BIOCHEMISTRY- Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

It´s when both alleles contribute to the phenotype of the heterozygote

A

Codominance

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2
Q

Give two examples of Codominance

A

Blood groups A, B, AB a1 antitrypsin deficiency

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3
Q

What is Variable expressivity?

A

When the phenotype varies among individuals with same genotype

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4
Q

2 patients with neurofibromatosis type 1 may have varying disease severity… its an example of?

A

Variable expressivity

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5
Q

Not all the individuals with a mutant genotype show the mutant phenotype

A

Incomplete prentrance

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6
Q

An example of incomplete penetrance…

A

BRCA1 gene mutations do not always result in breast or ovarian cancer

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7
Q

What is a pleiotropy?

A

One gene contributes to multiple phenotypic effects

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8
Q

Increase severity or earlier onset of disease in succeeding generations

A

Anticipation

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9
Q

This disease its an example of Anticipation

A

Trinucleotide repeat disease (Huntington disease)

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10
Q

Retinoblastoma and the Two-Hit hypothesis its an example of?

A

Loss of Heterozygosity

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11
Q

What is a loss of heterozygosity?

A

If a patient inherits or develops a mutation in a tumor supressor gene, the complementary allele must be deleted/mutated before cancer develops

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12
Q

What is a Dominant negative mutation?

A

Exerts a dominant effect. A heterozygote produces a nonfuctional altered protein that also prevents the normal gene product from functioning

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13
Q

Its the tendency for certain alleles at 2 linked loci to occur together more often than expected by chance

A

Linkage disequilibrium

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14
Q

What is a Mosaicism?

A

Presence of genetically distinct cell lines in the same individual. Arises from mitotic errors after fertilization

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15
Q

This kind of mosaicism mutation propagates through multiple tissue or organs

A

Somatic Mosaicism

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16
Q

What is a Gonadal Mosaicism?

A

Mutation only in egg or sperm cells

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17
Q

What is worst if the McCune-Albright syndrome is a somatic mutation or if it´s mosaicism?

A

If it´s somatic is lethal, but survivable if mosaic

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18
Q

Mutations at different loci can produce a similar phenotype

A

Locus heterogeneity

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19
Q

Which disease it´s an example of Locus heterogeneity?

A

Albinism

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20
Q

Diferent mutations in the same Locus produce the same phenotype

A

Allelic heterogeneity

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21
Q

This disease is an example of diferent mutations in the same Locus produce the same phenotype

A

B- thalassemia

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22
Q

Presence of both normal and mutated mtDNA, resulting in variable expression in mitochondrial inherited disease

A

Heteroplasmy

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23
Q

Offspring receives 2 copies of a chromosome from 1 parent and no copies from other parent

A

Uniparental disomy

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24
Q

What does a Heterodisomy (heterozygous) indicates?

A

Meiosis I error

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25
Q

Indicates a Meiosis II error or postzygotic chromosomal duplication of one of a pair of chromosomes, and loss of the other of the original pair

A

Isodysomy (homozygous)

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26
Q

Is the uniparental disomy an euploid or an aneuploid?

A

Euploid

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27
Q

When do we consider an Uniparental disomy?

A

In an individual manifesting a recessive disorder when only one parent is a carrier

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28
Q

What does the Hardy-Weinberg law assumptions include?

A

No mutations ocurring at the locus Natural selection is not occurring Completely random mating No net migration

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29
Q

What happens or what is affected in the imprinting?

A

At some loci, only one allele is active, the other is inactive

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30
Q

What is the factor that causes the imprinting?

A

By methylation

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31
Q

If there is one allele inactivated, what will happen?

A

Deletion of the active allele that will end up in disease

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32
Q

What´s wrong in Prader Willi and Angelman syndromes?

A

Imprinting, Mutation or deletion of genes on chromosome 15

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33
Q

In Prader Willi syndrome, who suffers the imprinting?

A

Maternal imprinting

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34
Q

Gene from mom is normally silent and paternal gene is deleted/ mutated

A

Prader Willi syndrome

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35
Q

How many cases of Prader Willi syndrome are uniparental disomy?

A

25% of cases

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36
Q

What does it mean uniparental disomy in Prader Willi sindrome?

A

Two maternally imprinted genes are received; no parental gene received

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37
Q

What kind of findings do we see in Prader Willi?

A

hyperphagia
obesity
intellectual disability
hypogonadism
hypotonia

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38
Q

This syndrome is related to a parental imprinting…

A

Angelman syndrome

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39
Q

Two paternally imprinted genes are received, no maternal gene received… How many percentage of cases of this syndrome do wee see?

A

It´s an paternal uniparental dismony of Angel syndrome which corresponds to the 5 % percentage of the cases

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40
Q

Characterized for inappropriate laughter (“happy puppet”), seizures, ataxia, and severe intellectual disability

A

Angelman syndrome

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41
Q

What is the explanation of Angelman syndrome?

A

Gene from dad is normally silent and maternal gene is deleted/mutated

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42
Q

Which are the modes of inheritance?

A

Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X-linked recessive
X-linked dominant
Mitochondrial inheritance

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43
Q

What is this pattern of inheritance?

A

Autosomal Dominant

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44
Q

Which are the characteristics of the autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?

A

Often pleiotropic

Family history crucial to diagnosis.

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45
Q

25% of offspring from 2 carrier parents are affected. Often due to enzyme deficiencies. Usually seen in only 1 generation

A

Autosomal recessive

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46
Q

Between an autosomal Dominant and autosomal recessive inheritance, which one is more commonly severe?

A

Autosomal recessive inheritance

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47
Q

When is more common for the autosomal recessive to present?

A

Patients often present in childhood

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48
Q

Which kind of patients have increased risk to have this mode of inheritance?

A

Consaguineous families

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49
Q

Who is affected in this mode of inheritance? and which percentage?

A

It is a X-linked recessive inheritance. Sons of heterozygous mothers have a 50% chance of being affected

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50
Q

Is it posible to have a male to male transmission on the X-linked recessive inheritance?

A

No male to male transmision

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51
Q

Is it posible to see a female affected by this mode of inheritance ?

A

Yes, but it has to be homozygous to be affected

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52
Q

In which disease do we see this mode of inheritance ?

A

This is a X-linked dominant inheritance. The Hypophosphatemic rickets follows this pattern of inheritance.

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53
Q

Who transmits the disease in the X-linked dominant inheritance?

A

Transmitted through both parents

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54
Q

If the mother is the carrier of X-linked dominant Hypophosphatemic rickets, Who can be affected?

A

Mother transmit to 50% of daughters and sons

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55
Q

Inherited disorder resulting in increase phosphate wasting at proximal tubule

A

Hypophosphatemic rickets

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56
Q

Who transmits this mode of inheritance? A clue is that all offspring of affected females may show signs of disease

A

Mitochondrial inheritance. Transmitted only through the mother

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57
Q

What is the explanation that there is a variable expression in a population or even within a family in mitochondrial inheritance?

A

Heteroplasmy

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58
Q

This inherite disease is characterized by myopathy, lactic acidosis and CNS disease. In the muscle biopsy often shows ragged red fibers

A

Mitochondrial myopathies

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59
Q

Name examples of Autosomal dominant diseases

A

Autosomal domiant polycystic kidney disease

Familial adenomatous polyposis

Familial hypercholesterolemia

Hereditary Hemorrhagic telangiectasia

Hereditary spherocytosis

Huntington disease

Marfan syndrome

Multiple endocrine neoplasias (MEN)

Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2

Tuberous sclerosis

von Hippel-Lindau disease

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60
Q

This autosomal dominant disease manifest always bilateral, massive enlargement of kidneys due to multiple large cysts

A

Autosomal domiant polycystic kidney disease

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61
Q

Which genes are mutated in Autosomal polycystic disease?

A

85% of cases PKD 1

15% of cases PKD 2

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62
Q

Which chromosomes are affected in PKD 1 and 2?

A

For PKD 1 is chromosome 16 and for PKD 2 is chromosome 4

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63
Q

In this autosomal dominant disease there is a mutation on chromosome 5 (APC gene)

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis

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64
Q

For the familial adenomatous polyposis when does the colon becomes covered with adenomatous polyps?

A

After the puberty

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65
Q

What is the common evolution of Familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

Progresses to colon cancer unless colon is resected

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66
Q

This is an inherited autosomal dominant disorder of blood vessels

A

Hereditary hemorragic Telangiectasia

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67
Q

What other name does Hereditary Hemorragic Telangiectasia has?

A

Osler Weber Rendu

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68
Q

Which are the common findings in Hereditary Hemorragic Telangiectasia?

A

Arteriovenous malformations (AVMs), GI bleeding, hematuria, telangiectasia, reccurent epistaxis, skin decolorations

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69
Q

Which kind of inheritance mode does the Hereditary spherocytosis follows?

A

Autosomal Dominant inheritance

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70
Q

Where is the defect in the Hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Spheroid erythrocytes due to spectrin or ankyrin defect

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71
Q

Which laboratory findings do we see in the hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Hemolytic anemia

Increase MCHC

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72
Q

This is the ideal treatment for hereditary spherocytosis

A

Splenectomy

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73
Q

Which chromosome is affected in Huntington disease?

A

chromosome 4

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74
Q

Which neurotransmitter levels are decreased in the brain in Huntington disease?

A

GABA and ACh

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75
Q

What are the common findings in Huntington disease?

A

depression

progressive dementia

choreiform movements

caudate atrophy

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76
Q

What is affected in Huntington disease?

A

Trinucloetide repeat disorder CAG

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77
Q

On what depends the age of onset in Huntington disease?

A

The more CAG repeats the younger the age of onset

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78
Q

What mode of inheritance is Huntington disease releated?

A

Autosomal Dominant disease

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79
Q

The main affectance in this autosomal dominant disease is the conective tissue

A

Marfan syndrome

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80
Q

Where is the gene mutation in Marfan syndrome?

A

Fibrilin 1 gene

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81
Q

Which are the main three organs affected by Marfan syndrome?

A

Skeleton, Heart and Eyes

82
Q

What skeletal findings are common in Marfan syndrome patients?

A

Tall with long extremities, pectus excavatum, hypermobile joints and long tappering fingers and toes (arachnodactyly)

83
Q

When a patient with Marfan syndrome has cystic medial necrosis aorta, which could be te complication?

A

Aortic incompetence and dissecting aortic aneurysms; floppy mitral valve

84
Q

This are the eye manifestations in Marfan syndrome

A

Subluxation of lenses, typically upward and temporally

85
Q

This autosomal dominant disease is related with ret gene asociated with MEN 2A and MEN 2B

A

Multiple endocrine disease

86
Q

Neurocutaneous disorder characterized by cafe au lait spots and cutaneous neurofibromas

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1

87
Q

What other name does Neurofibromatosis type receives?

A

Von Recklinghausen disease

88
Q

Which are the genetic characteristics of Neurofibromatosis type 1?

A

Autosomal dominant

100% penetrance

Variable expression

89
Q

Which gene and chromosome are mutated on von Recklinghausen disease?

A

NF1 gene on chromosome 17

90
Q

This autosomal dominant disease has the mutation on NF2 gene chromosome 22

A

Neurofibromatosis type 2

91
Q

Which are the findings in Neurofibromatosis type 2

A

Bilateral acoustic shwannomas, juvenile cataracts, meningiomas, and ependymomas

92
Q

Neurocutaneous disorder with multiple organ system involvement, characterized by numerous hamartomas

A

Tuberous sclerosis

93
Q

Is the Tuberous sclerosis an autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive disease?

A

Autosomal dominant disease

94
Q

How is the penetrance and expression in Tuberous sclerosis?

A

Incomplete penetrance and variable expression

95
Q

This disease is affected in chromosome 3 (3p), disorder characterized by development of numerous tumors

A

von Hippel-Lindau disease

96
Q

With which gene deletion is associated von Hippel Lindau disease?

A

VHL gene

97
Q

The Tumor associated with von Hippel Lindau, are they benign or malignant?

A

Both, benign and malignant

98
Q

Which mode of inheritance does cystic fibrosis belongs?

A

Autosomal recessive disease

99
Q

This are examples of autosomal recessive disease

A

Albinism, ARPKD (formerly known as infantile polycystic kidney disease), cystic fibrosis, glycogen storage disease, hemochromatosis, Kartagener syndrome, mucopolysaccharidoses (except Hunter syndrome), phenylketonuria, sickle cell anemia, sphinolipidoses (except Fabry disease), thalassemias, Wilson disease

100
Q

Which is the mos common lethal genetic disease in caucasian population?

A

Cystic fibrosis

101
Q

Genetically, where is the site of affection in cystic fibrosis?

A

defect in CFTR gene on chromosome 7

102
Q

Commonly where is the site of deletion in cystic fibrosis?

A

Phe508

103
Q

What kind of channels does the CFTR encodes?

A

ATP-gated CL- channel

104
Q

What is the function of the ATP-gated CL- channel?

A

secrets Cl- in lungs and GI tract, and reabsorbs Cl- in sweet glands

105
Q

After the mutation in CFTR, what happens next?

A

It leads to misfolded protein→protein retained inRER and not transported to cell membrane, causing decrese Cl- (and H20) secretion

106
Q

So… after the increase intracellular Cl-, who else is going to be affected?

A

Results in compensatory increase Na+ reabsorption via epithelial Na+ channels, which leads to increase H20 reabsorption

107
Q

So… if there is an increase of intracellulary Cl-, which leads to increase Na+ reabsorption via epithelial, with increase watter reabsoption… Anatomically which are going to be the results?

A

Abnormally thick mucus secreted into Lungs and GI tract

108
Q

What else does the Na+ reabsorption is going to cause?

A

More negative transepithelial potential difference

109
Q

Which is the diagnostic tool for Cystic fibrosis?

A

Elevated Cl- concentration in sweat

110
Q

Which levels of Cl- do we consider diagnostic?

A

> 60 mEq/L

111
Q

This are other findings for Cystic Fibrosis

A

Alkalosis and hypokalemia

112
Q

How is possible the Alkalosis and Hypokalemia in the cystic fibrosis patient?

A

Because of extracellular H2O/Na+ losses and concomitant renal K+/H+ wasting

113
Q

Which medicines analogues the extracellular effects in Cystic fibrosis?

A

Loop diuretic

114
Q

This are the complication that can be seen?

A

Recurrent pulonary infections (Pseudomonas), chronic bronchitis and bronchiectasis, pancreatic insufficiency, malabsorption and stetorrhea nasal polyps.

115
Q

In newborns, which are the findings in Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Meconium ileus

116
Q

Which vitamins are affected by Cystic fibrosis?

A

Fat solible vitamin (A,D, E, K)

117
Q

Inthe reproduction aspect, what elses does the cystic fibrosis can have?

A

Infertility in males (absence of vas deferens, absent sperm)

118
Q

This are the main treatments for cystic fibrosis

A

N-acetylcysteine and dornase alfa

119
Q

What purpose does it has the treatment with N-acetylcysteine

A

loosen mucus plugs (cleaves disulfide bonds within mucus glycoproteins)

120
Q

Name X-linked recessive disorders

A

G6PD deficiencym, Lesch Nyhan syndrome, Duchenne (and Becker) muscular distrophy, Hemophilia A and B, Ocular albinism, Fabry disease, Brutton afamaglobulinemia, Wiskott Aldrich, Hunter syndrome, Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

121
Q

On what depends the affectance in female carriers of X-linked recessive disorders?

A

Female carriers can be variably affected depending on the percentage inactivation of the X chromosome carrying the mutant vs normal gene

122
Q

What kind of genetic disorder is the Duchenne dystrophie?

A

X-linked frameshift mutation

123
Q

Which protein is truncated in Duchenne syndrome?

A

Dystrophin protein

124
Q

What happens to the muscle if there is a deleted dystrophin?

A

Accelerated muscle breakedown

125
Q

How is the progression of Duchenne dysthropie?

A

Weakness begins in pelvic girdle muscles and progress superiorly

126
Q

Why do we see a pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles in Duchenne dystrophie?

A

Due to fibrofatty replacement of muscle

127
Q

What manuever or sign is common in Duchenne patients?

A

Gower maneuver

128
Q

What is about the Gower maneuver, in Duchenne dystrophie?

A

Patients use upper extremity o help them stand up

129
Q

At what age is the onset of Duchenne dystrophie?

A

before 5 years old

130
Q

This is the common cause of death in Duchenne distrophies

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

131
Q

Which gene has the longest coding region?

A

Dystrophin gene (DMD gene)

132
Q

Which is the importance of dystrophin?

A

It connects the intracellular cytoskeleton (actin) to the transmembrane proteins α and β dystroglycan, which are connected to the axtracellular matrix

133
Q

What happens to the muscle if there is a lack of dystrophin?

A

Results in myonecrosis

134
Q

Which laboratory are you specting to see altered in Duchenne distrophie?

A

Increase CPK and aldolase

135
Q

What confirms the diagnosis of Duchenne distrophie?

A

Western blot and muscle biopsy

136
Q

What is the diference genetically speaking between Becker and Duchenne dysthropies?

A

Usually Becker is a X linked point mutation in dystrophin gene (NO FRAMESHIFT)

137
Q

Which dystrophie is more severe Duchenne or Becker?

A

Duchenne is more severe

138
Q

Which is the age of onset in Becker dystrophie?

A

In adolescence or early adulthood

139
Q

True or False… a deletion can cause both Duchenne and Becker dystrophie

A

True

140
Q

This kind of dystrophie is due to CTG trinucleotife repaet expansion in the DMPK gene

A

Myotonic type 1

141
Q

If there is a CTG trinucleotide repeat expansion in the DMPK gene, What will happen?

A

Abnormal expression of myotonin protein kinase

142
Q

A myotonic type 1 patient what clinical findings are present?

A

myotonia, muscle wasting, frontal balding, catarcts, testicular atrophy and arrhytmia

143
Q

Name 3 types of muscular dystrophies

A

Duchenne, Becker and Myotonic type 1

144
Q

This autism patient is brough by his mother… What clinical findings do you see… What do you suspect?

A

Long face with large jaw, large everted ears+ austism suspect Fragile X syndrome in this patient

145
Q

This syndrome is consider the 2nd most common cause of genetic intellectual disability (after Down syndrome)

A

Fragile X syndrome

146
Q

Genetically, What is affected in Fragile X syndrome patients?

A

X-linked defect affecting the methylation and expression of the FMR1 gene

147
Q

Which are the findings in Fragile X syndrome patients?

A

postpubertal macroochidism (enlarged testes), long face with large jaw, large everted ears, autism, mitral valve prolapse

148
Q

This is another genetical finding in X fragile syndrome

A

Trinucleotide repeat CGG

149
Q

This four diseases are examples of trinucleotide repeat expansion

A

Huntington disease

Myotonic dystrophy

Friedreich ataxia

Fragile X syndrome

150
Q

This nucleotide CGG is reapeted in which disease?

A

fragile X syndrome

151
Q

Which nucleotides are repeated in Freiedreich ataxia?

A

GAA

152
Q

What is the name of this trinucleotide CTG repeat expansion disease?

A

Myotonic dystrophy

153
Q

This nucleotide are repeated in Huntington disease

A

CAG

154
Q

This three diseases are example of trisomies

A

Down syndrome

Edwards syndrome

Patau syndrome

155
Q

Which is the prevelance of trisomy 21?

A

1:700

156
Q

This are the main findings in Down syndrome

A

Intellectual disability, flat facies, prominent epicanthal folds, single palmar crease, gap between 1st 2 toes, duodenal atresia, Hirschprung disease, congenital heart disease, Brushfield spots

157
Q

Which kind of congenital heart disease are most commonly found in trisomy 21?

A

Ostium primum type atrial septal defect

158
Q

When Down syndrome patients are >35 years old, what kind of diseases are at higher risk of?

A

ALL, AML, and Alzheimer disease

159
Q

Genetically, Which is the cause of trisomy 21?

A

95% of cases due to meiotic nondisjunction of homologous chromosomes

160
Q

Which factor plays an important role on having meiotic nondisjunction of homlogous chromosomes in Down syndrome patient?

A

Advanced maternal age; from 1:1500 in women <20 to 1:25 in women > 45 years old

161
Q

The other 5% of cases of Down syndrome are due to…

A

4% of cases due to Robertsonian translocation

1% of cases due to mosaicism

162
Q

Why the mosaicism can happen in Down syndrome patients?

A

No maternal association; post fertilization mitotic error

163
Q

Which kind of findings are shown during the First trimester ultrasound? and Which laboratory findings?

A

Increase nuchal translucency and hypoplastic nasal bone; serum PAPP-A is decrease and free β-hCG is increase

164
Q

What does the quad screen study during pregnancy?

A

α fetoprotein

β-hCG

Estriol

Inhibin A

165
Q

What does the quad screen shows during the Second trimester in Down syndrome?

A

decrease α fetoprotein, increase β-hCG, decrease estriol, increase inhibin A

166
Q

Severe intellectual disability, rocker bottom feet, micrognatia (small jaw), low set ears, clenched hands, prominent occiput, congenital heart disease… Which chromosome is affected? Which syndrome are we speaking of?

A

Chromosome 18, Edwards syndrome

167
Q

Which kind of genetic disorder is Edwards syndrome?

A

Autosomal Trisomy

168
Q

It´s the prevalence of trisomy 18

A

1:8000

169
Q

Which is the prognosis of Edwards syndrome?

A

Death usually occurs within 1 year of birth

170
Q

Most common trisomy resulting in live birth after Down syndrome

A

Edwards syndrome

171
Q

How is the PAPP-A and free β-hCG in Edwards syndrome at the first trimester?

A

Both are decrease

172
Q

What does the quad screen shows in Edwards syndrome?

A

decrease α fetoprotein, decrease β hCG, decrease estriol and decrease or normal inhibin A

173
Q

Which chromosome is affected in Patau Syndrome?

A

Trisomy 13

174
Q

Which is the prevalence of Patau syndrome?

A

1:15,000

175
Q

This are the findings in Patau syndrome

A

Severe intellectual disability, rocker bottom feet, microphthalmia, microcephaly, cleft lip/palate, holoprosencephaly, polydactyly, congenital heart disease

176
Q

It is the prognosis of trisomy 18

A

Death usually occurs within 1 year of birth

177
Q

What does the screen during the first trimester of pregnancy shows in Patau syndrome?

A

decrease β hCG, decrease PAPP-A and increase nuchal translucency

178
Q

What is the problem in the first image and with the second image?

A

Nondisjunction in meiosis I in the first one

Nondisjunction in meiosis II in the second one

179
Q

When does a Rebertsonian translocation occurs?

A

Nonreciprocal chromosomal translocation. Occurs when the long arms of 2 acrocentric chromosomes fuse at the centromere and the 2 short arms are lost

180
Q

What is an acrocentric chromosome?

A

chromosome with centromeres near their ends

181
Q

Which is one of the most common type of translocation?

A

Robertsonian translocation

182
Q

Which chromosome pairs does the Robertsonian translocation most commonly involves?

A

Chromosome pairs 13, 14, 15, 21 and 22

183
Q

What could happen if there is an unbalanced translocation?

A

Can result in miscarriage, stillbirth and chromosomal imbalance

184
Q

What do you suspect with this case?

A

Cri-du-chat syndrome

185
Q

Which trisomies are examples of Robertsonian unbalanced translocation?

A

Down syndrome and Patau syndrome

186
Q

Congenital microdeletion of short arm of chromosme 5

A

Cri-du-chat syndrome

187
Q

Which are the findings in Cri-du-chat syndrome?

A

High-pitched crying/mewing, microcephaly, moderate to severe intellectual disability, ephicanthal folds, cardiac abnormalities

188
Q

What does Cri du chat means?

A

Cri du chat= Cry of the cat

189
Q

This patient has a microdeletion of long arm of chromosome 7… which syndrome are thinking?

A

Williams syndrome

190
Q

What else does the microdeletion of chromosome 7 includes?

A

Deleted region includes elastin gene

191
Q

Which are the findings in Williams syndrome?

A

Distinctive elfin fascies, intellectual disability, hypercalcemia, well-developed verbal skills, extreme friendliness with strangers, cardiovascular problems

192
Q

Why can the hypercalcemia be present in Williams syndrome?

A

Because of an increase sensitivity ti vitamin D

193
Q

Genetically, where is the problem in DiGeorge syndrome and the Velocardiofacial syndrome?

A

22q11 deletion

194
Q

Which are the variable presentations of 22q 11 deletion?

A

Cleft palate

Abnormal facies

Thymic aplasia

Cardiac Defects

Hypocalcemia

195
Q

What are the consecuences of a Thymic aplasia?

A

T cell deficiency

196
Q

Which is the explanation of the hypocalcemia in 22q11 deletion?

A

Secondary to parathyroid aplasia

197
Q

Which are the characteristics of DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Thymic, parathyroid and cardiac defects

198
Q

It´s a microdeletion of 22q11 represented by palate, facial, and cardiac defects

A

Velocardiofacial syndrome

199
Q

Where is the aberrant development of the DiGeoede syndrome?

A

3rd and 4th branchial pouches

200
Q
A