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Integ Patho (PTH 701) Quiz #1 > BioBurden! > Flashcards

BioBurden! Flashcards

1
Q

What is gram positive look like after gram staining?

A

Purple circle

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2
Q

What is gram negative look like after gram staining?

A

Red cyclinders

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3
Q

In bacterial morphology, what are spheres called?

A

Cocci

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4
Q

In bacterial morphology, what are “pleomorphic” shapes (hybrid between sphere and rod) called?

A

Coccobacilli

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5
Q

In bacterial morphology, what are rods called?

A

Bacilli

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6
Q

What is the normal WBC?

A

4400-11000 cells/mm^3 (4.4-11)

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7
Q

What is the WBC count in Leukocytosis?

A

Greater than 11000 cells/mm^3 (> 11)

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8
Q

What is a “shift to the left?”

A

Refers to the finding of a higher proportion of band or stab cells (immature neutrophils)

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9
Q

The presence of what % of bands is considered abnormal?

A

> 3-5% bands

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10
Q

According to George Allen, what is the most important vital sign to know - The Cardinal Sign of Infection?

A

HIGH FEVER!

> 38.8 degrees C or 100 degrees F orally

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11
Q

What are the 4 Agranulocytes?

A

Monocyte
B lymphocyte
T lymphocyte
Macrophages

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12
Q

Monocytes become what?

A

Macrophages

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13
Q

What are the 3 Granulocytes? Which one is most common

A

Basophil - 0-1%
Eosinophil - 1-3%
Neutrophil - 50-70%

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14
Q

What are the 5 markers along the Infection Spectrum?

A 
Prophylaxis - No infection
(no title) - Infection
Empiric - Symptoms (broad)
Definitive - Pathogen isolation (narrow-spectrum)
Suppressive - Resolution

(P EDS)

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15
Q

Who is Andrew Wakefield?

A

Fraud.
Stated there was a link between Vaccines and Autism
Proven false
Millions pissed off - but some celebrities digress

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16
Q

What are normal pathogens in the blood?

A

None! Normally sterile

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17
Q

What are normal pathogens (normal flora) in the genitals?

A 
Staphylococcus. spp
Lactobacillus spp.
Diphtheroids
Enterococcus spp.
Streptococcus spp.
Gram-negative rods
Anaerobes
Yeast

All others are bad

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18
Q

According to Christian Jorns, what kills people in MRSA?

A

PVL - a virulence factor that targets the cell membrane of neutrophils, leading to the release of inflammatory mediators that produce necrosis and abscess formation, as well as possible neutropenia

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19
Q

What are common sites for infection?

A 
Bacterial meningitis
Otitis media
Pneumonia
Skin infections
Eye infections
Sinusitis
URTI
Gastritis
Food poisoning
UTI
STDs
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20
Q

What is the microbe that is associated with the greatest risk off MRSA?

A

Fluoroquinolones

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21
Q

What % of those with skin and soft tissue infections have MRSA?

A

76%

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22
Q

What are the 5 C’s for the Transmission of MRSA????? (WILL BE EXTRA CREDIT PER SHEA RODRIGUES ET AL)

A 
Crowding
Frequent Skin to skin Contact
Compromised skin integrity
Contaminated items and surfaces
Lack of Cleanliness
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23
Q

In regards to patient-specific susceptibility reports, what does R stand for?

A

Resistance

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24
Q

In regards to patient-specific susceptibility reports, what does I stand for?

A

Intermediate resistance

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25
Q

In regards to patient-specific susceptibility reports, what does S stand for?

A

Suspetible

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26
Q

When choosing a drug for a patient, In regards to patient-specific susceptibility reports, what letter do you choose

A

ALWAYS CHOOSE THE S

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27
Q

What decreases resistance to MRSA

A

Increased exposure to antimicrobials

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28
Q

Does the evidence state that silver dressings provide benefits for clinically infected wounds?

A

NO! No evidence supports this claim for the use of silver-based dressings.

29
Q

In terms of bacterial characteristics, what do spores do?

A

Enhance survival

30
Q

In terms of bacterial characteristics, what does Biofilm do?

A

Allow organisms to adhere to surfaces and limit antimicrobial exposure

31
Q

In terms of bacterial characteristics, what does plasmid do?

A

Genetic transmission between microbes

32
Q

Should you high five or fist bump?

A

Fist bump

33
Q

After what event was there a lot of nosocomial transmission?

A

Haiti Earthquake

34
Q

Can dogs give you MRSA?

A

Yes.

35
Q

Are more people giving vaccines to their children

A

Despite the increase in overall resistance, the answer is NO! (Thanks to Andrew Wakefield and the celebrities he influenced)

36
Q

When was the 1st gram + coccus identified for Staphylococcus Aureus?

A

1880 (named after gold grapes by Alexander Ogston)

37
Q

What does Staph. A. do? Where does it do its work?

A

Commonly colonizes the skin and nasal muscosa - a cause of skin/soft tissue infections, pneumonia, meningitis, osteomyelitis, endocarditis, bacteremia, and sepsis

38
Q

Which position in football poses the greatest risk for MRSA?

A

Linemen

39
Q

Which position in football poses the smallest risk for MRSA?

A

Quarterbacks

40
Q

Do older people get HA-MRSA or CA-MRSA?

A

HA-MRSA

41
Q

If all S in patient-specific susceptibility report, which do you choose?

A

The antimicrobial with the lowest MIC

42
Q

Is there a link between antimicrobial use and resistance?

A

Yes

43
Q

How many years (Approximately) does it take for a antibiotic to be resisted by the general public?

A

Only a few years; happens relatively quickly

44
Q

What is the difference between gram + and - regarding cell walls and petidoglycan layers?

A

Gram positive - thick peptidoglycan layer and NO outer cell membrane (positive for peptidoglycan)

Gram negative - has an outer cell membrane but a thin peptidoglycan layer

45
Q

What route of administration is most preferred when giving drugs?

A

ORAL!

46
Q

What are the 5 different classifications of Bacteria?

A 
Gram staining
Morphology
Aerobes versus anaerobes
Other growth requirements
Biochemical testing
47
Q

How do we use antimicrobials?

A

A continuum of infectious diseases exists, including self-limiting infections, acute infections, and chronic diseases. Antimicrobial therapy is often initiated before a diagnosis is made, a pathogen is cultured, and/or antimicrobial susceptibility is known (Prophylaxis)

48
Q

What are 6 different drug factors to consider?

A 
Spectrum of activity against suspected pathogens
Evidence of efficacy
Pharmokinetic factors
Safety and toxicity of profile
Ease of administration
Cost
49
Q

What are 10 host factors for assessing infections?

A

Age
Suspected site of infection and drug delivery to thaat site
Co-morbidities and predisposing conditions
Severity - osteomyelitis?
Immune status (age, use of systemic corticosteroids, immunosuppression)
Antimicrobial exposure - previous, concurrent
Allergy history
Pharmokinetic Changes (renal hepatic impairment, weight)
Pregnancy and lactation
Epidermiologic factors

50
Q

What is the PEDIS Scale?

A

Uninfected - 1 - no signs or symptoms
Mild - 2 - erythema 0.5cm to 2cm. Local infection only to skin and subcutaneous tissue
Moderate - 3 - Local infection involving structures deeper than skin and subcutaneous tissue AND no systemic inflammatory response signs. Erythemia > 2 cm
Severe - 4 - Local infection with signs of SIRS. Has 2 or more of the following: (see PowerPoint - not displaying here)

51
Q

What is The Treatment Approach? (3)

A

Topical treatments
Systemic treatments
Surgical interventions

52
Q

How do you diagnose skin and soft tissue infections? (3)

A 
Gram stain of pus or exudate, etc.
Wound cultures (tissue removal, aspiration, swabs)
Other tests:
-The "probe to bone" test
-radiologic imaging
53
Q

What are 6 infectious agents?

A 
Bacteria
Viruses
Fungi
Parasites
Prions
Toxins
54
Q

Aspects of a microbiology report?

A

Quantity of organisms
Specimen quality
# of samples
Contaminents and normal flora versus pathogens

55
Q

3 aspects of the microbiology of the skin?

A

Gram + bacteria
Gram - bacteria
Fungi

56
Q

What is Measuring antimicrobial susceptibility?

A

Test of microorganism to grow in presence of particular antimicrobial concentration in VITRO –> used to predict clinical success and measure and detect antimicrobial resistance in VIVO

Qual and Quan methods exist

Performed and interpreted according to guidelines published by the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI)

57
Q

How does Disk Diffusion work?

A

Paper discs are impregnated with a defined amount of antimicrobial.
The diameter of the zone of growth inhibition around each disc is measured and is then used to determine to MIC
A qualitative method of susceptibility testing

58
Q

How does microdiluation work?

A

A range of antimicrobial concentrations in 1:2 dilutions is tested; all concentrations are expressed in ,g/L (mcg/mL) of that antimicrobial

59
Q

How does Etest work?

A

The Etest is a plastic strip that is impregnated with a range of concentrations of an antimicrobial

The MIC is defined as the point at which the ellipse of bacterial growth intersects with the Etest

60
Q

A suspention of ? of the bacterium being tested is added for susceptibility testing?

A

~10^5 CFU/mL

61
Q

How long are tubes incubated?

A

24 hours

62
Q

What is the MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)

A

The lowest antimicrobial concentration that inhibits visible growth

63
Q

How do beta-lactums kill bacteria?

A

Penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) cross-link the components of bacterial cell walls –> beta-lactums bind to PBPs and decrease cell wall synthesis, leading to cell death

64
Q

Individuals exposed to antimicrobials are at nearly a ??? risk of acquiring MRSA?

A

2-fold

65
Q

What 3 things are clearly associated with acquisition of MRSA?

A

Glycopeptides (vancomycin), cephalosporins, and other beta-lactums

66
Q

What are outcomes of MRSA infection? (6)

A 
Lost productivity
Higher hospitalization rates
Longer hospital stays
Higher rates of co-morbidities such as acute renal failure, hempdynamic instability, ventilator dependency, and ICU resistance
Higher healthcare costs
Higher mortality
67
Q

What are the 9 Fallacies in antimicrobial use? (9 things you should NOT do)

A 
Broader is better
Failure to respond is failure to cover
When in doubt, change drugs or add another
More diseases, more drugs
Sickness requires immediate treatment
Response implies diagnosis
Bigger disease, bigger drugs
Bigger disease, newer drugs
Antibiotics are non-toxic
68
Q

What are 7 ways to prevent the transmission of MRSA?

A

MRSA risk assessment, monitoring, & reporting
Compliance with hand-hygiene practices
Contact precautions for colonized or infected patients
Cleaning and disinfection of equipment and the environment
Education of healthcare personnel, patients, and family
Active surveillance in patients and healthcare workers
Routine bathing and decolonization

69
Q

Is compliance with hand hygiene generally good?

A

No

Integ Patho (PTH 701) Quiz #1 (8 decks)

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