Biochemistry Flashcards

1
Q

how far apart do h bonds hold water molecules apart

A

3A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

deltaG > 0

A

endergonic reaction, not spontaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

deltaG=0

A

equilibirium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

deltaG< 0

A

exergonic reaction, spontaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what happens if you change a protein’s solvent

A

denatures - hydrpphobic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

when can any weak acid or base act as a buffer

A

when ph is almost pka

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

why can amino acids act as buffers at different phs

A

2 different ionisable groups, 2 different pkas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

zwitterion

A

no overall charge but is ionised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ala

A

alanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a

A

alanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

arg

A

arginine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

r

A

arginine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

asn

A

asparagine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

n

A

asparagine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

asp

A

aspartate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

d

A

aspartate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

cys

A

cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

c

A

cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

gln

A

glutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

q

A

glutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

glu

A

glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

e

A

glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

gly

A

glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

g

A

glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

his

A

histidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

h

A

histidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ile

A

isoleucine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

i

A

isoleucine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

leu

A

leucine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

l

A

leucine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

lys

A

lysine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

k

A

lysine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

met

A

methionine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

m

A

methionine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

phe

A

phenylalanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

f

A

phenylalanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

pro

A

proline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

p

A

proline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ser

A

serine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

s

A

serine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

thr

A

threonine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

t

A

threonine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

trp

A

tryptophan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

w

A

tryptophan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

tyr

A

tyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

y

A

tyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

val

A

valine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

v

A

valine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

CORN law

A

l isomers
COOH, R, H, NH2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

resonance

A

partial double bond properties due to sharing electrons between N and O so no rotation around peptide bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what do phi and psi angles describve

A

shape of proteind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

ramachandran plot

A

shows angles around individual alpha carbons
each dot is a pair of phi and psi
shows steric limitations placed on amino acid residues in proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

why is trans conformation preferred

A

8kj/mol more stable than cis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

why is trans more stable than cis

A

steric hindrance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

why is proline sometimes cis

A

less steric hindrance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what physicochemical interactions determine 3D shape of proteins

A

salt bridges
h bonds
vdw interactions
hydrophobic interactions
covalent bonds
disulphide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

charged amino acids

A

asp
glu
his
lys
arg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

polar amino acids

A

asn

ser
the

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

aliphatic amino acids

A

ala
ile
leu
met
val

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

aromatic amino acids

A

phe
trp
tyr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what can form between oppositely charged side chains

A

salt bridgeswh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

which amino acids are ionised at physiological ph

A

asp and glu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what interactions do polar amino acids form

A

h bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what interactions do aliphatic a.a form

A

van der waals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

when is the attraction of a.a to non-polar atoms maximised

A

1A apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

why are atoms held apart

A

energetically favourable to be at that distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what do hydrophobic interactions do to bipolar a.a residues

A

bury non-polar side in core and leave polar outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

why do aromatic a.a not appear inside of protein folds

A

too big

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

why is proline found on extremities of proteins

A

disrupts backbone H bonding in alpha and beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

soluble proteins

A

in cytosol/ plasma rather than membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

properties of alpha heliux

A

right handed/ clockwise
no free space inside
side chains point outwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

alpha helix favoured residues

A

met, ala. glu, lys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

alpha helix unfavored residues

A

pro, gly, asp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

h bonding in alpha heliux

A

every carbonyl o forms h bond with amide h 4 residues along

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

pitch

A

how far it goes up every time it goes round

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

coiled coils

A

stripes of amino acids wrap around each other on different helices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

3 10 helix

A

every 3 residues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

pi helix

A

every 5 residues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

beta sheets properties

A

h bonds between adjacent backbones
antiparallel favoured as h bonds perfectly perpendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

beta barrel

A

entirely made of beta strands joined by h bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

example of beta barrels

A

retinol binding protein
green fluorescent protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

loops and turns

A

most variable and biologically active parts of proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

reverse turn beta hairpin

A

links beta strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

greek key motif

A

fold beta hairpin over 2 beta strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

effect of proline on secondary structures

A

forms kinks in alpha helices
do not form beta sheets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

non-allosteric interaction

A

protein binds one ligand
P+L<>PL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

allosteric interaction

A

protein binds multiple ligands
changes affinity
P+LA+LB<>PLA+LB<>PLALB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Hb structure

A

2 alpha chains, 2 beta chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

HbF structure

A

2 alpha chains, 2 gamma chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

alpha chain

A

141 a.a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

beta chain

A

146 a.a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

prosthetic group

A

non a.a group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Mb structure

A

one chain - 154 a.a
one haeme group
similar 2 and 3 structure to hb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

haeme group

A

porphorin ring sitting in hydrophobic cavity
distal and proximal his

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what stabilises the distal his in haeme

A

o2 forms h bonds with it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

P+L<>PL
what do the forward and reverse reactions represent

A

ka
kd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

P+L<>PL
what is the velocity of the forwards reaction (vf) dependent on

A

ka
[P] and [L]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

P+L<>PL
what is the velocity of the reverse reaction (vr) dependent on

A

kd
[PL]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

mass action at equilibrium

A

[P][L]ka = [PL]kd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

caclulaction for
dissociation constant

A

kd/ka = Kd = [P][L]/[PL]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

fractional occupation equation

A

Y = [L]/Kd+[L]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

low [L]

A

low binding site occupation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

[L] = Kd

A

half of binding sites are occupied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

[L] much greater than Kd

A

most binding sites are occupied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

when does Kd differ

A

if protein has multiple possible ligands with different affinities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Kd equation for myoglobin

A

[deoxyMb]*[O2]/[oxyMb]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what is Kd substituted for with gases

A

p50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

p50 equation for myoglobine

A

[deoxyMb]*p50/[oxyMb]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

p50

A

partial pressure to fill 50% of binding sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

fractional occupation equation in terms of o2

A

Y=pO2/P50+pO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

rank body systems in descending order in terms of po2

A

lungs
resting tissues
exercising tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Tense form

A

deoxyhaemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what affinity for o2 does the tense for have

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

relaxed form

A

oxyhaemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

what affinity does the relaxed form have

A

high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

what does the sigmoidal curve for haemoglobin show

A

positive binding cooperativity
binding of one o2 increases affinity for other sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

hill coefficient = 1

A

no cooperative binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

hill coefficient >1

A

positive cooperativity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

does the t or r state have a higher p50

A

t state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

how does equilibrium shift as more o2 bind

A

favours the r state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

2,3-bpg

A

allosteric effector
binds to T state more tightly than R state
increases p50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

the Bohr effect - H+

A

H+ as allosteric inhibitor
binds preferably to T state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

the Bohr effect - co2

A

co2 binds directly to N terminal groups of Hb forming carbamate
reduces affinity for O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

importance of purifying proteins

A

prevent interference with experiments
remove proteins with related activity
impure proteins resistant to forming crystals in x-ray crystallography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

advantages of using prokaryotes to produce proteins

A

very easy to manipulate genome
easy to grow in large cultures
high yield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

disadvantages of using prokaryotes to produce proteins

A

different post translational modifications to mammals
poor folding of complex proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

advantages of using unicellular eukaryotes to produce proteins

A

easy to manipulate genome
easy to grow in large quantities
high yield
mammalian like post translational modifications possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

disadvantages of using unicellular eukaryotes to produce proteins

A

moderate ability to produce more complex proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

advantages of using cultured mammalian cells to produce proteins

A

full range of post translational modifications
can fold complex proteins

132
Q

disadvantages of using cultured mammalian cells to produce proteins

A

difficult to genetically manipulate
hard to grow in large quantities
poor yield
very expensive growth medium

133
Q

assay method

A

add sample of enzyme to substrate
mix and follow absorbance in spectrophotometer

134
Q

liquid phase of column chromatography

A

solution containing protein mixture

135
Q

stationary phase of column chromatography

A

porous solid matric

136
Q

column chromatography: gel filtration

A

separates based on size of protein

137
Q

column chromatography: ion exchange

A

charge of protein

138
Q

column chromatography: hydrophobic interaction

A

separates based on hydrophobicity

139
Q

column chromatography: affinity chromatography

A

separates based on protein interactions
enzyme-substrate
antibody-antigen

140
Q

how does gel filtration chromatography work

A

carb polymer beads
small molecules enter aqueous spaces within beads
large molecules cannot enter beads

141
Q

how does ion exchange chromatography work

A

medium has a permanent charge
protein has many charged amino acids

142
Q

isoelectric point

A

pH at which protein has no overall charge but is ionised

143
Q

how does charge change as pH becomes more basic

A

overall charge decreases depending on numbermof ionisable side chains

144
Q

how do you alter what proteins bind to the column

145
Q

how to eliminate proteins from ion exchange column

A

change pH
increase buffer’s salt concentration
stepwise or gadient

146
Q

does stepwise or gradient have a higher resolution

147
Q

SDS-PAGE protein purification

A

based on size
gel gives proteins negative charge
voltage passes through gel - makes positive
heavier proteins don’t move as dark as as lighter proteins

148
Q

examples of co-enzymes/cofactors

A

metal ions, NADH, haem

149
Q

where are hydrophobic amino acids found in enzymes

150
Q

similarities of enzymes to chemical catalysts

A

catalyse reaction without changing
reaches equilibrium faster but does not shift equilibrium

151
Q

differences of enzymes to chemical catalysts

A

high substrate specificity
high catalytic power
require less intense conditions

152
Q

Kcat

A

number of molecules a single enzyme can bind and convert to product every second when substrate is not a limiting factor

153
Q

how is enzyme activity determined

A

assay measuring
rate of product formation
rate of loss of substrate
rate of production of cofactor

154
Q

equation to calculate enzyme activity

A

d[P]/dt = -d[S]/dt

155
Q

why must initial rate be calculated

A

substrate used up in reaction reduces rate

156
Q

enzyme activity unit

A

amount of enzyme which transforms 1 micromole of substrate per minute at 25 degrees

157
Q

specific activity

A

number of enzyme units per mg of protein - purity

158
Q

Vmax

A

maximum rate

159
Q

Km

A

Michaelis constant
measure of affinity for a substrate

160
Q

line weaver-burk plot

A

reciprocal of m-m plot

161
Q

y=mx+c of line weaver burk

A

1/V = Km/Vmax * 1/[S] + 1/Vmax

162
Q

irreversible enzyme inhibit

A

covalent bonding to active site

163
Q

competitive reversible enzyme inhibitors

A

bind to active site
overcome at high [S]
Vmax same but Km increases

164
Q

non-competitive enzyme inhibitors

A

bind to allosteric site
Vmax reduces, Km same

165
Q

how does lineweaver burk plot change with inhibitors

A

gradient becomes steeper

166
Q

why can’t we perform acid-base catalysis experimentally

A

not possible to have 2 pHs at once

167
Q

how does RNase perform hydrolysis

A

His 12 acts as base
His 119 acts as acid in first step
reverse in second step
substrate steered into active site by oppositely charged residues

168
Q

what contributes to the catalytic activity of RNase

A

enhanced reactivity of side chains
orienting of substrate wrt catalytic groups of enzyme

169
Q

why is L-lactate dehydrogenase stereospecific

A

Arg 109 angles carbon down to ensure L-isomer produced

170
Q

chymotrypsin

A

c-terminal side of bulky hydrophobic and aromatic amino acids

171
Q

trypsin

A

c-terminal of K or R

172
Q

elastase

A

c-terminal side of small amino acid

173
Q

mechanism of identifying enzyme’s catalytic triad

A

nucleophilic attack - his acts as base
acyl-enzyme intermediate - His acts as acid
substitution of tetrahedral intermediate
general base catalysis

174
Q

specificity pocket

A

orients peptide bond for cleavage by catalytic triad

175
Q

zymogen

A

inactive protease which must be cleaved to become active

176
Q

how are serine proteases regulated biologicallty

A

zymogens secreted from pancreas to duodenum
trypsin activated by enteropeptide in duodenum
trypsin inactivated by pancreatic trypsin inhibitor

177
Q

assumptions of the fluid mosaic model

A

proteins at low concentrations
constant thickness
lipids are all the same

178
Q

truth of fluid mosaic model

A

many protein complexes
many different types of lipids
bilayer constantly changes shape to match protein
all membranes are different

179
Q

amphipathic

A

hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions on the same molecule

180
Q

properties of cholesterol

A

polar OH group so slightly amphipathic
controls membrane fluidity and packing

181
Q

why is the membrane asymmetric

A

each monolayer has a different lipid composition
many cytosolic proteins bind to specific lipid head groups

182
Q

lipid movement

A

lateral diffusion
hydrocarbon chains are flexible and dynamic
lipids rotate freely around their vertical axis

183
Q

properties of rigid gel phase

A

occurs at low temperatures
restricts lateral diffusion
transition temperature is lower with shorter chain hydrocarbons

184
Q

evidence for lateral diffusion

A

different lipids labelled with fluorescent markers
after 40 minutes they had integrated
conclusion: free diffusion of cell surface proteins with hybrid membrane

185
Q

properties of integral membrane proteins

A

embedded in bilayer
bound to membrane by hydrophobic forces
can only b e separated from membrane using disrupting agents
single or multipass
insoluble in aqueous buffers

186
Q

properties of peripheral/ extrinsic proteins

A

bound to surface by h bonds or salt bridges
easily dissociate from membrane under mild conditions
can be anchored to lipids

187
Q

what is unique about membrane proteind

A

either wholly helix or wholly sheet

188
Q

physical chemistry of membrane proteind

A

many hydrophobic amino acid
present hydrophobic surface to acyl chains
difficult to study outside of membrane environment

189
Q

properties of alpha helices in the membrane

A

thermodynamically stable
all h bonds are satisfied
hydrophobic residues face the acyl chains

190
Q

properties of beta sheets in the membrane

A

alternate polar and hydrophobic aa
hydrophobic residues face bilayer core, polar residues face interior
intra-chain h bonds between strands

191
Q

transporter

A

down or against conc gradient

192
Q

channel

A

only allow diffusion down conc gradient

193
Q

na+/k+ ATPase

A

actively exports 3Na+ and imports 2K+ using 1 ATP
inward sodium gradient
negative delta G
free energy used to drive transporters

194
Q

prokaryotic membranes

A

electron transport chain generates proton gradient
drives ATP synthase

195
Q

genome

A

all genetic information of an organism

196
Q

gene

A

basic unit of inheritance

197
Q

difference between ribose and deoxyribose

A

ribose has OH on the 2’ carbon

198
Q

purines

A

double ring structure
A&G

199
Q

pyrimidines

A

single ring structutre
C, U & T

200
Q

why is RNA unstable

A

2’ OH acts as nucleophile to break phsophodiester link

201
Q

char gaff’s rule

A

pyrimidine:purine = 1:1
%C=%G, %A=%T

202
Q

why do bases stack

A

hydrophobic interaction

203
Q

denaturation

A

double strand to single strand

204
Q

annealing

A

single strands to double strands

205
Q

minor groove properties

A

1.2nm
narrow and deep

206
Q

major groove properties

A

2.2nm
wide and shallow

207
Q

persistence length

A

length of DNA along which a thermally excited bend of 1 radian occurs

208
Q

why is short DNA stiff

A

electrostatic repulsion of phosphates pushes against bending
energetically favourable that bases are stacked nicely

209
Q

protein-DNA interactions

A

proteins bind and recognise specific DNA sequences
recognise dna damage
bind DNA non-spefifically]

210
Q

dNTP

A

deoxyribo nucleotide triphosophate

211
Q

DNA polymerase 3

A

main replicating enzyme
9 subunits
250-1000 nucleotides per second
3’-5’ exonuclease activity
proofreading

212
Q

DNA polymerase requirements

A

dNTPs as precursors
can only add dNTP to 3’ end of nucleic acid
3’ primer
magnesium ion

213
Q

initiating DNA replication

A

initiator binds to origin
easily melted A&T nucleotides separated
DNA helices binds to break more H bonds

214
Q

ssDNA binding proteins

A

prevents reannealing of sDNA during replication
DNA polymerase removes them as it goes along

215
Q

properties of primase

A

synthesises RNA primers
binds to 3’ hydroxyl
no proofreading
no specific initiation sequence
frequency of priming is different in leading and lagging strands

216
Q

how often does replication restart in the lagging strand

A

~1000 bases

217
Q

direction of DNA replication

A

5’ to 3’

218
Q

purpose of mg ion in polymerase catalytic site

A

stabilise the phosphate
activate OH to make it a better nucleophile

219
Q

requirements for polymerase catalytic site

A

asp residues
mg ion
triphosphate

220
Q

nuclease

A

cleaves phosphodiester bonds

221
Q

exonuclease

A

ends of nucleic acid

222
Q

endonuclease

A

within nucleic acid

223
Q

prokaryotic connecting Okazaki fragments

A

polymerase 1 removes primers and replaces with DNA
3’-5’ exonuclease rpoofreading
DNA ligase catalyses phosphate linkage

224
Q

terminating replication

A

tus binds to terminating sequence
physical block to replication fork

225
Q

direct repair

A

specific base damage
removed directly by enzyme

226
Q

mismatch repair

A

incorrect bases

227
Q

base excision repair

A

range of damaged bases

228
Q

nucleotide excision repair

A

wide range of bulky DNA damage

229
Q

RNA secondary structures

A

helices
hairpins
bulges

230
Q

RNA base interactions

A

AU, GU, AUA triple

231
Q

prokaryotic RNA polymerase requirements

A

all dNTPs
3’ hydroxyl to attach dNTPs
starts at A or G
promoter DNA and sigma unit to initiate

232
Q

bacterial promoters properties

A

where RNA polymerase starts transcription
define which strand is copied
requires sigma factors
different strengths

233
Q

promoter strength

A

stronger promoters produce more proteins

234
Q

promoter unwinding

A

positions new nucleotide into the active site of RNA polymerase
defines where transcription starts

235
Q

rho-dependent transcription termination

A

occurs at specific sequences
binds to rut sites in transcription
pulls RNA out of RNA polymerase so RNAP falls off

236
Q

rho-independent trasnscription termination

A

occurs at specific sequences

237
Q

transcription inhibitors
rifampicin

A

binds to beta subunit of bacterial RNAP
prevents initiation but not elongation
blocks path of elongation at 2-3nt length

238
Q

transcription inhibitors
actinomycin D

A

intercalates into DNA
prevents initiation and elongation
can also interfere with replication

239
Q

which amino acids to pyrimidines generally code for

A

hydrophobic

240
Q

which amino acids to purines generally code for

A

hydrophillic

241
Q

silent or synonymous mutations

A

same Amino acids

242
Q

missense or non synonymous

A

changes 1 amino acid

243
Q

nonsense or stop

A

truncated protein

244
Q

frameshift

A

scrambled protein structure

245
Q

properties of tRNA

A

small, 74-93 nucleotides long
folds from clover to L shape

246
Q

wobble position

A

1st and 2nd codons bind to tRNA normally but 3rd is less constrained

247
Q

activation of amino acids

A

catalysed by amino acyl tRNA transferases
aa added to ATP releasing 2Pi
aa added to tRNA forming amino acyl tRNA
releases AMP

248
Q

why must amino acids be activated

A

peptide bond formation between free amino acids is unfavourable

249
Q

can ribosomes check aa

250
Q

amino acid recognition

A

synthetases are highly specific
correct aa has highest affinity for active site of synthetase

251
Q

tRNA recognition

A

synthetases must recognise correct tRNA
structurally and chemically complimentary

252
Q

aa proofreading

A

after initial attachment, aa forced into editorial site
only incorrect aa fit
once in, hydrolysed from tRNA

253
Q

peptide tRNA

A

bound to mRNA and had polypeptide chain attached

254
Q

amino acyl tRNA

A

free with next amino acid in chain attached

255
Q

prokaryotic 50S component

A

Mr 1.6 million
rRNA and proteins

256
Q

prokaryotic 30S component

A

Mr 900k
rRNA and proteins

257
Q

initiation of translation in prokaryotes

A

5’-3’ at AUG or GUG codon
30S component binds to ribosome binding site and places AUG in active site
IF 1,2 and 3 + GTP allow 50S component to bind
forms 70S initiation complex

258
Q

elongation of translation in prokaryotes

A

amino acyl tRNA binds to empty A site
proofread and EF-Tu dissociates
peptide transferase reaction
large subunit translocation
small subunit translocatiom

259
Q

explain proofreading during elongation of prokaryotic translation

A

GTP hydrolysed
incorrect tRNA dissociates

260
Q

what escorts tRNA to the A site

261
Q

describe the peptide transferase reaction

A

bond to peptidyl tRNA broken
chain transferred to amino acyl tRNA
synthesis starts at N terminus and new amino acid is added to C terminus
catalysed by ribozyme

262
Q

ribozyme

263
Q

explain large subunit translocation

A

large subunit moves forward
stabilised by EF-G
GTP binds to A site
energetically unfavourabke

264
Q

explain small subunit translocation

A

GDP released
small subunit moves to next codon
energetically favourable

265
Q

termination in prokaryotic translation

A

release factor binds to stop codon in A site
C terminus hydrolysed and protein released

266
Q

why does the release factor cause ribosome to detach

A

ribosome changes conformation so subunits detach and mRNA is released

267
Q

why are prokaryotic transcription and translation coupled

A

dna and ran are both in the cytosol

268
Q

antibiotics properties

A

stall initiation
prevent elongation
induce miscoding

269
Q

basal transcriptional activity

A

genes are always on unless controlled
strength of promoter dictates gene expression

270
Q

genetic switches

A

repressors or activators
proteins that bind to specific dna sequence controlled by binding of a ligand

271
Q

repressors

A

bind to operators
cause RNA to detach

272
Q

operator

A

overlaps with RNAP binding site

273
Q

activators

A

bind to sites which do not overlap with RNAP binding site
helps RNAP bind to promoter

274
Q

purpose of the lac operon

A

low glucose but still need to synthesise ATP so uses lactose

275
Q

the lac repressor

A

RNAP binds in the presence of lactose
releases lac repressor from operator

276
Q

the CAP activator

A

CAP detects cAMP
CAP binds to operon, cAMP binds to CAP
RNAP binds

277
Q

when are high levels of cAMP present

A

low levels of glucose

278
Q

lac operon when glucose is present and lactose is not

A

expression of lac operon repressed

279
Q

lac operon when glucose is not present but lactose is

A

lac operon expressed

280
Q

no glucose or lactose in lac operon

A

expression repressed

281
Q

glucose and lactose present in lac operon

282
Q

lamda repressor process

A

lamda repressor binds to OR1
at high concentrations more lambda repressor binds to OR2
at higher concentrations binds to OR3 SO RNAP cannot bind
cro repressor blocked

283
Q

why does lama repression fail

A

DNA damage so proteolysis of lambda repressor
cro repressor promoter no longer blocked

284
Q

cro repressor

A

RNAP binds to cro promoter producing cro repressor
lamda bacteriophage genes expressed
lytic state reachedq

285
Q

lamda repressor high, cro low

A

lysogenic state

286
Q

lamda repressor low, cro high

A

lytic state

287
Q

size of DNA double helix

288
Q

size of beads on a string form

289
Q

size of chromatin fibre of nucleosomes

290
Q

why can we not be sure of 30nm fibre

A

never actually been observed in the cell
may only exist due to extracellular environment

291
Q

size of chromatin fibre folded into loops

292
Q

size of mitotic chromosome

293
Q

structure of histone

A

2 copies of 8 proteins

294
Q

chromatin remodelling enzymes

A

use energy from hydrolysis of ATP

295
Q

ISW1 enzyme

A

slides nucleosome along DNA

296
Q

SW1/ SNF enzyme

A

removes nucleosomes from DNA

297
Q

histone acetyltransferase function

A

relaxes chromatin via acettylation

298
Q

histone deacetylase function

A

condenses chromatin

299
Q

differences of eukaryotic DNA replication to prokaryotic genes

A

during S phase
slower DNAP
multiuple origins of replication as multiple chromosomes
end replication problem solved by telomerase

300
Q

differences of eukaryotic transcription to prokaryotic transcriptiuon

A

RNAPs require accesory factors for each stage in the cycle
promoters are more complex
RNAPs transcribe through chromatin

301
Q

why does pre-mRNA require processing

A

unstable
cannot leave nucleus
cannot bind to ribosome

302
Q

why can only RNAP2 transcripts be processed

A

1&3 do not produce translatable mRNA

303
Q

5’ capping process

A

M7G linked through onverted 5’-5’ triphosphate bridge to initiating nucleotide of a nascent script

304
Q

why is 5’ capping important

A

prevent RNA degradation by exonucleases
allows transport from nucleus to cytoplasm
initiates translation
recruits splicing factors

305
Q

mRNA splicing

A

introns removed by spliceosome complex

306
Q

why is splicing useful

A

different protein combinations can be produced by combining different exon sequences

307
Q

polyadenylation process

A

ployA tails added to mRNA at the end of transcription by poly-A polymerasew

308
Q

why is polyadenylation useful

A

protects RNA from degradation
transport of RNA from nucleus to cytoplasm
assists action of ribosome
termination

309
Q

preparing DNA for recombination

A

add phenol and centrifuge
aqueous layer is DNA and RNA, phenol layer is protein
add ethanol
DNA precipitate left

310
Q

source of restriction endonucleases

311
Q

restriction endonuclease recognition sites

A

specific 4-8bp palindromic sequences

312
Q

activity of restriction endonucleases

A

cut dsDNA
leaves 5’ sticky ends or blunt ends

313
Q

digestion frequency

A

how often RE cuts
4^n
4 = number of bases
n = length of recognition sequences

314
Q

DNA ligation

A

covalent bonding of fragments to each other
complementary base pairing forms H bonds

315
Q

process of DNA ligation

A

T4 DNA ligase joins nucleotides
uses 2ATP
produces 2 AMP and 2 Pi
both gaps closed

316
Q

how to produce a viral vector

A

replace lamda DNA with foreign DNA
produce viral assay

317
Q

how to produce bacterial plasmid vector

A

many unique RE sites to insert foreign DNA

318
Q

cloning eukaryotic genes using reverse transcriptase

A

synthesises cDNA using oligo(dT) primer which binds to poly-A
RNA/DNA hybrid forms
RNAse H digests RNA
ssDNA forms hairpin which primes cDNA
DNAP added to form DNA
S1 nuclease opens hairpin

319
Q

in-vitro DNA synthesis in a tube

A

ssDNA primer + 4 dNTPs + ssDNA template + Taq DNA polymerase
heat to 95 degrees to break H bonds

320
Q

Taq polymerase properties

A

heat resistant but prone to error
no proofreading

321
Q

PCR for gene cloning

A

not dependent on RE sites
greater specificity

322
Q

PCR for viral screening

A

highly sensitive
shows virus before symptoms appear

323
Q

PCR for forensics

A

DNA fingerprinting
familial linkage

324
Q

sanger DNA sequencing

A

dideoxyribonucleotides
determine order of bases
screen mutations of variants
validates PCR

325
Q

Sanger’s method

A

template + primer + dNTPs + 35-S-dCTP + Taq DNAP
tubes have different dNTPs
each reaction terminates at a different base
add products to respective lane of gel
electrical field
read manually 5’-3’

326
Q

improvements to sanger’s method

A

flourescent dNTPs over radioactive
performed in a single tube