α-Helices and β-sheets are part of a protein’s:

A

secondary structure and arise from hydrogen-bonding interactions

87
Q

What is responsible for tertiary structure?

A

Hydrophobic interactions are primarily responsible for the folding observed in the tertiary strcuture of proteins