Biol 123- Infection and Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

viruses, bacteria, fungi + parasites are all infectious agents. which cause acute infections + which cause chronic?

A

viruses, bacteria + fungi typically cause acute infections (short-term + will go away with help of the immune system).
parasites, e.g. protozoa + worms, cause chronic ones (unable to clear the pathogen).

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2
Q

protozoa (protists) + worms (helminths) are both examples of parasites, what’s the main difference?

A

Worms are an example of multi-cellular pathogens as opposed to unicellular protozoa.

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3
Q

what is symbiosis?

A

‘living together’
an interaction between 2 different organisms living in close physical association

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4
Q

organisms can be mutualistic, commensal or parasitic- under different conditions, hosts, etc. what is the difference between these symbioses?

A

e.g. here, we are organism 2 + the various bacteria are organism 2.

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5
Q

what is parasitism?

A

a relationship between 2 species in which 1 species benefits + the other is harmed

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6
Q

describe + explain the stages of infectious disease (4)

A

incubation period: time between infection + the occurence of first symptoms, signs of disease.
prodromal period: short time of generalised, mild symptoms (fatigue, etc). when people are infected but don’t properly know it, no defined symptoms- not all infectious diseases have this stage.
illness: most severe stage when symptoms are most evident + host immune system not yet fully responded. when there is a symptom that can be described and measured in severity.
convalescence: body gradually returns to normal (variable time depending on pathogen + damage).

If we pass critical threshold, we die xxxxx

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7
Q

what is subclinical disease?

A

no symptoms, we’re unaware of being ill + infected, clear the infection without ever becoming sick.

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8
Q

what is resolution of infectious disease?

A

the point where the symptoms of infectious disease + replication of pathogens return to baseline.

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9
Q

pathogens don’t cause the same severity of disease in all infected individuals, name some factors that severity depends on (6)

A

infecting dose, host’s age, host’s biological sex, host’s genetics, host’s nutritional status, co-infection with other pathogens

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10
Q

name 1 disease that causes the same severity of infection in all infected individuals

A

rabies- 100% of people exposed become sick with clinical symptoms.
very virulent

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11
Q

the first stage of being infected is invasion- describe the 7 ways a disease can enter and be transmitted from 1 host to another + include disease examples.

A
  1. inhalation- flu (virus), covid (virus)
  2. oral transmission- ascaris (nematode), taenia solium (cestode)
  3. intra-uterine- toxoplasma (protist)
  4. sexual transmission- HIV (virus)
  5. direct skin contact- hookworms (nematode), schistosomes (trematode)
  6. direct inoculation- HIV (virus)
  7. insect bites (vectors)- plasmodium (protist), yersinia pests (bacterium), wucheria bancrofti (nematode)
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12
Q

why is it important to know disease’s route of transmission?

A

transmission of the disease influences which control measures are put in place. E.g. we would control inhaled viruses by people wearing masks, sexually transmitted stuff by anti-retroviral therapy (HIV + AIDS).

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13
Q

the 2nd stage of being infected is multiplication- describe how protists + helminths multiply in the body

A

protists: can cause disease following inoculation of only a few infectious stages, as they can multiply in vivo- disease severity may depend on how quickly they multiply
helminths: most can’t multiply in vivo + so disease severity is dependent upon the number of infectious stages acquired by the host.

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14
Q

the 3rd stage of being infected is spread- describe what it is + how developmental changes are linked

A

it is the ability of the organism to move from the initial site of infection to infect other areas in the body. also includes movement between body systems e.g. circulatory, nervous, digestive, etc.

some infectious agents also undergo developmental changes at the same time e.g. nematodes, schistosomes, Plasmodium. such changes can have implications for host immune responses e.g. stage-specific immunity.

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15
Q

the 4th stage of being infected is pathogenesis- describe what it is + the 3 main factors that influence it

A

it is causation + development of clinical disease.
1. number of pathogenic organisms present
2. organism’s virulence: direct killing of host cells (e.g. malaria), blockages within host organs (e.g. malaria), toxins (e.g. Yersinia pestis which is plague), inappropriate activity of host immune system not just pathogen (e.g. schistosomes).
3. reaction of the host- degree of resistance

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16
Q

we measure burden of disease by incidence, prevalence + mortality, what do they mean?

A

incidence- number of new cases of infection occurring in a population in a defined time period e.g. how many people were infected with this disease in 2024
prevalence- total number of infected individuals in a population at a given time e.g. how many people were infected with this disease UP TO 2024.
mortality- total number of deaths from disease in a population in a defined time period.

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17
Q

explain the change in the leading causes of death in USA, 1900 + 1997 (red ones are the ones caused by infectious agents).

A
  1. shift in population from country to city during 19th century= overcrowding in poor housing
  2. inadequate/no public water supplies + waste-disposal systems = repeated cholera, dysentery, TB, typhoid fever, flu, yellow fever, + malaria outbreaks
  3. in 1900, 30.4% of all deaths occurred among children below 5 years old; in 1997, it was 1%
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18
Q

this shows the top 10 causes of death worldwide in all sexes (2021), which disease was in the top 10 but isn’t anymore? (include stats)

A

HIV/ AIDS
deaths from HIV/ AIDS have fallen by 61%, moving from world’s 7th leading cause of death in 2000, the 21st in 2021.

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19
Q

this shows causes of death in low income countries, how would it look different for high-income countries?

A

wayyyy more non-communicable (non-infectious) diseases, and less infectious + injury

for LIC’s, infectious diseases still have major impact on health

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20
Q

how many death have COVID caused in 2021?

A

8.8 mill

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21
Q

are people in LIC’s more likely to die from communicable or non-communicable diseases?

A

communicable
as seen here, 8 of the top 10 causes of death in LICs were communicable.

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22
Q

this shows the number of deaths by age in HICs (2023), how would this look different for LICs?

A

way more child deaths, and people generally dying earlier if from old age.

keep in mind not all countries register their cause of deaths so might be a bit different. 90-100% cause of death is recorded but not in African region.

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23
Q

what are the main diseases causing deaths in HICs + LICs?

A

HICs: cardiovascular diseases, cancers, dementia, chronic obstructive lung disease, diabetes.
LICs: lower respiratory infections, diarrhoea diseases, malaria, tuberculosis- collectively account for 1/3rd of deaths in LICs.

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24
Q

what percentage of people in HICs + LICs die aged 70 and older, and under 15 years old?

A

HICs: 75% of deaths are in people aged 70 and older. less than 1% occur in children under 15 years.
LICs: 20% of deaths are in people aged 70 and older. 40% occur in children under 15 years.

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25
a little less than 1 million people in 2019 died from diarrhoea (morbidity was 74%), due to what?
WASH- water, sanitation and hygiene
26
what is DALY, what does it measure + how does it help a country?
disability adjusted life year- the measure used to give an indication of overall burden of disease. measures the consequences of ill health. measures 'life years' lost due to premature mortality + equivalent years lost due to lower quality of life. allows comparisons to be made across range of health problems- quantitative basis for deciding health policies + evaluating cost-effectiveness of control programmes.
27
why are DALYs cooler + better than measuring mortality?
mortality doesn't give the complete picture of the burden of disease borne by individuals in different populations
28
how would you calculate a DALY?
adding 'years of life lost (YLL) due to premature mortality' and 'years of healthy life lost due to disability (YLD)' for people living with health condition or its consequences. DALY = YLL + YLD
29
what are some issues with DALYs (9 total)?
DALYs only measure direct health loss + don't consider economic + social impacts e.g. 1. agriculture 2. school attendance 3. child development 4. if they can work or not 5. direct treatment costs + surveillance 6. prevention measures 7. stigma associated with disease 8. loss of tourism 9. general overload on health system e.g. blindness
30
why is knowing about infectious diseases becoming increasingly important?
pandemics e.g. covid, flu natural/ social disasters, poverty, deprivation movement of refugees drug-resistant pathogens + vectors e.g. malaria rapid + widespread air travel: ( ~ 3 bill passengers/ year) increase in immune-suppressed people: organ transplants lifestyle: urbanisation, drugs, sex environment: global warming, climate change, deforestation, irrigation, antimicrobials
31
describe the basic history of immunology
Thucydides 430 BC: Athens Plague, only recovered people nurse the sick 15th Century: China/ Aztecs- Inhaled crusts of smallpox to provide protection Jenner 18th C: infected this child who had cowpox with smallpox, and they survived (not a nice experiment). It was discovered that if you’re infected with a pathogen, it can give protection to a more virulent strain= VACCINE DISCOVERED. Pasteur 19th C: attenunated rabies virus used as a vaccine- VACCINE IMPROVED 1980: smallpox eradicated by vaccine 2011: Nobel Prize for discovering dendritic cells 2018: did research on checkpoint inhibitory receptors on T cells, that could basically turn T cells on/off depending on whether a ligand was bound or not
32
which systems, organs, cells + molecules is the immune system made up of?
systems: lymphatic, blood organs: bone marrow, thymus, lymph nodes, spleen cells: innate + adpative molecules: antibodies, cytokines, complements
33
describe + explain how the skin acts as a mechanical barrier we have to stop pathogens entering
skin: 1.dead cells + bacteria. 2. sebaceous gland- fatty acids, lactic acid= low pH due to these, the skin is dry as fuck + unappealing, preventing bacterial growth.
34
describe + explain how the tight junctions act as mechanical barriers we have to stop pathogens entering
they stop ingested antigens passing into the body + blood circulation, in the intestinal tract with epithelial cells.
35
describe + explain how mucosal surfaces act as mechanical barriers we have to stop pathogens entering
mucosal surfaces are literally just slippery, loads of mucus-secreting cells that make it hard for the pathogen to get into the cell if it’s slippery + cilia help as well- flushes out intestinal worms + pathogens. the mucus also traps microorganisms which are then shed from the body e.g. respiratory mucous membrane
36
name 2 examples of physiological barriers we have that kill pathogens
1. stomach- low pH, kills pathogenic microorganisms 2. normal commensal microbiota- out compete pathogenic strains for nutrients
37
give 4 chemical mediators in the body that kill pathogens
1. anti-microbial peptides: defensives damage pathogens 2. anti-microbial proteins: lysozyme in tears + saliva 3. cytokines: interferons induce anti-viral state in cells (signal to other cells there’s an issue) 4. complement: membrane attack complex lyses bacteria
38
name 2 reasons why parasites are very effective pathogens
1. they're just really big- they can burrow through the skin + just evade mechanical and physiological barriers in place. 2. they can hook themselves onto the intestinal wall or anchor themselves so they can’t be flushed out easily. Some transit into your feet which isn’t good.
39
name the 4 types of cells that are granulocytes
neutrophils, eosinophils, mast cells, basophils
40
name the 3 types of cell that are phagocytes
neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cell
41
name the 2 types of immune cells that are lymphocytes
innate lymphoid cells (ILCs), natural killer cells (NKs)
42
how do the extracellular traps that. neutrophils can spit out help phagocytes?
Neutrophils can unravel their nuclear DNA, uncondense it and spit it out, which can trap bacteria. instead of individually eating bacteria, they can just gobble a huge clump of them
43
when does inflammation happen?
when a pathogen has broken through our innate barriers
44
what are the 4 signs of inflammation?
heat (calor) redness (rubor) swelling (tumour) pain (dolor) cool latin words
45
describe the process of how inflammation happens starting with when the tissue is damaged (4)
1. tissue damage + bacteria cause resident sentinel cells (dendritic) to release chemoattractants + vasoactive factors that trigger vasodilation + higher capillary permeability. 2. permeable capillaries allow an influx of fluid (exudate) + cells. 3. neutrophils + other phagocytes migrate to site of inflammation (chemotaxis) 4. phagocytes + antibacterial substances destroy bacteria.
46
what are the 6 stages of local inflammatory response?
1. chemokine release: CXCL8/ IL-8 release from damaged endothelial cells + TNF-a release from macrophages= recruits neutrophils + allows migration from blood. 2. Histamine release from mast cells- vasodilation + increases blood vessel permeability. 3. Activation of clotting + complement cascades 4. Neutrophils secret chemokine to recruit monocytes from blood. 5. Phagocytosis of pathogens 6. Macrophages migrate to tissue + secrete IL-1 and TNF-a to recruit lymphocytes, monocytes + neutrophils.
47
in addition to local inflammatory response, there's also a systemic acute-phase one, name the 3 stages + how they help
1. fever (speeds up phagocytosis + body reactions but is costly) 2. leukocytosis (white cell production increase) 3. liver produces acute phase proteins: C-reactive protein which binds to microbes + activates complement proteins to aid phagocytosis. also, Type-1 interferons, IL-6, CXCL8
48
what is the basic function of the complement system?
they're a group of serum proteins in the blood that performs a critical defence against pathogens, especially extracellular ones
49
how many proteins are there in the complement system?
little over 35
50
where + when are complement proteins produced?
mostly made in the liver, + some are produced in large quantities during that acute-phase response stimulated by the pro-inflammatory cytokines IL-6 + TNF-a
51
does the complement system link to innate immunity or adaptive immunity?
both- links to the innate one (e.g. phagocytosis) + adaptive (e.g. antibodies)
52
complement proteins can be grouped into 7 functional categories, what are they, what are their functions xxxx
1. initiators- bind to pathogen's components or antibodies e.g. C1q, MBL 2. enzymes- convertases e.g. C1r, C1s, C4b, C2a, also enzyme mediators like C3 convertase 3. opsonins- promote phagocytosis e.g. C3b 4. anaphylatoxins- cause inflammation e.g. C5a 5. membrane attack proteins- lyse pathogens 6. complement receptors- on phagocytes or neutrophils e.g. CR1, CR3 7. regulatory proteins- limit complement activation e.g. factor 1
53
which 2 things does the innate immune system use to sense infection?
1. pathogen associated molecular proteins (PAMPs)- innate immune system detects molecules from pathogens USING pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)
54
what are the 7 stages of phagocytosis using PAMPS?
1. bacteria have pathogens associated molecular patterns 'PAMPS' 2. phagocytes have pattern recognition receptors 'PRRS' 3. bacterium becomes attached to pseudopodia 4. bacterium is ingested forming phagosome 5. phagosome fuses with lysosome 6. bacterium is killed + digested by lysosomal enzymes + reactive oxygen species 7. digestion products are released from cells
55
there are 2 separate killing mechanisms after ingestion of a bacteria, what are they + explain them?
1. oxygen-dependent killing: oxidative burst, superoxide + other toxic oxidants are generated, acts as an anti-microbial 2. oxygen-independent killing: lysozyme (hydrolytic enzyme), defensives (peptides kill many bacteria)
56
describe at least 5 key differences between innate + adaptive immunity
1. innate is non-specific, adaptive is specific for certain antigens + requires a specific receptor on B and T-lymphocyte cells to detect a specific antigen on the surface of a cell. 2. innate has elements present at birth, adaptive is gained after exposure to foreign material 3. innate is effective against loads of pathogens, adaptive has a delay before effect (usually like 5-6 days) as it needs the innate immune system to activate it first. 4. innate is lifelong, adaptive is kinda but not as much 5. innate is present in all animals, adaptive is only in vertebrates. 6. innate doesn't have memory, adaptive does
57
which body system carries out the adaptive system?
lymphatic
58
name the 6-ish innate cells
innate lymphoid cells (ILCs) natural killer cells (NK) mast cells eosinophils neutrophils macrophages dendritic cells kinda????? they're innate but are relevant in adaptive as well
59
name the 3-ish adaptive immune cells
CD4+- T-Helper cell CD8+- cytotoxic T cell B cell dendritic cell not really but is relevant here so
60
why were ILCs hard to identify at first like we just identified them 15 years ago
they don’t have the surface markers that we usually require to know a cell exists.
61
what is cool about adaptive cells that gives them the memory component?
Adaptive cells can detect antigens from foreign pathogens without them being presented to them
62
B + T-lymphocytes are the effector cells of the adaptive immune system, how big are they and what is their life span?
6 micrometers diameter, short life-span (3 days- 8 weeks)
63
where do lymphocyte cells originate?
bone marrow of flat bones, mostly sternum or hip or something. more specifically, a hematopoietic stem cell in bone marrow
64
where do lymphocyte cells circulate?
blood + lymph
65
what percentage of white blood cells is made up of neutrophils, and what percentage is lymphocytes?
neutrophils- 50-70% lymphocytes- 20-30%
66
where do B cells mature?
Bone marrow of flat bones again xxxx
67
where do T cells mature?
thymus (primary lymphoid organ), after they leave the bone marrow
68
there are myeloid + lymphoid progenitor cells (can divide into loads of stuff), which produces innate cells and which produces lymphocytes?
Myeloid- usually produce innate cells. Lymphoid- usually lymphocytes.
69
describe the 4 ways in which immune cells find pathogens + each other
1. interstitial fluid bathes tissue + along with blood cells enters lymphatic vessels 2. lymph flows through lymphatic vessels throughout body 3. within LNs, pathogens and particles in the lymph encounter + activate antigen-presenting cells 4. lymphatic vessels return lymph to the blood via 2 large ducts that drain into veins.
70
lymphocytes function in secondary lymphoid organs e.g. lymph nodes, explain how
lymph nodes: lymph flows in through the afferent, where it's filtered. also, dendritic cells + macrophages function there with phagocytosis, and lymphocytes do their cool immune responses. Antibodies can be produced by B cells, as they can be activated by antigens in there.
71
lymphocytes function in secondary lymphoid organs e.g. spleen, explain how
spleen: it is a blood filter about 12 cm long behind the stomach, which has white pulp containing B + T cells, and macrophages which can hold antigens on their surface to be detected. also a germinal centre, where B-lymphocytes proliferate. the red pulp is where old/ dead RBC are removed.
72
what are the 3 types of antigen-presenting cells?
dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells
73
the 2 types of adaptive immunity are humoral + cell-mediated, describe them
humoral: B-cell/antibody mediated. defends against pathogens + toxins in extracellular fluid. Deals with stuff that isn’t within our cells. cell-mediated: mostly about cytotoxic T cells. defends against infected cells, cancer cells + transplanted cells
74
which part of adaptive immunity are T-helper cells useful for, humoral or cell-mediated?
T helper cells are required in both, as B cells + cytotoxic lymphocytes need the T-cell help.
75
what are antigens?
any foreign molecule which is specifically recognised by lymphocytes + elicits a response from them
76
how do lymphocytes detect antigens?
B + T cell receptors they have receptors embedded in their plasma membrane. each B or T cell is specific for 1 antigen epitope (the structure on the antigen recognised by the immune system).
77
what are the variable + constant regions for on an antibody?
Antigens bind to the variable regions of B + T-cell receptors. The constant regions help cellular signalling- signals from outside the cell can be integrated into the cell.
78
describe B cell activation from naive B cells
1. developing B cells undergo a selection process in bone marrow: self-reactive cells are destroyed. 2. receptor interacts directly with pathogen 3. mature B cells are released from bone marrow 4. becomes either plasma B-cell which releases antibodies, or memory B-cell (affinity maturation- where antibodies gain increased affinity).
79
describe the 5 antibody subclasses + their basic lore if you can
IgM antibodies are cool, looks more like a flower than the classic Y shape. IgD doesn’t get secreted into the blood. IgE responds to helminths. IgA forms a dimer, present in secretion in breast milk, present in the mucosal lining. IgG produced the most in the body.
80
secondary response to antigen is faster, greater + of increased duration, describe the processes of primary and secondary response together like in a lil timeline
which is why we have booster vaccinations xxxx faster, greater, longer immune response
81
are there different subsets of T-helper cells or cytotoxic T-cells?
T-helper cells e.g. Th1= type-1 immune responses. Th2= type 2, helminths + asthma. Th17- inflammatory skin conditions e.g. psoriasis. Cytokines produced by these Th’s direct the immune response that happens after.
82
describe the process of how T cells develop
developing T cells undergo 2 selection processes. Initially known as double-negative, haven’t decided whether to become a helper or cytotoxic. Goes through positive selection first, and becomes double positive, expressing both CD4 + CD8. cells die if they don't recognise their MHC. then, those that recognise our cells too strongly go through apoptosis, as we don’t want to go through autoimmunity, and don’t want cell death of cells that are required. Then mature + express only CD4 (T-helper) OR CD8 (cytotoxic).
83
describe the process of how T cells get activated
BY RECOGNITION OF ANTIGEN PRESENTED ON MHC MOLECULES CTL (cytotoxic T lymphocyte) activated by presented antigen from infected cell----- becomes either active cytotoxic T cell or memory cytotoxic T cell (both CTLs) T helper cell activated by antigen on APC------- becomes either active T helper cell (help B cells) or memory T helper cell
84
which cells express the MHC-1 gene, and why do they have it?
All cells with a nucleus express MHC-1, allows cells to call for help if in trouble basically . they all need to be able to alert the immune system of stuff like viral infections in the cell.
85
describe the general process of how antigens are presented to T cells via MHC molecules
CTL (cytotoxic T lymphocyte) is activated by presented antigen from infected cell, with the help of MHC-1 binding to the antigen, which binds to a TCR. a T-helper cell is activated by APC, with MHC-2.
86
which cells is MHC-2 presented on and why?
specialised APCs e.g. dendritic cells, macrophages + B-cells. It’s important for B cells to express MHC-2, so it can get help from CD4+ T-helper cells.
87
which cells in the immune system recognise MHC-1 + what does it result in?
CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes, resulting in antigens being presented on infected cells
88
which cells in the immune system recognise MHC-2 + what does it result in?
CD4+ T-helper cells, resulting in antigen on the APCs.
89
why are dendritic cells referred to as professional?
Dendritic cells can activate naïve t cell that have never been exposed to the antigen before- hence, professional.
90
name 4 factors of specialised APCs e.g. dendritic cells, macrophages + B-cells, that makes them APCs
1, phagocytes 2. migrate from site of infection to lymphoid tissues 3. display processed antigen to naive t-helper cell 4. important in triggering a PRIMARY immune response
91
macrophages can present antigens but are less able to activate naive T-cells than DCs, which immune response are they more important in, primary or secondary?
secondary!!!!
92
describe thee 5-step process of B cells as APC, starting from when they bind to antigens via B-cell receptors + resulting in production of memory B cells and plasma cells
1. B-cells bind to antigens via B cell receptors. 2. receptor + antigen endocytosed 3. B cells present antigens via MHC-2 to helper T cells with same epitope recognition 4. activated helper T cell secretes cytokines 5. cytokines activate B cell to produce memory B cells + plasma cells
93
is humoral immunity T-cell or B-cell mediated?
B-cell mediated
94
how are cells killed in humoral immunity? (2)
phagocytosis-mediated + complement- mediated killing
95
by which mediation leads to cell killing in humeral-immunity?
antibody-antigen mediated
96
describe + explain the full epic massive process of the humoral response (10)
1. macrophage/ dendritic cell phagocytoses pathogen (usually dendritic because they’re professional) 2. antigen processed in macrophage/ DC + presented on surface via MHC-2. 3. specific T-helper cell (CD4+) recognises processed antigen + binds (aided via CD4 binding to MHC-2) 4. SHTC activated 5. B-cell phagocytoses BCR + antigen, presents it on MHC-2 6. SHTC recognises antigen presented by B-cell 7. cytokines from activated SHTC fully activate B cell 8. B cell activated to produce clones of plasma cells + memory B cells 9. antibody production from plasma cells 10. pathogen elimination
97
binding of antibodies to antigens inactivates antigens by: neutralisation, agglutination, precipitation + complement fixation. explain all of these (4)
1. neutralisation- blocks viral binding sites; coats bacteria and/or opsonisation 2. agglutination of antigen-bearing particles, such as microbes 3. precipitation of soluble antigens 4. complement fixation (activation of complement), which leads immediately to CELL LYSIS
98
what is opsonisation?
improves the ability of a phagocyte to phagocytose. Neutralisation, agglutination + precipitation all enhance phagocytosis.
99
what is the complement pathway composed of?
a pathway composed of around 35 or so different soluble proteins in the blood
100
complement activation can be done with 3 pathways, one is the classical pathway, describe + explain it, and which proteins it requires and such, and how it results in the MAC (2???)
basic lore- The classical pathway is mediated by an antibody binding to an antigen. It requires C1- a complex of C1q which is a hexomeric molecule, + C1s and C1r. 1. Complement binds to antigen-antibody complexes on cell surface. 2. Complement cascade is activated by antibodies- several complement proteins form MAC- a hole in the foreign cells, which forms membrane lesions where the MAC has inserted itself.
101
describe + maybe draw the structure of the MAC (membrane attack complex)?
basically a corkscrew thing of loads of C9 complement proteins, ending with other ones like C5b, C6, C7 and so on tailing off.
102
what does the MAC kind of do?
basically directly lyses pathogens by activating signalling pathways with the pores it forms on pathogenic cells.
103
is the cell-mediated response T-cell or B-cell mediated, and which B or T cells specifically?
T-cell mediated CTL for cell-mediated response, aided by T-helper cells
104
how is foreign material recognised in cell-mediated response?
MHC-1 antigen T-cell receptor xxxxx
105
what is the basic killing mechanism for cell-mediated response (don't have to describe, just name) (2)
cytotoxic T cells mediated killing + humoral response activation by SHTC
106
describe fully + wholly the cell-mediated response (5)
1. cell infected with pathogen presents antigens on surface to CTL, helped by MHC-1. 2. the CD8 on T-cell surface binds MHC-1 + TCR on the CTL binds the presented antigen with this cool cognate interaction (recognises specific epitope). 3. CTL (which is CD8+) becomes activated. Releases perforin + granzyme from the cell. 4. the perforin insert themselves into the membrane of the target cell membrane + makes these pores. 5. granzymes are key enzymes: they enter through the pores + initiate apoptosis in the target cell.
107
describe how helper T cells trigger the humoral response + supply cytokines to the CTL (5)
1. macrophage or something phagocytoses bacterium, becomes APC 2. T-helper cell binds antigen, with help of MHC-2 on the APC + TCR on itself (also CD4 as well !!!) 3. interleukin-2 + other cytokines tells cells to proliferate, divide + survive 4. they become either cytotoxic lymphocyte (cell-mediated immunity so they just attack on infected cells) 5. OR become B cell (humoral immunity, just secrete antibodies by plasma cells)
108
give a basic massive overview of the entire immune response (humoral + cell-mediated response at same time)
1. upon 1st exposure of antigen, dendritic cell phagocytoses + presents it to T-helper cell, which become memory cells + proliferates to produce clones. 2. T-helper cell helper B cell, after it has been exposed to same antigen and is activated. B cell gives rise to clones of plasma cells which produce antibodies to defend. (HUMORAL) 3. some of B cells will become memory ones, helping with re-exposure. (HUMORAL) 4. at same time, after the APC thing, cytotoxic T cells are activated via recognition of antigens from infected cells. (CELL-MEDIATED) 5. memory helper T-cells can stimulate + support both the memory B cells + memory cytotoxic T cells upon 2nd exposure (CELL-MEDIATED)
109
name the bacterium that causes plague, its shape, whether its gram-negative or positive
Yersinia pestis, rod shaped, gram-negative
110
Yersiniz pestis, the bacteria that causes plague, are facultative anaerobes, what does this mean?
they are capable of surviving in both aerobic and anaerobic environments
111
what is the scientific name of the rat flea that transmits plague?
Xenopsylla cheopis
112
Yersinia pestis has 2 main habitats, what are they + the temperatures of each?
(i) the gut of a flea, at ambient temperature (ii) blood or tissues of a mammalian host, at body temperature 
113
the different life cycles of a bacterium can be thought o fas multiplication stages, the 2 life cycles of Yersinia pestis are called the sylvatic + urban cycles, what do those entail?
Sylvatic cycle= wild, Urban cycle= the main stuff that caused the plague that we all know and love. 1. Sylvatic: goes from wild rodent to infected flea to another wild rodent then either to another infected flea to continue cycle or to a human. 2. Urban: goes from domestic rodent to infective flea to domestic rodent to infective flea to human or to another domestic rodent to continue the cycle.
114
how can humans become infected with plague? (2)
If the rodent bites a human, or just coming into direct contact, they can become infected.
115
Rats and other rodents are the natural hosts for plague – the host species varies in different parts of the world: name the hosts for plague in Mongolia, Africa, North America + south America
Mongolia: marmots Africa: gerbils North America: ground squirrels, chipmunks and prairie dogs South America: wild guinea pigs
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how are foci of infection formed on plague rodents?
Some wild rodents are relatively resistant to plague and so form permanent foci of infection
117
what does it mean for a rodent when they form foci of infection?
When wild rodents form foci of infection, the immune system can’t get rid of the pathogen + the rodent just lives with the pathogen in its body, doesn’t really cause any harm.
118
which intermediate host is the link between wild + domestic rodents?
brown rat (Rattus norvegicus)
119
which chief reservoir (animal) is the usually the source of human infection to the plague + why?
The black rat (Rattus rattus), is usually the source of human infection, it is very susceptible to plague
120
approximately how many species + subspecies of fleas are known as insect vectors to plague?
Estimated 2,500 species and subspecies of fleas - constituting 220 genera and 15 families in insect order Siphonaptera
121
approximately how many species have been known to be infected with Y. pestis in the wild/ susceptible to experimental infection?
Approximately 80 species
122
physiological mechanisms accounting of differences in plague vector efficiency aren't fully known, but could include factors such as? (4)
1.insect immunity - e.g. antimicrobial peptides 2. midgut digestive enzymes - pathogen must evade these 3. frequency of feeding and defecation – pathogen must avoid being removed from the vector 4. flea life span after infection - pathogen must not kill vector (too quickly!)
123
describe how transmission by the flea happens for plague
1. Vectors become infected following uptake of a blood meal 2. then the pathogen replicates and disseminates in the vector, where it goes depends on the pathogen-vector pair 3. Y. pestis remains confined to the flea digestive tract and is transmitted by regurgitation during its 2nd blood meal.
124
why is Y. pestis potentially susceptible to elimination by flea faeces during plague transmission?
Y. pestis does not adhere to, or invade, the midgut epithelium
125
Y. pestis persistent depends on? (2)
(i) formation of multicellular aggregates (too large to be passed in faeces) AND (ii) their ability to form a biofilm and which creates a blockage in the proventriculus (PV) – a valve that connects the oesophagus (E) and midgut (MG).
126
Y. pestis form a biofilm in the proventriculus during transmission, what does this do + why is this a problem?
As the biofilm grows, it fills the lumen and when the flea tries to feed it impedes blood flow into midgut Blocking the proventricular valve enhances regurgitative transmission of the bacterium Those biofilms and aggregations disrupt the normal feeding of the flea, which it needs to clear.
127
Yersinia pestis is highly pathogenic in humans- why?
it can overcome host defences and multiply within the body - (mainly) extracellularly.
128
describe how Y. pestis induces harm in the human body? (2)
Following inoculation, Y. pestis induces a local lesion and inflammation - followed by rapid spread and multiplication. it is the toxins produced by Yersinia that causes most of the harm - endothelial damage and necrosis - leading to vascular destruction and local haemorrhaging
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infection results from Y. pestis by the accumulation of neutrophils, how can they be killed?
1. Early in infection Y. pestis may be killed by neutrophils (N), however as it is surrounded by the F1 capsule protein, phagocytosis by N is prevented. 2. Later in infection Yp injects effector proteins (Yops) into N killing/disabling them.
130
why can't macrophages kill Y. pestis?
Macrophages can phagocytose Y. pestis but cannot kill it so it just kind of chills inside the vesicle once it’s trapped. Its ability to survive in the gut is like one of the main reasons it’s such an issue. bacterial toxins can destroy macrophages and other phagocytic cells
131
how do plague lesions come about?
destruction of tissue and effects of endotoxins - peripheral vascular collapse and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
132
one of the 3 major pandemics in history is the Justinianic plague (541 AD), give some general facts
(named after Byzantine emperor Justinian I) was followed by frequent outbreaks over the next two hundred years – estimated to have killed over 25 million people around the Mediterranean basin. In 540, 26M people in ME reduced to 17M by 610.
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one of the 3 major pandemics recorded in history is the Black Death (1347), give general facts e.g. where it came about, how many were killed, etc
originated in China in 133, spread along great trade routes to Constantinople (now Istanbul) which was the centre of the Byzantium Empire and then on to Europe – estimated to have killed 30-50% of the European population. Led to large and long-lasting increases in the purchasing power of wages and higher levels of consumption and standards of living for those that survived.
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one of the 3 major pandemic recorded in history is the Modern Plague (1894), give some general facts
began in China in the 1860s and appeared in Hong Kong by 1894. Over the next 20 years, it spread to port cities around the world – estimated to have caused approximately 10 million deaths
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why were they dripped out like this in the Black Death?
With that famous doctor beak mask thing picture, the beak was filled with cool herbs and spices as they believed that it was transmitted by air, so they believed they should be protected. Also, used to hit people with the stick they were holding to appease God xxxx
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epic thing showing deadliest plagues xxxx
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also cool thing showing when the plagues were happening all together
138
what does palaeogenetic research show about the way Y. pestis has evolved, possibly giving rise to more modern plagues and stuff?
Ancient Yersinia pestis genomes from across Western Europe reveal early diversification during the First Pandemic’. The disease would appear to have split from Y. pseudotuberculosis around seven thousand years ago e.g. a case of bubonic plague was reported in Oregon last year
139
Potential use of plague as a biological weapon is of great concern, why? (like why would plague be good for weaponising) (5-ish)
1. worldwide availability 2. capacity for mass production + aerosol dissemination 3. high fatality rate of pneumonic plague 4. potential for rapid secondary spread 5. In 1970, WHO published a report that estimated the deliberate release of 50 kg of Yersinia pestis in an aerosolised form over a city of 5 million could result in pneumonic plague in up to 150,000 people and 36,000 deaths. also this kind of thing did happen in the 14th century so not new
140
how long is the incubation period for plague usually?
Incubation period 2-4 days - but may be as long as 10 days
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name some general symptoms of plague
patients often develop 'flu-like' symptoms- fever, chills, head ache, body ache, vomiting, nausea - prodromal period
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what are the 3 forms of plague xxxx
bubonic, septicemic, pneumonic
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bubonic plague is the most common form of the disease, describe how you become infected with it and explain the symptoms that arise (5-ish)
usually initiated by infected flea bite. Bacteria enter body and multiply at site of entry in skin – then spreads via the lymphatic system to lymph nodes, which become painful and enlarged - forming BUBOES with haemorrhagic inflammation 2-6 days after flea bite (reallyyyyyy painful) Usually get FEVER + CHILLS, also DELIRIUM + CONFUSION. later in infection buboes can burst to form open sores.
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what's the mortality rate of bubonic plague?
50-60% if untreated, but if you recover you're immune
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describe septicemic plague symptoms (3) + how you can become infected with it
Septicaemia (blood poisoning) occurs when infection spreads to bloodstream. comes from flea bites + also from direct contact with infective stuff e.g. skinned animals (primary septicaemic plague). bloodstream infection- MENINGITIS, ENDOTOXIC SHOCK (comes form all the bacteria releasing the toxins) , DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULATION (DIC).
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DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation) is a symptom of septicaemic plague, what is it?
systemic activation of blood coagulation leads to gangrene of the extremities (Black Death) and multi-organ failure
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what is the mortality rate of septicaemic plague?
100% if untreated
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can different forms of plague develop into each other?
yeah- Bubonic plague can develop into secondary septicaemic plague
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endotoxic shock is on of the symptoms of septicaemic plague, what is it?
like a really really severe localised inflammatory response
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pneumonic plague is the least common form of plague, describe its symptoms and how it comes about
caused by infection spreading to lungs in advanced bubonic plague, but can result from human-human transmission- infected people can form aerosolised infective droplets. In lungs - causes ACUTE PULMONARY INSUFFICIENCY (when pulmonary valve won't fully close + some blood gets back in the heart), SEPSIS and TOXIC SHOCK
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what is the mortality rate of pneumonic plague?
Death usually ensues if treatment is not begun within 18-24h of disease onset - even then the mortality rate remains extremely high usually 100% if untreated
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plague can be transmitted by flea bites, contact with contaminated fluid, infectious droplets or environmental transmission, describe them all
flea bites: most often this -may result in primary bubonic or septicaemic contact with contaminated fluid/ tissue: most commonly results in bubonic or septicaemic infectious droplets: a person with pneumonic can cough droplets containing bacteria in the air, and if breathed in by another person can cause pneumonic. Usually requires direct and close contact with a person with pneumonic plague environmental: Y. pestis is very sensitive to sunlight and heat, so doesn't survive long outside a host. WHO estimates plague aerosols remain effective and infectious for ~1 hour. Although it's been reported that Y. pestis can survive for several months in soil – no evidence this poses an environmental risk to humans
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despite treatment, how can patients still die from plague?
patients can still die from the toxins the bacteria released before they were killed (toxaemia).
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specimens with plague can be diagnosed with lymph nodes, blood, sputum + bronchial/tracheal washing. explain all
lymph nodes: bubo containing Y. pestis- direct microscopy/ culturing blood: if septicaemic, bacteria in blood (smears taken early in infection may be negative by microscopy but positive by culture) sputum: culture is possible from sputum of very ill pneumonic patients; however, blood is usually culture-positive at this time bronchial/ tracheal washing: throat specimens are not ideal, since they contain other bacteria that can mask presence of Y. pestis. (you can also diagnose post mortem with antigen detection methods/ PCR)
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which kind of drugs are effective against plague + why?
If given early, and in large doses, treatment with antibiotics such as streptomycin, tetracycline and chloramphenicol are effective (drugs disrupt protein synthesis). Until recently, Y. pestis was considered uniformly susceptible to the recommended antibiotics, however multidrug-resistant strains have now emerged in Madagascar .
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why does it matter when plague treatment starts?
However, therapy must start as soon as plague is suspected – duration of treatment usually 10-14 days. Early diagnosis essential as plague can be rapidly fatal - pneumonic plague can kill within 18-24 hours of disease onset
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plague can be prevented + controlled by quarantine, explain where it first originated from like historically ?
derives from the practice of isolating ships and people for 40 days before they were allowed to enter the city of Venice
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plague can be prevented + controlled by vaccine, describe what it's based on and whether it gives full/ partial protection?
Based on formaldehyde inactivated whole-cells. The vaccine only gives partial protection and is only recommended for laboratory and field personnel working with Y. pestis. New efforts to develop a sub-unit vaccine e.g. based on the F1 capsular protein.
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plague can be prevented + controlled by preventive measures, name + describe 4 xxx
1. avoid direct contact with infected body fluids + tissues 2. rodent control- especially at ports + airports 3. inform people when zoonotic plague is present in environment 4. advise people to take precautions against flea bites + avoid handing animal carcasses
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how many species of the genus Yersinia are there?
like 17
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Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is another disease-causing bacteria like Y. pestis, what kind of disease does it cause + how is it transmitted?
causes relatively mild, self-limiting disease (Yersiniosis) and is transmitted by faecal-oral route
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how has Y. pestis diverged from Y. pseudotuberculosis over the last 10,000 years?
just a few genetic changes were sufficient to give rise to flea borne transmission Gene gain and gene loss are the major drivers of bacterial evolution
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a pathway described as ‘add DNA, stir and reduce’ is used to describe how bacteria evolve from each other, describe what each step means
add: horizontal gene transfer between different bacterial species stir: intra-genomic changes reduce: gene deletions + accumulation of pseudogenes
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what is the evidence for the fact that the transmission by fleas has been brought about by evolution?
DNA from human skeletons dating from early Bronze Age reveals ancestral Y. pestis was NOT flea transmitted (possibly transmitted by blood or saliva?) Evolved into a flea-borne pathogen at the beginning of the 1st millennium BC.
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how are ancient pathogens studied from like archaeological remains? (3)
1. sample collection 2. recovery + sequencing of DNA/RNA from pathogen 3. phylogenetic analysis + comparative genomics you can find out virulence + transmission, origins + geographic spread, vectors + host reservoirs, and evolutionary rates + genetic diversity
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the ability of Y. pestis to survive in the gut was gained with horizontal gene transfer, how does it work?
Yersinia murine toxin (ymt) gene encodes a protein called phospholipase D - this protects Y. pestis within the flea gut. it enabled a bacterium previously found in the gut to use an arthropod vector (survives insect gut). Mutants lacking functional ymt are cleared from fleas within 24 hours of infection. Conversely, transfer of the Y. pestis ymt gene into Y. pseudotuberculosis (or even E. coli) greatly increases their ability to infect flea mid gut
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Y. pseudotuberculosis can form a biofilm in some environments – BUT not within fleas usually. how can loss of function mutation allow it to happen in Y.pestis?
Homologues of >200 Y. pseudotuberculosis genes are present as non-functional pseudogenes in Y. pestis. Selective loss of gene function enabled Y. pestis to form a biofilm in flea gut e.g. rcsA - negative regulator of biofilms rcsA is functional in Y. pseudotuberculosis but not in Y. pestis.
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the name 'malaria' comes from 17th century Italy: ‘mal-aria’ = bad air, why?
disease associated with ‘evil-smelling’ vapours from swamps
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what was the term for malaria in England 16-19th century, due to its association with swamps?
'ague or marsh fever’
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which genus (a protozoan parasite) cause malaria, + how many species of them are about?
Genus Plasmodium – approx. 175 species currently recognised – 5 or 6 species infect humans
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this graph shows the changing distribution of malaria from 1900-2002, describe some facts + figures about it, including distribution in Italy, Kent/ Essex + indigenous species xxxx
Italy was only declared malaria free in 1970. Marshlands of Kent and Essex had exceptionally high levels of mortality from the sixteenth to the nineteenth century. Five indigenous species of Anopheles mosquito are capable of transmitting malaria in England. Malaria was eradicated in England ages ago, primarily by draining marshlands.
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Some areas were allowed to be declared malaria free because of chemicals such as DDT + organophosphates, what's the issue with that though?
they can be environmentally toxic (still ok to use according to the WHO, but not nearly used as much as it used to be).
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which geographical region is most susceptible to malaria according to WHO?
Burden is heaviest in WHO African Region; estimated 90% of all malaria deaths occur in this region
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Children <5 particularly susceptible to malaria – in 2015 malaria killed ~303,000 under-fives of these 292,000 were in Africa, why are they more susceptible?
less effective immune system
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the Plasmodium parasite contains 3 different life cycles: sporogonic, exo-erythrocytic + erythrocytic, describe where each of these happen?
3 different life cycles: the SPOROGONIC cycle (basically when it’s inside the insect), the EXO-ERYTHROCYTIC cycle (inside the human + outside of red blood cells in the liver) and the ERYTHROCYTIC cycle (inside red blood cells).
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name 3 differences between the life cycles of the Plasmodium parasite (malaria) + Y. pestis (plague)
1. plasmodium way more complex (3 life cycles) 2. plasmodium has cycles in the insect + human, plague one doesn't 3. plasmodium one doesn't have an intermediate host (e.g. rats in the plague) so not a zoonosis
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the 2 most common forms of Plasmodium that cause the most malaria cases are P. falciparum + P. vivax, discuss: how many human cases they're each responsible for, periodicity of fever, + what kind of illness they cause
178
P. falciparum + P. vivax are the 2 most common forms o malaria Plasmodium, what are the other 3?
P. malariae, P. ovale (Two distinct species? P. ovale curtisi  and P. ovale wallikeri, maybe lol) + P. knowlesi
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how are fevers of Plasmodium caused in malaria (linked to life cycle), + which species of Plasmodium does this usually happen with?
caused when developmental stages in the red blood cells erupt in a synchronised way due to merozoites on the surface. e.g. P. falciparum- this species needs immediate treatment.
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Malaria is an acute febrile illness - what does this mean?
shows signs of fever
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there are types of malaria e.g. quotidian/tertian/quartan, why are they named like that?
links to their periodicity of fever e.g. differences in erythrocytic cycle Peaks coincide with the synchronized release of parasites from rupturing erythrocytes brings on the fever.
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which type of mosquito is malaria transmitted by (sex + species), + give reasons for the sex like why does that sex need to transmit malaria?
female Anopheles mosquito – blood meal needed for egg development When female mosquitoes feed, they inject infected stages of malaria into the person
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Transmission of malaria is limited to areas in which Anopheles mosquitoes can survive and multiply, which conditions are these?
this is between latitudes 60oN and 40oS and below 2000 metres. also temperature is important
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Malaria can be transmitted in many ways: introduced, airport, transfusion, mainline + congenital. explain all xxxx
INTRODUCED malaria - local mosquitoes become infected by biting people who acquired malaria in endemic areas and transmit malaria to locaLS - 63 outbreaks of locally transmitted mosquito-borne malaria in US (1957-2009) AIRPORT Malaria - infected mosquitoes transported by aircraft from malaria endemic country to non-endemic country - local residents can acquire malaria without ever having travelled abroad TRANSFUSION malaria - acquired via blood transfusion – between 1963-2009 96 cases of transfusion-transmitted malaria reported in US MAINLINE malaria - acquired via shared needles and syringes CONGENITAL malaria - infected mothers transmit Plasmodium to child during pregnancy, before or during delivery
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sporozoites are important things in the 1st life cycle of the malaria Plasmodium parasite, describe how they initiate infection, resulting in merozoite production (3)
1.Sporozoites inoculated into skin by mosquito – penetrate blood vessel and enter circulation. 2.Circulate in bloodstream for up to 30 minutes – but must penetrate hepatocytes (liver cells) to initiate an infection. 3. Within a liver cell Plasmodium undergoes schizogony – a form of asexual reproduction in which nucleus divides many times before the cytoplasm divides to form ~30,000-40,000 merozoites.
186
the exo-erythrocytic stage is the 1st of 3 life cycles of the malaria Plasmodium parasite, taking place in the human liver. describe (4) xxxx
happens after an infected female mosquito bites a human host xxx 1. she will have an infected stage of malaria in her salivary gland called sporozoites, which invade liver cells + nucleus divides loads, producing schizonts. 2. schizont ruptures when mature, releasing merozoites which are inside, which enter blood circulation + infect RBCs 3. the merozoites go through another developmental stage, producing different stages, some of which circulate in the blood, infecting other RBCs, producing more schizonts but in RBCs instead of liver cells. 4. Again the RBCs will rupture + release stuff, and the cycle goes on xxxxx
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Some Plasmodium species (e.g. P. vivax and P. ovale) can form 'hypnozoites’ in malaria life cycles. what are they + why do they cause issues with mis-diagnosis?
Hypnozoites are dormant forms of things that can sometimes be formed. they are less sensitive to antimalarial drugs and can reactivate many years after initial infection – problems with mis-diagnosis.
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the erythrocytic cycle is the 2nd of the malaria parasite Plasmodium's cycles. describe xxx
erythrocytic cycle is an incubation stage – no symptoms. 1. Merozoite infects RBCs, which multiply asexually 2. trophozoites grow in RBCs, forming more schizonts (asexual reproduction) or gametocytes (sexual reproduction). 3. schizont ruptures, releasing more merozoites which infect more RBCs. 4. OR or mosquitoes take gametocytes in next blood meal
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merozoites are part of the malaria parasite Plasmodium's 1st + 2nd life cycles, describe what they do, how they multiply, etc xxx
must invade RBCs to continue infection. Multiply by asexual reproduction – this results in the erythrocytic part of the parasite life cycle. This is the “disease” causing stage. they also have Apical organelles (rhoptries and micronemes) which contain proteins required for parasite invasion are visible in the piccy.
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trophozoites are part of the malaria parasite Plasmodium's 2nd life cycle. describe their structure, + how they help the parasite
This is a single-celled nucleated mass of protoplasm – highly metabolically active. The growing parasite needs to acquire nutrients from the host and modifies the RBC to meet its nutritional demands. Trophozoites ingest haemoglobin - this is broken down to give an iron haem pigment called haemozoin - which accumulates in the food vacuole.
191
schizonts are part of the malaria parasite Plasmodium's 1st + 2nd life cycles. describe them xxx
After several hours of growth within the RBC, schizogony occurs (timing depends upon the Plasmodium species). The trophozoite divides to give 8-16 merozoites – these are released when the RBC ruptures. Note the irregular appearance of the red blood cell surface – note the presence of ‘knobs’ which are merozoites.
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the sporogonic cycle is the 3rd life cycle of the malaria parasite Plasmodium, describe xxx
Occurs inside the mosquito gut. 1. some trophozoites from 2nd cycle will develop into sexual forms called gametocytes (usually takes like 4 days to mature), which are taken up in a blood meal 2. within minutes of ingestion by the mosquito, the male and female gametocytes burst out of the RBC. 3. male one produces 8 microgametes – (a flagellum with an attached nuclear mass). The micro and female macrogamete fuse to form a zygote. 4. over like 5-10 hours, the zygote differentiates into a cigar-shaped INVASIVE ookinete, which penetrates the intestinal wall of the mosquito. 5. ookinete then differentiates to become an oocyst – this attaches to the external side of the midgut wall of the mosquito. 6. oocysts grow rapidly and divide internally into up to 1000 sporozoites (takes days +goes quicker with higher temp). 7. oocyst bursts - sporozoites are released into the body cavity, which migrate + accumulate in the mosquito salivary glands. 8. The cycle is completed when the mosquito bites a susceptible host and injects saliva along with the sporozoites.
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how are the normal symptoms of malaria e.g fever, bone marrow depression and erythrophagocytosis caused?
Toxins released when schizonts burst stimulate T-cells to produce cytokines such as TNFa
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what can loss of RBC due to parasite growth, depression of erythropoiesis, and erythrophagocytosis in malaria all cause?
anaemia (deficiency of red cells or haemoglobin in the blood)
195
which condition can severe malaria cause?
Hypoglycaemia (low blood sugar)
196
immunodepression due to malaria may lead to susceptibility to what?
septicaemia
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Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly can be caused due to malaria, what are they?
enlargement of liver and spleen
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Haemoglobinaemia + haemoglobinuria can be caused due to malaria, what is that?
haemoglobin in blood plasma + urine (Blackwater fever) respectively.
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capillary blockages due to malaria can lead to what (2)?
haemorrhage + anoxia (oxygen deficiency). especially happens with P. falciparum
200
cerebral malaria can result with infections caused by P. falciparum, how does it happen (4)?
1. Happens when RBCs infected with malaria become more sticky than normal, and stick to endothelial cells lining capillary venules in brain, heart, liver, kidney, muscles and placenta. 2. Parasite proteins transported to surface of iRBC. 3. Parasite proteins bind to host receptors on endothelial cells. 4. this blocks blood flow, so oxygen-carrying RBCs can’t get through, not good.
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how is malaria diagnosed clinically (3)?
1. Blood smears - stained with Giemsa to detect and identify Plasmodium species. 2. Rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) detect Plasmodium proteins - > some detect single species, others multiple species or distinguish between P. falciparum and non-P. falciparum infection. Finger-prick sample - results ~15-30 minutes. 3. Nucleic acid amplification-based diagnostics - sensitive detection of low density malaria infections (approx. limit of detection <1 parasite/µl).
202
how was malaria treated with quinine (history + what was it replaced by)?
Quinine - originally extracted from the bark of the cinchona tree – found in rain forest on the eastern slopes of the Andes. For 300 years quinine was the only effective treatment for malaria. After World War II quinine was replaced by synthetic drugs such as chloroquine.
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why did chloroquine replace quinine as the primary treatment for malaria after WW2 (4)?
1. Safer 2. More effective (against all Plasmodium species) 3. Easier to make 4. Few side effects - low cost
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chloroquine is a treatment of malaria, describe its mode of action (5)
1. Intracellular parasite (trophozoite) digests haemoglobin - generates free haem which is toxic. 2. Digestion takes place inside Plasmodium food vacuole – contains lipid bodies that take up haem which is polymerised into a black non-toxic pigment (haemozoin). 3. Uncharged chloroquine diffuses through parasite plasma membrane and food vacuole (FV) membrane 4. FV is acidified- CQ becomes charged and concentrates up to several 1000-fold within the FV. 5. This interferes with haemozoin formation – haem remains, is highly toxic and kills the parasite.
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chloroquine resistance is happening in P. falciparum, moving from Asia to Africa in the late 70s. what is CQR caused by, + how is it being reinforced (4)?
1. caused by transporter protein (PfCRT) exporting CQ from the food vacuole reinforced by: 1. Exposure of parasites to sub-therapeutic dose of drug 2. Incomplete compliance - sharing drugs 3. Parasites not killed - opportunity to become resistant.
206
prevention of malaria is always better than curing, give 2 ways to prevent malaria
bed nets + long-lasting insecticide stuff BUT it is estimated that 43% of the population of sub-Saharan Africa are not protected by nets (WHO). reduces child deaths dramatically
207
describe the history of malaria vaccines (5)
1. since Oct 2021, WHO recommended RTS,S/AS01 malaria vaccine among children living in regions with moderate to high P. falciparum malaria transmission. it has been shown to significantly reduce malaria, and deadly severe malaria, among young children. 2. in Oct 2023, WHO recommended a second safe and effective malaria vaccine, R21/Matrix-M. 3. Vaccines are now being rolled out in routine childhood immunisation programmes across Africa.  4. Malaria vaccines in Africa are expected to save tens of thousands of young lives every year. 5. The highest impact will be achieved, however, when the vaccines are introduced alongside a mix of other WHO-recommended malaria interventions such as bed nets and chemoprophylaxis.
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what are nematodes?
many are free-living but some are parasites of humans, animals + plants= of major medical, veterinary and agricultural importance.
209
describe the nematode's 'stylised body plan'
‘a tube within a tube’ – alimentary canal extends from mouth at anterior (head) to anus at posterior (tail)
210
what is the range of how big nematodes are (with example of the largest + smallest)?
Smallest are simply scaled down versions of largest e.g. Dioctophyme renale (Kidney worm 1m) vs Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm 10mm)
211
which trait about nematodes contributes to their success?
Parasitic nematodes exhibit a high degree of preadaptation (an adaptation that serves a different purpose from the one for which it evolved)
212
the biochemistry/ physiology of nematodes is highly adapted, name 4 adaptations they have
1. survive wide range of conditions e.g. osmotic pressure, temperature and pH 2. survive under both aerobic and anaerobic conditions 3. utilise wide range of food sources 4. tough outer cuticle can withstand environmental insults – e.g. host immune responses
213
describe the nematode life cycle (i.e. how many larvel stages + moults they have)
there are always four larval stages and four moults (kind of like shedding) Life cycles can be complex - does NOT represent an evolutionary sequence.
214
do nematodes undergo sexual or asexual reproduction + can they ever?
Nematodes do NOT undergo asexual reproduction (parthenogenesis has been reported – i.e. development of gametes without fertilisation – but this is rare in parasitic nematodes of animals).
215
around how many eggs do female nematodes output per day?
e.g. Ascaris 200,000 eggs/day
216
around how many occasions has parasitism arisen in nematodes?
at least 9
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20% of world’s population harbour at least one species of gastrointestinal (GI) nematode. poly parasitism is also common, what is that?
many people harbour many different species of parasites (GI nematodes and other parasites as well).
218
what is epidemiology?
concerns incidence, distribution + possible control of diseases
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Most intestinal nematodes do not multiply within an individual host, so what is intensity of infection determined by instead of this?
number of infected adult worms in a host is due to number of infection events (L3 larvae) - DEGREE OF EXPOSURE btw: INTENSITY of infection is important – not prevalence.
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In endemic populations, number of nematodes in individuals is OVERDISPERSED … meaning …. (2)
over 70% of the worms are found in less than 15% of hosts. Most heavily infected hosts are at greatest risk of morbidity and are the major source of infective stages.
221
does overdispersed distribution of nematodes have a biological basis, + what does it mean (2)?
there may be an underlying physiological defect to explain this overdispersion. means that you can treat the highly infected individuals - but they may be more susceptible to reinfection.
222
which infection does the nematode Ascaris lumbricoides cause?
Ascariasis (note the difference between the name of the parasite and the name of the disease)
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Ascaris lumbricoides is a soil transmitted helminth, what does this mean + how is access to the host gained?
they're transmitted by human faeces, which contaminate the soil in areas with poor sanitation. Access to host is easily achieved through ingestion.
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Ascaris lumbricoides is a soil transmitted helminth, which part of the body is a major ancestral site for parasites + how is parasite survival ensured here?
Vertebrate intestine (gastrointestinal tract). Parasite survival favoured by availability of nutrients in gut.
225
how is transmission of Ascaris lumbricoides ensured?
by the ease of exit to outside world
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give 5 economic/ social reasons that there is high prevalence of soil-transmitted helminth infections
1. Widespread distribution of nematodes 2. Resilience of eggs to harsh environmental conditions 3. High number of eggs produced per parasite 4. Poor socioeconomic conditions 5. Lack of education
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how many days approximately are between the egg ingestion to larval migration for the Ascaris nematode?
10-14
228
when does egg production start after being infected with the Ascaris nematode?
2 months
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how long do male + female adult Ascaris worms get (2)?
males 10-30cm, females 20-35cm
230
eggs from the Ascaris nematode shed in an unembryonated state, where do they embryonate?
warm, moist soil
231
describe + explain the Ascaris lumbricoides life cycle, and how it leads to Ascariasis (6) xxxxx
1. Adult worms live in the small intestine. 2. A female may produce 200,000 eggs per day, which are passed with the faeces. Unfertilized eggs can be ingested but aren't infective. 3. Larvae develop to infectivity within fertile eggs after 18 days to several weeks, depending on the environmental conditions (optimum: moist, warm, shaded soil). 4. After infective, eggs are swallowed the larvae hatch, invade the intestinal mucosa + are carried via the portal, then systemic circulation to the lungs. 5. The larvae mature in the lungs (10 - 14 d), penetrate the alveolar walls, ascend the bronchial tree to the throat, and are swallowed. 6. Upon reaching the small intestine, develop into adult worms. Between 2 - 3 months are required from ingestion of the infective eggs to oviposition by the adult female. Adult worms can live 1 - 2 years.
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which kind of regions is Ascaris lumbricoides most prevalent in (like exotic, arctic, etc)?
Highest prevalence in tropical and subtropical regions and areas with inadequate sanitation.
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Majority of Ascaris lumbricoides infections (~85%) appear to be asymptomatic but can cause pathology in several ways that are associated with/ due to: (3)
1. Associated with the ingestion and migration of larvae 2. Associated with adult parasites in the intestine 3. Due to “wandering” adults outside of the intestine
234
Severe symptoms associated with the Ascaris lumbricoides larvae migrating through the lungs, name one + what it can lead to
severe haemorrhagic pneumonia – can lead to life-threatening respiratory failure.
235
haemorrhages are common symptoms of Ascaris lumbricoides infection, but what can they lead to (3)?
this may still lead to breathing difficulties, pneumonia and/or fever
236
many parasite proteins from Ascaris lumbricoides are highly allergenic- which 2 things can they cause?
eosinophilia and can cause allergic hypersensitivity reactions such as asthma
237
there are generalised digestive disorders related to Ascariasis- abdominal discomfort, nausea. what do the symptoms depend on?
parasite burden - severe cases can consist of many hundreds of worms
238
More serious and potentially fatal conditions can arise with Ascariasis- what is the main one and which age group does it particularly affect?
mass of worms physically block intestine and need to be surgically removed 85% of obstructions occur in children aged 1-5 years
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"Wandering" adult nematodes outside of the intestine are a problem in infection, where adults can leave small intestine and enter other organs, like.... (4) (+ talk about effects of each)
1. Bile duct - becomes blocked causing jaundice and a general interference in fat metabolism. 2. break through Appendix or intestinal wall - may cause fatal peritonitis 3. Up the intestinal tract - vomited up or emerge through the nose 4. If adult worms enter the trachea they may cause suffocation
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Diagnosis of Ascariasis in non-endemic regions depends on thorough investigation of travel history, but it can be diagnosed in 4 ways.....
1. coprological- detection of eggs in faeces 2. Serological - detection of antibodies or antigens – but presently no point-of-care test available for STHs 3. Molecular - PCR detection of parasite DNA from eggs passed in faeces. (multiplex PCR can detect multiple parasite species in single reaction qPCR enables quantification of infection intensity in children) 4. Image-based diagnostics
241
describe how diagnosis of Ascariasis works with image-based diagnostics (2)
Radiological examination of the small bowel after a barium meal reveals worms as elongated filling defects. High resolution ultrasound showing intestinal ascariasis 
242
which disease is caused by the nematode Wuchereria bancrofti + which family is this from?
Filariasis family: Filarioidea (all nematodes from this family cause this infection)
243
Eight species of filarial nematodes infect humans - divided into three groups according to body niche they occupy: Lymphatic, Subcutaneous + Serous cavity filariasis. name which body part they occupy, some examples + the disease they each cause?
Lymphatic filariasis – worms occupy the lymphatic system (e.g. Wuchereria bancrofti - responsible for 90% of cases) we will focus on this Subcutaneous filariasis - worms occupy subcutaneous layer of skin (e.g. Loa loa and Onchocerca volvulus - river blindness) Serous cavity filariasis – worms occupy peritoneal, pleural or pericardial cavity (e.g. Mansonella perstans & Dirofilaria immitis - dog heartworm).
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which animals transmit filarial worms (2)?
mosquitoes and black flies
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which parts of the world is lymphatic filariasis most prevalent in?
Africa, South America, South Asia Currently, 856 million people in 52 countries live in areas that require preventive chemotherapy to stop the spread of infection. Status of mass drug administration in 2018 shown.
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Wuchereria bancrofti - transmitted by mosquito bite causes a type of filariasis called...
Elephantiasis
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how long + wide do male + female Wuchereria bancrofti get (2)?
Females 80-100 mm (length) 0.24 to 0.30 mm (diameter) Males 40 mm (length) and 0.1 mm (diameter)
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describe + explain the Wuchereria bancrofti life cycle, and how Elephantiasis is caused (6) xxxx
1. during a blood meal, an infected mosquito introduces L3 larvae onto the skin of the human host, where they penetrate into the bite wound. 2. they develop into adults (living in the lymphatics) + produce sheathed nocturnal microfilariae that migrate actively into lymph + blood channels. 3. a mosquito ingests the microfilariae during a blood meal. 4. after this, the microfilariae lose their sheaths + some penetrate the mosquito's midgut, reaching thoracic muscles. 5. microfilariae develop into L1 larvae + then to L3 infective ones. 6. these migrate into the hemocoeal + prosbocis and can infect another person when the mosquito takes a blood meal
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how long + wide do microfilariae caused by the Wuchereria bancrofti nematode get ?
~300 μm (length) ~10 μm (diameter)
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microfilariae caused by the Wuchereria bancrofti nematode have nocturnal periodicity, what does this mean?
circulate in the blood at night + migrate to skin at night
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Although the Wuchereria bancrofti parasite damages the lymph system, most infected people are asymptomatic. however, the main disease this parasite causes is lymphoedema, describe it
improper functioning of lymph system - results in swelling caused by fluid collection - mostly affects legs but also arms, breasts and genitalia - ~25 million men affected by hydrocele (swelling in the scrotum).
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how is elephantiasis caused by lymphoedema?
Swelling and decreased lymph system function also make it difficult to fight infection - bacterial infections cause hardening and thickening of skin – called elephantiasis.
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Filarial infections also cause tropical pulmonary eosinophilia syndrome, name 3 symptoms
cough, shortness of breath and wheezing.
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extreme body deformities are caused by lymphatic elephantiasis (pics included xxxx). name 3 social consequences
1. Social stigma and sub-optimal mental health 2. Loss of income-earning opportunities 3. Increased medical expenses for patients (and their carers)
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Clinical severity and disease of lymphatic elephantiasis progression can be reduced with... (4)
simple hygiene measures, skin care, exercises and elevation of affected limbs
256
how can most cases of hydrocele (scrotal swelling) be alleviated?
surgery
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best way to prevent lymphatic filariasis (LF) is to avoid mosquito bites (easier said than done!), what are some things you can do to actively avoid getting bitten (3)?
1. Sleep under a mosquito net, or in air-conditioned room 2. Wear long sleeves and trousers 3. Use mosquito repellent on exposed skin
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is there any prophylactic treatment for lymphatic filariasis?
no x
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an approach of reducing lymphatic filariasis involves annual mass drug treatment of entire communities and control of mosquitoes with stuff like ivermectin. how would this help (2)?
reduces microfilariae in the blood of infected people and diminishes transmission
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the medication Mebendazole can be used for Ascaris treatment. how does it kill the parasitic nematode (3)?
1. Binds to β-tubulin and inhibits microtubule assembly 2. Impaired uptake of glucose by larval and adult stages 3. Reduced energy production - parasite is immobilised and eventually dies
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why is Mebendazole good for treating GI nematode infections but not tissue-dwelling nematodes?
Poorly absorbed (5-10%) from gut – good for treating GI nematode infections as drug concentration remains high - but treating tissue dwelling nematodes is more difficult. the worm only needs to be paralysed for expulsion of GI nematodes because you can just poo them out.
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name 3 things you can do to prevent infection with parasitic nematodes
1. Periodic administration of anti-helminthic drugs to eliminate infecting worms (i.e. de-worming) (WHO only recommends for high prevalence areas) 2. Health and hygiene education to prevent re-infection by encouraging ‘healthy’ behaviour 3. Improved sanitation to reduce soil contamination with infective eggs (This is not always possible in resource-poor countries or communities).
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the medication Ivermectin helps to kill nematode parasites, how? (3)
1. Ivermectin binds with high affinity to glutamate-gated chloride channels in invertebrate nerve and muscle cells. 2. Binding causes increased permeability of cell membrane to chloride ions and hyperpolarization of nerve or muscle cell 3. Hyperpolarization results in paralysis and death - either directly or by causing the worms to starve
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drugs have a limited effect on adult nematode worms but do prevent spread of parasites to mosquitoes, how?
reduce microfilariae in bloodstream
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how many countries have achieved elimination of lymphatic filariasis, but how many countries is preventive chemotherapy still required in?
14 countries have achieved elimination of lymphatic filariasis as a public health problem, but preventive chemotherapy still required in 52 countries
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how many drug treatments killing parasitic nematodes were delivered to people in 66 countries from 2000-2016?
6.7 billion treatments delivered to >850 million people
267
describe cestodes (tapeworm) bodies like what do they look like?
Dorso-ventrally flattened (flat), ribbon like bodies – cestodes can be very long (but not always).
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how long are Taenia saginata (beef tw), Taenia solium (pork tw) + Echinococcus granulosus (dog tw)?
Taenia saginata (beef tw): 4-12 m Taenia solium (pork tw): 4 - 8 m Echinococcus granulosus (dog tw): 3-6 mm
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the body plan of tapeworms is made up o the scolex + strobila, what are they?
scolex (anterior attachment organ with hooks/ suckers to attach to host tissue) strobila (the segmented part of the body of a tapeworm that consists of a long chain of proglottids).
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a characteristic of tapeworms us their degeneration of non-essential systems, what does this mean?
sensory systems, muscles and locomotory systems are reduced and there is no gut. no body plan- unlike nematodes
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the tapeworm body wall is called the tegument, what is that?
a metabolically active layer through which nutrients are absorbed AND secretions and waste materials exported.
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what does proglottids in tapeworms do?
bud sequentially + grow continuously from the neck behind the scolex, going from immature-mature-gravid (pregnant). (new proglottids replace old)
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how many proglottids does T.saginata have + how many shed per day?
700-1000 proglottids – 10 shed per day (1 million eggs)
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how long can the tapeworm strobila (chain of proglottids) grow per day?
15-30 cm
275
describe differences in the suckers + rostellum between T.solium (pork tw) + T.saginata (beef tw)
276
what do tapeworm rostellum do?
help in grabbing hold of your gut lining- attachment
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each tapeworm proglottid is monoecious, what does this mean?
contains both male and female sex organs - testes and ovaries
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how does proglottid fertilisation happen + what happens after proglottids are fertilised and filled with eggs?
Fertilisation can occur between proglottids of the same or a different tapeworm. After fertilisation, proglottids fill with eggs and gravid proglottids break off the chain and pass out in faeces OR can crawl ‘caterpillar like” through the anal sphincter.
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Gravid (pregnant) proglottids differ between human tapeworm species, but eggs of the 2 species are morphologically indistinguishable. What can we use visually to diagnose specific tapeworms?
Visualisation of primary lateral branches (carmine staining) of the uterus allows differentiation between species and so can be used for diagnosis.
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how do cestodes absorb nutrients, + is it active or passive?
Cestodes absorb nutrients from the host intestine directly through the tegument. This is not a passive process and specialised membrane transport systems exist within the tegument to allow active transport. Act in a similar manner to brush border on mammalian mucosal cells but may also serve attachment function.
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Cestodes have complex membrane transport to allow active transport for absorbing nutrients, name 2 adaptations
Microvillous projections (microtriches) Increased tegument surface area (3-6 fold)
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what are the 2 names of the functional unit of the tapeworm excretory system + what do they extend into?
Protonephridium/ flame cells (due to beating cilia looking like a flame) which extend into a fine tubule
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in the tapeworm excretory system, how do cilia help excrete nitrogenous waste + conserve water and eliminate salts in the process?
Cilia generate current in the protonephridium– excess water containing nitrogenous waste forced into tubule and eventually out of tapeworm body via excretory pores. Allows tapeworm to conserve water and eliminate salts - essential for survival in the host intestine.
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what is a parasite host?
an organism which supports the adult or sexually reproductive form of a parasite
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what is the only definitive host for T.saginata + T.solium?
humans
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what are the only intermediate hosts for T.saginata + T.solium?
cows/ pigs
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describe the life cycles for pork + beef tapeworms (5)
1. gravid proglottids produce eggs, which are ingested by intermediate host containing a larval stage called the oncosphere. 2. cattle (T.saginata) + pigs (T.solium) become infected by ingesting vegetation contaminated by eggs/ gravid proglottids. 3. oncosphere penetrates through the gut wall through the mucosa of duodenum due to acidic environment, passes into blood + encysts within tissues 4. thick membrane (embryophore) forms protection around oncosphere, called a cysticercus. 5. humans ingest infected meat, the cysticerci excyst within the human intestine- scolex evaginates (activated by bile) + attaches to intestinal wall and develops into adult tapeworm.
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gravid tapeworm proglottids produce millions of eggs per day, how long can they last in the environment + what does this do to their reproductive potential?
immediately viable and can remain in the environment for several weeks = enormous reproductive potential
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Cysticerci - ‘measly pork and beef’ is infective for how long + how long can it remain viable for?
infective within 7-10 weeks and remain viable for several months
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Meat carefully inspected for the presence of cysticerci to prevent transmission of tapeworms to humans, what is done to the meat if only a few cysticerci are detected?
the infected parts are condemned and remaining meat is frozen (for at least 21 days; <-7oC) and declared safe for human consumption.
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why is meat frozen when there are cysticerci in there?
Freezing lethal to cysticerci
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what temperature must meat be cooked to be ensured safe of consumption?
at least 56°C (133°F)
293
describe the geographical distribution Taenia saginata (beef tapeworm)
worldwide distribution - common in Africa, some parts of Eastern Europe, Philippines and Latin America – very rare in India as Hindus do not eat beef
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which different ways of cooking beef most commonly cause infection?
Partially cooked, smoked, or pickled beef can be infective, although raw beef (steak tartare) is commonest cause of infection
295
describe geographical distribution of Taenia solium (prokaryotic tapeworm?
worldwide- More prevalent in regions where humans live in close contact with pigs and eat undercooked pork - very rare in Muslim countries as they do not eat pork 
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what do adult tapeworms (rarely) cause in the intestine? (2)
Adult worms can (rarely) cause intestinal blockage (segments lodged in the appendix, bile or pancreatic ducts) or penetrate gut wall but pathology is usually inconsequential.
297
patients with tapeworms can sometimes suffer psychological distress from what/
passing motile segments lol
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Patients infected with T. saginata often experience more symptoms than those infected with T. solium, why?
T. saginata is larger (maximum 12 vs 8 metres)
299
mild symptoms of adult tapeworms include.... (4)
digestive disturbances, abdominal pain, nausea and weight loss
300
how long can adult tapeworms live?
several years
301
Taeniasis can be treated with what medication?
praziquantel
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which is the human body more adapted to, the plague or tapeworms, + why?
The body has adapted quite well to tapeworms and stuff because they’ve been around for ages, unlike the plague and such, which are fairly recent.
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T. saginata more difficult to eradicate than T.solium due to..... (2)
Greater difficulty in detecting animals that are lightly infected Global tendency to consume raw or semi-cooked beef.
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what goes wrong in the T.solium life cycle for cysticercosis to result?
so humans are the normal definitive host for T. solium; cysticercosis results from humans acting as accidental intermediate hosts for the parasite (this role is normally fulfilled by pigs).
305
describe how humans can become infected with cysticercosis?
Humans infected with EGGS either by ingestion of food contaminated with faeces, or by autoinfection. Not by eating undercooked pork. Embryonated eggs are ingested by the human host and those oncospheres which are developing in the gut of the pig actually develop in the gut of the human, and they penetrate the intestinal wall + jump into your muscles.
306
humans can become infected with proglottid eggs by autoinfection, what is the general definition of this + how specifically does it work here?
autoinfection- infection by an organism that is already present in the body. here, humans can have proglottids being carried back into the stomach by reverse peristalsis.
307
during cysticercosis infection, cysts can form in brain, muscle and other tissues. what can result from this? is cysticercosis worse than tapeworm infection or not?
major cause of neurological effects + adult onset seizures in most low-income countries. wayyyyy worse than tapeworm infection
308
is cysticercosis treatable?
yeah if diagnosed early enough
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World Health Organisation estimates that cysticercosis affects how many people worldwide?
50 million
310
cysticercosis can occur in unexpected places, in populations that do not eat pork, describe a real example of when this happened
outbreak in Orthodox Jewish community in New York City blamed on domestic employees from Latin America (where T. solium infection is highly endemic)
311
describe physical symptoms of cysticercosis in the muscles + eyes
Muscles generally no symptoms – may feel lumps under the skin Eyes - rare but can cause disturbed vision or detached retina
312
describe symptoms of neurocysticercosis (brain, spinal cord) (6-ish)
seizures and headaches but also confusion, difficulty with balance, swelling of the brain. Death can occur suddenly with heavy infections
313
cysticercosis is the leading cause of what in Latin America and Africa?
acquired epilepsy
314
cysticercosis accounts for 10% of what in southwestern US?
‘emergency room’ visits for seizures
315
cysticercosis can have symptoms years after infection, due to inflammation of what?
inflammation around dying cysts causes brain to swell
316
where do cysticerci need to be demonstrated in the body for definitive diagnosis of cysticercosis?
in the tissue
317
Treatment for neurocysticercosis depends on the location, number and stage of cysticerci and clinical manifestations. Usually the focus is on the management of symptoms, so how is it treated in this way (2)?
seizure control with anti-epilepsy drugs and treatment of increased intracranial pressure
318
praziquantel can be used to help treat cysticercosis, but how can it also have adverse effects?
As praziquantel kills viable cysts it can provoke an inflammatory response and so can actually make symptoms worse – co-administration with corticosteroids to manage inflammation.
319
what are the definitive host + intermediate host for Echinococcus granulosus (dog tw)
definitive: dog intermediate: sheep, goats, swine, etc
320
describe the life cycle for Echinococcus granulosus (dog tw)
1. the adult tapeworm exists in the dogs small intestine 2. gravid proglottids produce eggs, which become embryonated + exist in the faeces (either infects humans or sheep or cycle keeps going) 3. oncosphere hatches + penetrates intestinal wall 4. hydatid cysts in liver, lungs, etc 5. protoscolex from cyst 6. scolex attaches to intestine
321
describe geographical distribution of Echinococcus granulosus (dog tw)
Northern Africa, South America, some parts of Asia
322
Dogs are the definitive host of Echinococcus granulosus (dog tw), but humans can also become intermediate hosts leading to severe and life threatening complications. which cysts can occur in humans if they are infected + act as intermediate hosts instead of sheep or something?
hydatid cysts
323
how large can hydatid cysts be?
Cysts can be 1–20 cm - larger cysts can contain litres of fluid
324
describe the different structures of a hydatid cyst, using this picture. shown structures: GL (germinated layer), D (developing brood capsules), MBC (maturing blood capsules), P (protoscoleces), CF (cyst fluid), LL (laminated layer) (3 main points)
1. Germinal layer (GL) (20µm thick) is a living, syncytial tissue, within which developing (D) and mature brood capsules (MBC) form. These produce protoscoleces (P, 100µm), (equivalent to cysitcerci). 2. Protoscoleces can either be retained in BCs or burst into cyst fluid (CF) – each protoscolex has potential to differentiate into another hydatid cyst. 3. Laminated layer (LL) is a thick (several mm), non-living, carbohydrate-rich matrix, secreted by the GL.
325
what do hydatid cysts do that causes pathology?
As they get larger, they exert pressure on surrounding organs
326
where can hydatid cysts form (3)?
95% of cysts develop in lungs or liver but as shown in this MRI scan can also form in the brain.
327
there are 'hotspots' of hydatid infection in UK - rural areas with close contact between humans and dogs and there are occupations at risk of occupationally acquired hydatid disease. name 4 of these jobs xxx
1. Sheep farmers – from contact with sheep dogs 2. Dog breeders and dog handlers 3. Street cleaners and waste disposal workers 4. Veterinary surgeons
328
hydatid cysts are usually diagnosed by computer tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), but it's usually discovered at autopsy, why?
as infection is often asymptomatic, so during surgery or when imaging is being used for other reasons.
329
echinococcosis (hydatid cysts) is often expensive and complicated to treat, sometimes requiring extensive surgery and/or prolonged drug therapy. There are 4 options for the treatment of cystic echinococcosis:
1. PAIR (Puncture, Aspiration, Injection (colicide = hypertonic saline to kill protoscoleses), Re-aspiration) technique 2. Surgery - if the lesion is confined, radical surgery can be curative 3. Drug treatment – albendazole (inhibitory effect on tubulin polymerization) 4. ‘Watch and wait’
330
There are 4 options for the treatment of cystic echinococcosis, how is it decided which one to use? (2)
Decision based on location of cyst and both the medical infrastructure and human resources available – but frequent relapses often occur due to late diagnosis.
331
describe what schistosomes are, their public health impact + which disease they cause
they are parasitic flukes (trematodes) they're the 2nd most devastating parasitic disease in terms of socio-economic importance + public health impact. Endemic > 70 tropical and sub-tropical countries. 200 million people infected - 600 million people at risk Also known as Bilharzia or Snail Fever
332
schistosomiasis is classified as a NTD. what does this mean?
Neglected Tropical Disease
333
describe global distribution of schistosomiasis
85% of cases occur in Africa, especially the mid region. also Brazil
334
describe the global distribution of the 3 major species causing schistosomiasis: Schistosoma mansoni, S. haematobium + S. japonicum
Schistosoma mansoni (Africa) S. haematobium (Africa and Middle East) S. japonicum (S.E. Asia and China)
335
what are the definitive + intermediate hosts of schistosome parasite?
1. humans 2. fresh water snails
336
one advantage of secondary hosts for schistosomes is increased reproductive potential, describe how this is achieved
Snails act as an intermediate host for the parasites, allows asexual reproduction to occur in the alternative host
337
one advantage of secondary hosts for schistosomes is increased range of the parasite in space + time, describe how this is achieved
infecting more than one host species allows parasites to survive periods when one host is scarce. e.g. the parasites can go into water, maintain their viability here and infect a snail if there haven’t been humans there for a while.
338
one advantage of secondary hosts for schistosomes is that the intermediate host can 'channel' the parasite towards its definitive host, describe how this is achieved
intermediate host releases parasites into host environment or is part of the definitive host's food chain. e.g. when humans wash their clothes or something in the water, the snail can infect host.
339
what are the 3 major geographical + social factors responsible for maintaining schistosome transmission?
1. Pollution of water with excreta containing eggs 2. Presence of suitable snail hosts 3. Human contact with water infected with cercariae
340
how much does basic sanitation reduces schistosomiasis?
77%
341
there are 2 life cycles of schistosomiasis- the 1st happens within the human host. describe it xxxx
1. cercariae (motile, free living) are released from the infected cell and use water turbulence + skin-derived fatty acids to locate a human host- they migrate towards light where humans probs will be as they're phototropic. 2. they attach to skin + use proteases to break through the epidermis within like 10 minutes. they shed their tail + glycocalyx (sugar coat) to become schistosomula. 3. they migrate from skin-liver via lungs in the lymphatics + progress through 3 developmental stages: skin, lung + liver schistosomula. 4. they mature into adult worms in the liver, where they pair up for life + migrate to their final egg-laying site. 5. paired female worms release eggs, which have a spine, throughout adult life (300-3000 eggs per day). Period of time between infection to egg laying~ 25 to 30 days.
342
which percentage of schistosome cercariae that penetrate the host reach maturity?
30-50%
343
male + female schistosomes are dioecious and sexually dimorphic, what does this mean?
the female and male schistosomes have different bodies + different sexual organs
344
where does female schistosomes live?
inside male's gynaecophoric canal
345
how long are female + male schistosomes, and lifespans of both?
Female 7-20 mm, males slightly shorter but broader up to 5 years depending on species
346
what is the location of schistosomes in the human body?
the venous system
347
which percentage of schistosome eggs remain trapped in host tissue after they're reproduced?
50%
348
why do male + female schistosomes need to pair up?
You can only get transmission of the infection if there are both a male and female schistosome present
349
there are 2 life cycles of schistosomiasis- the 2nd happens within the snail host. describe it xxxx
1. eggs reach suitable freshwater conditions and hatch to become motile (miracidia- ciliated larval stage) + infect a snail 2. remain infective in snails for 6-8 hours after hatching 3. in the snail tissue, miracidium transforms into a non-motile primary sporocyst, producing generations of secondary ones, which produce lots of cercariae (1000s per week) 4. cercariae released from snail can infect human host
350
how are miracidia able to locate suitable snail hosts to infect?
using external stimuli such as light and snail derived chemicals
351
Untreated human schistosomiasis passes through 4 clinical phases, the 1st is cercarial dermatitis (swimmers itch). describe what it's caused by + the symptoms
caused by cercariae burrowing through the skin and causing allergic reaction. symptoms: 1. Occurs on secondary exposure to infection 2. Present < 15 minutes after exposure 3. Continues to develop for 2-3 days 4. Resolves within 5 days also happens when cercariae from a species that can't develop further in humans penetrates human skin.
352
Untreated human schistosomiasis passes through 4 clinical phases, the 2nd is parasite maturation (acute schistosomiasis). describe when it happens, when it resolves + the symptoms
Begins 2-8 weeks post infection - resolves after several days or weeks. Usually mild and transient but can be severe/life threatening. Symptoms: 1. Dry cough 2. Mild to moderate hepatosplenomegaly 3. Pyrexia (fever) 4. Weight loss Giant urticaria (hives) – transient, slightly elevated patches of skin redder or paler than surrounding skin - often accompanied by intense itching – caused by release of vasoactive mediators, predominantly histamine, from mast cells.
353
Untreated human schistosomiasis passes through 4 clinical phases, the 3rd is established infection. After resolution of acute symptoms patient may become asymptomatic, otherwise symptoms depend upon species. describe symptoms with S. haematobiu (4) + with other species (3)
S. haematobium: Haematuria – blood in urine Dysuria - painful or difficult urination Abdominal pain Bladder inflammation Other species (S. mansoni etc.) Abdominal pain Diarrhoea – may be bloody Hepatomegaly – with or without splenomegaly
354
Untreated human schistosomiasis passes through 4 clinical phases, the 4th is late stage infection which occurs after many years after primary infection + presents as one of the several discrete syndromes. describe what they are with S. japonicum, S. mansoni + S. haematobium
1. S. japonicum: Intestinal schistosomiasis 2. S. mansoni: Hepatosplenic schistosomiasis, Pulmonary schistosomiasis, CNS schistosomiasis 3. S. haematobium: Urogenital schistosomiasis
355
Abundant bladder granulomas occur from late stage infection with human schistosomiasis, describe the symptoms
ureteric obstruction and renal failure, bladder cancer, genital lesions, infertility, ectopic pregnancies (female genital schistosomiasis)
356
do you get cercarial dermatitis or acute schistosomiasis if you live in an endemic country or not? explain
You don’t really get cercarial dermatitis or acute schistosomiasis if you live in one of the countries where schistosomiasis is endemic, but if you’re visiting + it’s upon secondary exposure (like if you go swimming one day then go swimming the next day), then you can develop it.
357
Human schistosomiasis is an immunopathological disease, caused by host immune response against eggs which are trapped in the body. Over 50% of eggs remain trapped in host body. describe the 5 factors of the pathogenesis of chronic schistosomiasis:
1. Egg deposition 2. Inflammation 3. Granuloma formation 4. Obstruction of urinary tract or portal circulation 5. Fibrosis
358
granulomas (concentric layers of cells forming a distinct lesion) can form from human schistosomiasis, how do they protect us (3) but how can they also cause harm (1)?
1. immune cells accumulate around egg (trapped eggs can become miracidia) 2. antigens are released by egg/ miracidia (like 4-8 days after egg deposition) 3. miracidia die + the granuloma protects the host from effects of toxins from dying miracidia 4. egg-induced granulomas result in pathological change in liver-leading to disease
359
fibrosis from human schistosomiasis happens when egg-induced granulomas transformed into permanent fibrous lesions by deposits of fibrous tissue around egg. what does this cause + what is the result?
Pipe-stem fibrosis causes portal vein branches to resemble sections of clay pipe stems. Blockage of portal vein branches and development of anastomoses (cross-connections between adjacent channels). (you can get fibrotic regions in the tissue that don’t allow the function of blood filtering to happen properly)
360
describe clinical symptoms of hepatosplenic disease, as a result of schistosomiasis
Hepatosplenomegaly (enlarged liver and spleen). Portal hypertension i.e. a build-up of pressure in the vein connecting intestines and liver due to: cirrhosis of liver (scarring of the liver) ascites (fluid within the abdominal cavity)
361
schistosomiasis infection rises rapidly in childhood, peaks in old children/ young adults at low transmission rates + declines into older age. why? (3)
1. playing in water/not collecting water for the household. 2. Some evidence for immunity also as people age, probs have host defences against it as only 30-50% of cercariae can mature. 3. Schistosomes are able to evade the host immune response – they coat themselves in host proteins to hide within the host. Evidenced by transplantation experiments between schisotsomes from different species.
362
how can we diagnose schistosomiasis based on presence of things in the body? (2)
Presence of eggs in either stool or urine samples Presence of worm antigen circulating cathodic antigen (CCA) in urine
363
describe 3 diagnostic techniques to diagnose schistosomiasis
1. Ultrasound - also evaluates the disease severity and complications in target organs 2. Bladder or rectal biopsy – eggs passing across intestinal or bladder wall 3. Serological testing – antibodies against adult worms
364
describe the schistosomiasis control initiative + the WHO's goals to tackle schistosomiasis
mass drug administration of chemotherapy to school age children WHO set ambitious goals of control of schistosomiasis by 2020 and its elimination as a public health problem by 2025
365
praziquantel is effective against trematodes + cestodes with a single oral dose. describe which age group its given to mostly, the half-life + if it has side-effects
Well absorbed from gastrointestinal tract - but serum half-life of only 0.8-1.5 hours Few side effects and few contra-indications Distributed primarily to school age children (highest infection burden)
366
Precise mode of action of praziquantel is poorly understood but observed effects following praziquantel treatment include.... (5)
1. Increased cell membrane permeability 2. An imbalance in ion transport 3. Loss of intracellular calcium 4. Massive contraction and paralysis of musculature 5. Disintegration of the schistosome tegument
367
praziquantel damages the tegument of trematodes + cestodes, how does this help kill it?
The tegument covering trematodes and cestodes - metabolically active surface Damage to the tegument exposes the worm to immune mediated damage
368
which species of schistosome has elimination schistosomiasis been achieved in?
S. mansoni 
369
name 5 reasons why tackling schistosomiasis is hard
1. re-infection is common due to the presence of the snail host 2. praziquantel is less active against immature worms 3. chemo doesn't always kill adult worms, but can just suppress egg production 4. limited availability of praziquantel- in 2021, only 29.9% of people requiring treatment received it 5. disease control via preventative chemo unlikely to interrupt transmission
370
there are no vaccines or drugs available to prevent schistosomiasis infection. elimination will require integrated strategy. name 7 steps of elimination it will need
1. chemo 2. snail control 3. improved sanitation 4. provision of safe water 5. health education 6. avoiding swimming in freshwater in disease-endemic countries 7. drink 'safe water'
371
influenza causes some respiratory + non-respiratory symptoms in humans: give some symptoms of influenza
headaches, fever, tiredness, joint aches, runny nose, sore throat, coughing, vomiting
372
what is a virus?
a simple, tiny, infectious parasite
373
viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, what does this mean about how they reproduce?
only reproduce within living cell
374
what are the 3 main components of the viral structure?
genetic material (DNA or RNA), surrounded by a protein coat and/or envelope (derived from a host cell membrane)
375
each virus has a 'host range'- what does this mean + give examples of viruses with broad + limited ranges?
limited range of animals which can be infected- differs differs between all pathogens e.g. SARS-CoV-2 has a very broad range, whereas measles has a very limited host range.
376
the genetic material in influenza virus is ssRNA (-)sense, what does this mean about how it can be translated?
it can’t be translated on its own and needs to be a + one before that can happen.
377
Instead of having just one long genome like in SARS-CoV-2, what does influenza have?
8 segments of genome. This increases the coding capacity to produce more proteins.
378
influenza virus has a number of surface proteins: haemagglutinin (HA) is one. describe its functions (3)
Binds sialic acid receptors -> viral entry Agglutinates RBCs Antigenic (neutralizing)
379
influenza virus has a number of surface proteins: Neuraminidase (NA) is one. describe its functions (3)
Cleaves sialic acid to release virus Degrades mucin, allowing virus to get very close to cell + stuff Antigenic (non-neutralizing)
380
influenza virus has a number of surface proteins: Matrix protein 2 (M2) is one. describe its functions (3)
Forms proton channel that facilitates uncoating and assembly Stabilizes the virus budding Antigenic (neutralizing)
381
the influenza A virion is enveloped by an outer lipid envelope- describe its 2 functions
Lipid bilayer from plasma membrane of infected host cell Supported by the M1 protein, which play role in virion assembly
382
the influenza A virion has a nucleocapsid on its outer layer, describe the structure of this
Each of eight different single stranded RNA + nucleoprotein (NP) + RNA polymerase (PB1, PB2 and PA)* basically just RNA with 4 different proteins combined.
383
there are 4 different serotypes of influenza A, B, C + D- according to internal structures proteins (nucleocapsid + matrix)- these proteins can't cross-react. describe the host ranges of all
A: very wide host range- human, swine, birds, horses, bats, dogs B: not too serious- human, seals C: basically not there- human, swine, dogs D: literally no info on it- swine cattle
384
there are 4 serotypes of influenza- A, B, C + D. describe the severity of diseases they're attributed with
A: severe clinical diseases B: generally mild but could be severe C: only mild or asymptomatic D: no information available
385
there are 4 serotypes of influenza- A, B, C + D. describe the ability to unleash epidemics of all
A: most capable of unleashing epidemics + pandemic B: generally cause only milder epidemics C: doesn't cause epidemics or pandemics D: no information available
386
what are the differences between epidemic + pandemics?
Epidemic: rapid spread of infection in a city, state or entire country over a short period of time Pandemic: an epidemic that spreads across boarders, even worldwide, affecting large numbers
387
2 surface glycoproteins are used to subtype influenza virus- describe how specific influenza viruses are named after antigenic structure + classification and such. name some subtypes that have caused epidemics/ pandemics.
Viruses are named like H3N2 for example, meaning the 3rd type of HA and the 2nd type of N2. some cool ones includes H1N1 + H3N2
388
name a subtype of influenza really susceptible to humans
H3N2
389
which animal are always involved in influenza virus pandemics + epidemics?
birds bless them
390
name + describe some influenza pandemics/ epidemics (name the subtype, how many deaths, etc)
Spanish flu: 1918- H1N1, 50 million deaths Asian flu: 1957-58- H2N2, 2 million deaths Hong Kong flu: 1968-69- H3N2, 1 million deaths Swine flu: 2009- H1N1, 18200 deaths
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why, with influenza pandemics, are they never the same subtype (e.g. H1N1) directly after?
people develop immunity to strains
392
describe the influenza virus replication cycle (6)
1. attachment: HA-sialic acid on host cell. virus endocatosed, vessel membrane transferred to endosome 2. uncoating: endosome application- M2 increases H+ -> uncoating 3. transcription: nucleocapsid goes to the nucleus + transcribed mRNA are translated into proteins in the cyotplasm 4. replication: the vRNP (-s) converts to cRNP (+s), then through replication generates vRNP (-s) -> cytoplasm 5. assembly: HA/NA transported to cell surface with M1 + genome segments 6. budding: virus buds off by NA
393
Haemagglutinin exists as trimer in influenza virion. Each monomer possesses two important sites: the receptor binding site + the cleavage site. describe what they are
The Receptor Binding site - confers host-specificity The Cleavage site where the single chain is cut into two chains. At the N-terminus it is fusion peptide which is critical for infectivity
394
describe the difference between pathogenicity + specificity
Pathogenicity: how severe the illness is. Specificity: like how many different hosts and stuff can be infected.
395
Human viruses preferentially bind to which receptors....
N-acetylneuraminic acid- α2,6 linked galactose
396
Avian viruses (bird flu) preferentially bind to which receptors .....(like the molecule)
N-acetylneuraminic acid- α2,3 linked galactose
397
Every cell in the human body has sialic acid receptors, and which surface protein on the influenza is the one that attracts the receptor?
HA
398
why can pigs get easily infected with influenza bless them?
Biochemically, the sialic acid receptor is split into 2 parts. Birds and humans are decorated with different conformations of sialic acid receptors, while pigs have both so any virus that comes out of birds or humans can infect the poor pigs :(
399
one of the reasons we continue to have influenza pandemics and such when basically everything else has been controlled is antigenic drift. why does this happen (2) and where's the evidence it's still happening?
antigenic drift entails minor changes in the antigenic sites of the HA and NA, which makes different strains of subtypes, which causes he epidemics. this is because of: error prone replication + no proofreading. Provides a selective advantage: seasonal flu (epidemics) Influenza A, B, and C
400
one of the reasons we continue to have influenza pandemics and such when basically everything else has been controlled is antigenic shift. describe it, why it occurs + evidence it still happens
antigenic shift is major changes due to a re-assortment of genes that occurs when 2 different influenza viruses infect the same host. also when segments from influenza A and B, for example, can combine, forming a new strain that we haven’t seen before so we don't have immunity. this occurs due to: Segmented genome. Wide host ranges. causes complete change in HA, NA or both, but only in influenza A. usually, requires on-human intermediate
401
what are the 2 most prevalent influenza A viruses?
H1 + H3 are the most prevalent ones.
402
how are vaccine strains selected for investigation + making vaccines against?
The WHO investigates the strain that could most likely cause a pandemic in the next year, which gets sent to a vaccine production centre, and they manufacture + assemble it for dissemination.
403
influenza is treated with the antivirals such as adamantanes such as amantadine + rimantadine (M2-ion channel inhibitors). describe how they stop the virus, which influenza they're effective against, and if resistance is developing.
Treatment or Prophylaxis- Influenza A only CNS + anticholinergic effect, teratogenic The gene for M2 is susceptible to mutations, so strains are developing resistance (90 % viruses are now resistant to this category).
404
influenza can be treated with anitvuirals such as neuraminidase inhibitors like Oseltamivir and Zanamavir. describe which influenzas they are effective against, side effects, how long it takes to be effective + how its delievered
Influenza A+B Generally well-tolerated, some nausea/vomit- most effective within 48h of onset Relief from symptoms for ~1-2 days or less Treatment or prophylaxis (oseltamivir) Oral or inhaled (zanamavir)
405
cheeky map showing major emerging + re-emerging infectious diseases xxx
406
in which years was: SARS-CoV pandemic, MERS-CoV pandemic + SARS-CoV-2 pandemic (3)
1. 2002 2. 2012 3. 2019
407
what is the name of the family that the SARS-CoV- 2 virus belongs to xxxxx
Coronaviridae
408
what are the names of the genus + subfamily that most of the conventional viruses we see belong to?
All the conventional ones we’ve seen that are infectious to humans belong to the genus Betacoronavirus, in the subfamily Coronavirinae.
409
out of gamma, delta, alpha + beta- coronaviruses, which pose concerns to public health usually? (can be more than one)
Gamma + delta-coronaviruses don’t really have potential to cause infections in humans, but the other ones do. The alpha- + beta-coronaviruses are the ones that pose concern to public health.
410
why do SARS + MERS viruses have different bodily receptors?
SARS + MERS have different receptors in the body, hence why they have different intermediate hosts and stuff.
411
More than 500 CoVs have been identified in bats in China, with estimates of unknown bat-CoV diversity reaching >5000. in the 1st pandemics of both, there were 8098 cases of SARS + 2521 cases of MERS- how many people died from each? what is the % fatality rate for each?
SARS: 8098 cases, 774 total deaths (epidemic ended) (~1% case fatality) MERS: 2521 cases, 866 total deaths (infections still occurring) (35% case fatality rate)
412
SARS-CoV-1 was only around for like a year, but SARS-CoV-2 is still going, give + explain 3 reasons why
1. with 1, we knew the reservoir (civet cats), we don't really know what it is with 2 2. with 1, most transmission occurred in hospitals, but with 2, there was widespread community transmission 3. there was no transmission until 24-36h after symptoms with 1 + it had like no asymptomatic cases because it was a bit ore pathogenic. 2 had loads xxx
413
describe the basic story of how SARS-CoV-2 was discovered, diagnosed + named (4)
1. a cluster of pneumonia cases appeared in Wuhan wet market 2. sequencing of nasal samples identified a coronavirus in all patients 3. phylogenetic + genetic analysis highlighted that the coronavirus is closely related to SARS-CoV-1 + a previously isolated bat-CoV called RaTG13. 4. due to closer association with SARS-CoV-1, the new coronavirus was called SARS-CoV-2
414
describe the SARS-CoV-2 genome in terms of single/ double-stranded, segmented or non-segmented, or +ve or -ve sense. also how long it is xxxx how is this different from influenza?
Single-stranded, non-segmented, positive sense, ~30 kb long genome influenza is segmented + +ve sense
415
look at this cool thing xxxx which proteins here are structural?
S,E,M,N constitute the virion
416
give examples of the names of like non-structural proteins in the SARS-CoV-2 genome?
Include NSP1, NSP2, NSP3, NSP14 etc
417
this SARS-CoV-2 genome contains accessory proteins, describe what they are + where are they here?
Produced only in infected cells- non-essential to the virion but needed for replication by antagonising the immune systems when the virus infects the cell. Includes ORF3b, ORF6, ORF7a etc
418
the spike (S) protein is one of the structural proteins in SARS-CoV-2 genome. it helps with entry of the virus into cell. describe what it determines and does for the virus (3)
Host tropism Protective immune responses (vaccines) Virulence – severity of the disease
419
the nucleocapsid (N) protein is one of the structural proteins in SARS-CoV-2 genome. describe what it determines + does for the virus (3)
Component of nucleocapsid Virus transcription efficiency Protective immune responses (vaccines)
420
the membrane (M) protein is one of the SARS-CoV-2 structural proteins. describe what it is (2)
Most abundant amongst structural proteins Assembly of virus particles
421
the envelope (E) protein is one of the structural proteins in the SARS-CoV-2 virion. describe was it does basically (2)
Smallest amongst all the structural proteins Virus assembly, and release
422
which kind of transcription does SARS-CoV-2 undergo- continuous or discontinuous?
SARS-COV-2 undergo discontinuous transcription
423
this is the Replication-Transcription Complex (RTC) of SARS-CoV-3, which proteins in its genome make it up?
non-structural ones xxxx
424
Error rate for SARS-CoV-2 RNA replication is reduced by which proof reading enzyme?
NSP14
425
here is a big thing showing the genomic composition of SARS-CoV-2, what gets transcribed first here?
polyproteins xxx
426
SARS-CoV-2 enters into cells through which 2 routes/ paths?
ACE2-TMPRSS2 Route (Delta variant) Endocytosis Route (Omicron variant) The enzyme TMPRSS2 basically chops the S1/S2 site so the virus becomes infectious + fuses with the plasma membrane, or it can just endocytose. Cleavage of S protein is marker of disease severity.
427
the 1st step of the SARS-CoV-2 replication cycle is viral attachment + entry. describe xxx (litro 1 thing)
Spike protein interacts with cell surface protein ACE2 to enter the cells
428
the 2nd step of SARS-CoV-2 replication is replication and synthesis. describe xxx (6)
1. Once the virus enters the cytoplasm, the genome comes out (REMEMBER it’s positive so the ribosome immediately comes over + starts translating those proteins e.g. pp1a). 2. the viral genomic RNA acts like mRNA- it can directly make proteins. 3. genomic RNA produces proteins + RNA necessary for viral reproduction by hijacking host cell machinery. 4. pp1a + pp1b are cleaved by PL proteinase and 3CL proteinase (smaller non-structural proteins), which interact with the genome and become part of it. 5. NSPs and RdRp make replication-transcription complex (RTC) 6. The genome then becomes converted into sub-genomic RNA, which are translated into proteins which are released into protein-maturing bodies e.g. Golgi.
429
the 3rd step of SARS-CoV-2 replication is viral assembly + release. describe xx (3)
1. protein synthesis happens in double membrane vesicles budding off from ER 2. structural proteins + newly-formed RNA are modified, packaged + assembled before release. 3. loads of viruses are assembled at the same time, until the cell must burst.
430
which certain kind of terrifying storm does innate immunity against SARS-CoV-2 involve?
cytokine storm xxx
431
why are people infected with the delta variant of SARS-CoV-2 in hospital more than people infected with the omicron variant? however, why is there more spread with the omicron one?
it uses the TMPRESS thing. Omicron only infects the upper respiratory tract as it doesn’t require TMPRESS, so the lungs are spared. They will still have loads of coughing and sneezing though, allowing way more spread.
432
SARS-COV-2 causes acute infections that resolve/cure in most humans ( ~innate immunity). describe the importance of antibodies (B cells) in adaptive immunity (3)
1. Important in almost all currently licensed human COVID vaccines- people usually judge how good a vaccine is based on how many antibodies it produces, as this correlates with disease severity. 2. Most COVID recovered patients have antibodies within 1-3 weeks 3. Severe disease correlates with higher level of antibodies
433
SARS-COV-2 causes acute infections that resolve/cure in most humans ( ~innate immunity). describe the importance of CD4 T helper cells in adaptive immunity (3)
1. Critical for antibodies responses 2. Protection independent of antibodies in SARS 3. Cross reactive immunity against pan-coronaviruses
434
SARS-COV-2 causes acute infections that resolve/cure in most humans ( ~innate immunity). describe the importance of CD8 cytotoxic T cells in adaptive immunity (2)
1. Important in many viral infections 2. May prevent re-infection
435
describe where CD8+ T cells, CD4+ T cells, and IgG and IgA antibodies can be found in the body when people become infected with SARS-CoV-2 (3)
436
describe the 3 routes of transmission of SARS-CoV-2
1. droplets 2. aerosols (like breathing, speaking, singing etc) 3. smear infection (like infected surface I think)
437
which, out of droplets + aerosols (routes of transmission) travel the furthest and why?
Droplets are bigger + heavier, and normally don’t go over like 1 meter. Aerosols go about 2 meters, hence why the social distancing thing was 2 meters.
438
Masks are key to reduce transmission of SARS-COV-2. what was the % drop in risk of COVID-19 while wearing masks in rural Bangladesh with this study that was done on like 350,000 people?
11% drop !!!!!
439
there are many different approaches to SARS-CoV-2 Vaccine Development like which kinda vaccines are used. there's around 6 or 7 I think just list some xx
live attenuated, whole inactivated, RNA, DNA, recombinant subunits, recombinant viral vectors
440
Other treatment strategies can be used if someone doesn’t want to take the SARS-CoV-2 vaccine, but none have been proven as effective. name some + explain their effect xxx (6)
1. mAB/ convalescent plasma for ACE-2: prevents virus entering host cell 2,. camostat mesylate: prevent virus entering cell by acting TMPRSS2 3. Lopinanvir-Ritonavir (HIV): inhibition of protease activity 4. Ribavirin (HCV): may inhibit mRNA capping 5. RNA synthesis inhibitors (Remdesivir): inhibits the viral RNA 6. chloroquine group: interfere with the release of progeny from infected host cells
441
this graph shows the really cool increase in life expectancy in England and Wales (1841-2011). this is due to advances in? (4)
public health, living standards (e.g. nutrition and sanitation), medical science and technology, and clinical practice.
442
describe the difference in the definitions of vaccination vs immunisation
Vaccination – refers to having received the vaccine i.e. getting the injection. Immunisation - means both receiving a vaccine and becoming immune to a disease, as a result of being vaccinated.
443
vaccines: induce active immunity + allow immunological memory. explain how both of these help to achieve immunity to the disease
Induces active immunity – induces immunity and immunologic memory similar to that acquired by exposure to natural infection but without the risk of disease Immunological memory – allows rapid recognition and response to infection; prevents or modifies effects of disease.
444
cool graphs showing the effect of vaccination on incidence of viral disease in the USA (white arrow= when a vaccine was introduced)
445
cool graphs showing effect of vaccines on measles in England and Wales.
446
some requirements of a good vaccine include: safety, stability, cost, ease of administration, long term protection, interrupting spread + doesn't cause disease. explain all of these xx
Safety- shouldn’t cause illness/ should be able to be delivered to a wide range of people e.g. elderly, pregnant, etc. Stability- doesn’t require being stored cold (faster, cheaper, better distribution). Cost- link between economics + infectious disease- LICs are more prone to infectious disease- vaccines need to be cheaper + work globally. Ease of administration- oral vs inject. ideally doesn’t need to be administered by a healthcare professional. Also, needle phobia could be dealt with with intranasal stuff. Interrupt spread- instead of limiting the impact on the person, should be able to be killed + stop spread. Doesn't cause disease- elicit a response that gives same immune protection that usually follows natural infection without disease xxx
447
types of vaccines include: Live vaccines, Inactivated vaccines, Subunit vaccines + passive immunotherapy. describe what a live vaccine is
whole pathogen (bacteria or viruses) for which virulence has been artificially reduced = attenuation
448
types of vaccines include: Live vaccines, Inactivated vaccines, Subunit vaccines + passive immunotherapy. describe what an inactivated vaccine uses.
whole “killed” organisms
449
types of vaccines include: Live vaccines, Inactivated vaccines, Subunit vaccines + passive immunotherapy. describe what subunit vaccines are
certain components of pathogens; can be purified; now often generated using recombinant DNA technology. toxoid vaccines, surface protein vaccines, viral vector vaccines, DNA + RNA vaccines
450
types of vaccines include: Live vaccines, Inactivated vaccines, Subunit vaccines + passive immunotherapy. describe what Passive immunotherapy is.
Where you take antibodies present in one body/ host + transfer them to someone else. Can be used with the movement of antibodies from a horse or something to a person, provides protection in warzones. Can be complications with the antibodies as they can form complexes in the human host and stuff.
451
Poliomyelitis is a viral disease that mainly affects children < 5 years of age. what fraction of infections result in irreversible paralysis + what % of these will die when muscles aiding breathing are immobilised?
1 in 200 infections result in irreversible paralysis - 5-10% of those affected by paralysis die
452
Polio cases have decreased by what % since 1988?
>99.9%
453
by 2017, which 3 countries were the only ones which remained polio-endemic (in 1988 was >125 countries)?
Afghanistan, Nigeria and Pakistan
454
WHO estimates ~1.5 million childhood deaths prevented by vaccination and predicts eradication of polio would save how much money??? (1988 to 2035) - mostly in low-income countries.
US$ 40–50 billion
455
this shows iron lungs (Radiohead mention), used to treat polio. how did they work?
people encased in a chamber with a seal around their neck. The air pressure in the container can be changed, forcing the body to inhale without using the lungs. Used as muscles which aid breathing become paralysed with polio.
456
this shows the mechanism of CNS invasion by poliovirus. describe transmission of polio + how it causes paralysis
1. Polio is transmissible by the faecal/oral route (contaminated food), enters the intestine + gets taken into the gut. 2. The virus passes by GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissues) in the lymphatics where it can enter the blood in the liver/ spleen. 3. It can replicate in the tissues, so you get a high concentration of it in the blood, and it can transmit into the blood-brain barrier, which can cause meningitis. 4. It can also interact with neurones using the blood-brain barrier, causing paralysis.
457
there are 3 different serotypes of Poliovirus. 1= Brunhilde. 2= Lansing. 3= Leon. The disease caused by the different serotypes is indistinguishable, but why must the vaccine include all 3 serotypes?
antibodies produced against one serotype do not provide protection against other serotypes. The vaccine has the strains from all 3 serial types but doesn’t cause a paralytic response.
458
how was the live attenuated oral vaccine (OPV or Sabin) against polio originally produced?
by allowing polio virus to grow in non-optimal conditions and selecting randomly occurring mutants that had lost neuro-virulence
459
some advantages of live attenuated vaccine against polio: inexpensive and easily administered, induces both systemic and mucosal immunity, short-term shedding of OPV in faeces, response resembles optimal naturally acquired immune response. explain all (4)
Inexpensive and easily administered - supplied as a single oral dose (costs less than US$0.15 per dose). Induces both systemic and mucosal immunity (because it's oral) - antibodies in blood prevent spread of polio to CNS. Mucosal immune response activates the immune system in the GALT, limiting viral replication, which can block transmission. Also, blocks spread to the CNS by blocking route to the blood-brain barrier. Potent response resembles optimal naturally acquired immune response - immunity is probably life long Short-term shedding of OPV in faeces can result in passive immunisation of persons in close contact.
460
some disadvantages of live attenuated vaccine of polio: may reproduce features of the disease as subclinical/ mild form of the infection, contraindicative, unstable, may revert to virulent form (e.g. neuro-virulence) explain all (4)
May reproduce features of the disease as subclinical or mild form of the infection. Contraindicative - cannot be given to pregnant patients or immunosuppressed patients (people with a medication that suppresses the immune response/ organ transplant/ etc) - side effects likely to be stronger. Unstable - 12 months: 4oC, 6 weeks: 25oC, 1 week: 37oC- will probably need cold-chain storage which is annoying. May revert to virulent form (e.g. neuro-virulence) - serotype 1 required 57 base substitutions to stop it reverting. 2 + 3 needed 2 base substitutions.
461
some polio vaccines use killed organisms e.g. Inactivated Polio Vaccine (Salk). advantages include: Consists of 3 serotypes, cannot cause cVDPV, antibodies. explain all (2-ish)
Consists of 3 serotypes – chemically inactivated. BECAUSE OF THIS, cannot cause circulating Vaccine Derived Polio Virus. Antibodies - prevent spread of poliovirus to CNS
462
some polio vaccines use killed organisms e.g. Inactivated Polio Vaccine (Salk). disadvantages include: sub-cutaneous injection + no effect on viral replication in the gut or viral transmission in stool. explain both
Administered as a sub-cutaneous injection (higher cost, starting at US$1 per dose for low-income countries). because it’s not delivered orally, it doesn’t produce the mucosal immune response- protects the individual but doesn’t stop spread. No effect on viral replication in the gut or viral transmission in stool - protects the individual but as wild polio virus can replicate in gut wild virus can be spread to infect others.
463
describe advantages (2) + disadvantages (1) of Inactive Vaccines
Advantages - Cannot cause infection - Can be given to immunosuppressed and pregnant individuals Disadvantages - Less immunogenic and require addition of adjuvants and booster doses to keep up the memory.
464
What is the role of an adjuvant in a vaccine (3) + give an example of an adjuvant?
To enhance immune response to the antigens included in the vaccine. Mode of actions not precisely defined: To carry the vaccine antigen and slow its release To provoke a local inflammatory response. an adjuvant is aluminium hydroxide (Alum)
465
Unlike most diseases, polio can be completely eradicated. give 4 reasons + evidence things why
1. Poliovirus cannot survive for long periods outside of the human body 2. Type 2 eradicated (1999) and Type 3 eradicated (2019)- required collaborations between the public and large health organisations, as well as funding. 3. Cheap and effective vaccines are available 4. OPV can be administered by anyone - even volunteers.
466
eradication of polio has involved largest public-private partnership for health with national governments, WHO, Rotary International, CDC, UNICEF, etc. but how can eradication campaigns can be compromised?
e.g. in Pakistan and Afghanistan - Taliban targetred workers carrying out polio vaccination programme - children were not being immunised (2018- Nov 2021) and polio cases rose
467
which bacterium causes Tetanus?
Clostridium tetani - spores of this bacterium are widespread in the environment
468
what is Tetanus caused by (toxin-wise) + describe the main symptoms.
Tetanus is caused by a neurotoxin produced when C. tetani grows in anaerobic conditions e.g. dirty wounds. Tetanus is characterised by muscle spasms - initially in the jaw muscles (lock-jaw). As disease progresses mild stimuli trigger tetanic seizures – prolonged contraction of skeletal muscles - serious complications and eventually death.
469
which kind of diseases are Toxoid vaccines for?
diseases that are caused solely through production of toxins by bacteria or something - possible to vaccinate against a ‘detoxified’ version of the toxin.
470
To prevent toxic effect of toxin, what do Toxoid vaccines require + what do they need to retain?
chemical inactivation to remove toxicity but it is essential that it retains antigenicity
471
give 3 examples of toxoid vaccines
diptheria, tetanus, pertussis (causes whooping cough), these are all bacterial infections.
472
an example of surface protein vaccines is Hepatitis B virus (HBV) vaccine. Originally the surface coat protein (HBsAg) produced by the virus was purified from the blood of carriers. describe the disadvantages of this vaccine (3)
Purified and inactivated – 95% protective in trials Derived from human blood – risk of viral transmission Extremely expensive to produce - because it’s required for the surface protein to be filtered out of people’s blood.
473
Now, for the Hepatitis B virus (HBV) vaccine, HbsAg is produced using recombinant DNA technology – gene encoding HbsAg has been cloned into a plasmid vector and is expressed in either yeast or Chinese Hamster Ovary (CHO) cells, then purified. advantage of this?
safer and cheaper to produce (and in this case equally effective in generating immunity)
474
describe how the Astrazeneca/Oxford SARS-CoV-2 vaccine (viral vector vaccine) works (3)
1. Adenovirus from a chimpanzee is modified to be non-pathogenic and contain the gene for the SARS-CoV-2 spike protein + the DNA is inserted into the vaccine. 2. The vector delivers the vaccine into the patient’s body via sub-cutaneous vaccine. 3. Cells take up the gene expressed + produce the spike protein, stimulating an immune response + making antibodies that provide protection.
475
which group of viruses that are one of the causes of the “common cold”?
Adenoviruses
476
what does immunity by DNA vaccines usually involve?
injecting nucleic acids encoding antigens, uptake by host cells resulting in the expression in situ and stimulation of an immune response
477
vector for DNA vaccines?
DNA is usually delivered in a plasmid vector, so it can go to the nucleus produce mRNA and be expressed.
478
Potential advantages of DNA vaccines over traditional approaches include? (5)
1. absence of any infectious agent 2. improved vaccine stability 3. relative ease of large-scale manufacture 4. stimulation of both B- and T-cell responses 5. insertion multiple variants of antigens into single vaccine
479
describe the concern with DNA vaccines
possible genomic incorporation of immunising DNA might activate oncogenes. gene integration in the nucleus could disrupt normal gene functions + activate oncogenes, telling genes to over-proliferate= oncogenesis. So, not licensed for human use. RNA vaccines avoid this concern but are less stable.
480
what does immunity by RNA vaccines usually involve + give an example of an RNA vaccine?
mRNA is usually encapsulated in a lipid vesicle to protect it and facilitate direct uptake into the host cell cytoplasm where is it expressed (produces viral spike protein). Moderna & Pfizer Covid19 vaccines were the first mRNA vaccines to be deployed for mass immunisation of humans.
481
RNA is a relatively labile molecule (likely to break down) compared to DNA so what do RNA vaccines require?
requires careful long term cold storage – Pfizer vaccine at -70°C and Moderna vaccine at -20°C.
482
vaccines can have Primary failure + Secondary failure. what do these mean?
Primary failure - an individual fails to make an adequate immune response to initial vaccination and so infection is possible any time post vaccination. Secondary failure - an individual makes an adequate immune response initially, but then immunity wanes over time (this is a feature of most inactivated vaccines, hence the need for booster vaccinations).
483
Unlike COVID-19, there are some infectious diseases that have been around for some time where we do not have vaccines available. Reasons are a combination of biology and finances. describe 3 of these reasons (can be specific to certain diseases)
1. HIV has an really high mutation rate, with variants arising within a single infected individual – which has frustrated efforts to make an effective HIV vaccine despite significant investment. 2. Parasites are “master immunologists” – because of the chronic nature of their infections they each have various ways to evade the immune response: antigenic polymorphisms and/or variation, drifts and shifts etc. 3. Also most of the people that are affected by these diseases live in poorer countries so there has not been sufficient financial incentive or investment to develop vaccines. usually herd immunity thresholds of diseases are at least like 75-85%
484
describe herd immunity + why it's cool (3)
1. More immune individuals in a population - less likely it is that a susceptible person will come into contact with person with infectious disease. 2. Herd immunity - prevents spread of disease and protects groups who cannot be vaccinated e.g. infants and immunocompromised individuals. 3. These people get some protection because spread of contagious disease is contained.
485
this graph shows Coverage for Measles Mumps and Rubella (MMR1) vaccine. Why are vaccination rates declining? (1)
VACCINE HESITANCY Vaccination has proven to be very good, but vaccine hesitancy – ‘the reluctance or refusal to vaccinate despite the availability of vaccines’ (WHO) threatens to reverse the significant progress made in tackling vaccine-preventable diseases. Vaccine hesitancy reported in more than 90% of countries in the world and has been identified by WHO as one of its Top Ten Priorities.
486
decline of child immunisation against MMR started around the 90s sort of, name 1 specific actual event that caused this.
this neek Dr Andrew Wakefield claimed to show a link between the MMR vaccine and autism and bowel disease – this work has been completely discredited because he's stupid. Measles cases rising right now is probably due to people not getting their MMR vaccines as children because idiots still believe this man.