Bio therapy and Targeted Therapy Flashcards

1
Q

What is the basic principle of targeted therapies?

A
  • The growth, regulation, angiogenesis and cell death of both normal and cancer cells are regulated by signals
  • Signals by growth factor receptors allow the inside and outside of the cell to communicate
  • These proteins are essential for normal cell growth
  • Alterations in genes that create variations result in either malfunction or too many receptors
  • These proteins are called oncoproteins, since they can turn healthy cells into Ca cells
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2
Q

What are the two families of growth factors that have clinical significance in the treatment of Ca?

A

1) Epidermal growth factor receptors (EGFR)
2) Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) receptors

Blocking these growth factors is the focus of targeted therapy treatments. There is now some new protein pathways discovered in research for developing new drugs

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3
Q

What is another term for growth factor?

A

Ligand

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4
Q

How does signal transduction work?

A
  • Is a communication process used by regulating molecules for processes like cell growth, differentiation and survival
  • Begins with activating a receptor on the cell membrane by a ligand (growth factor) > ligand binding activates > activating is a signal that crosses the cell membrane from the outside to inside > tyrosine kinase is activated > downstream cascade of signals that influence cell activity
  • Cell signaling affected by both intracellular and extracellular events
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5
Q

What are the three cellular-signally pathways that are utilized in targeted therapy?

A

1) Receptor kinase pathways
2) Intracellular signalling kinase pathways
3) Angiogenesis pathways

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6
Q

What are receptor tyrosine kinases?

A
  • Some cell membrane receptors also double as enzymes
  • If a receptor is also an enzyme, the binding of signal molecules will activate that specific enzyme activity
  • Receptor tyrosine kinases are the largest class of enzyme receptors
  • Important role in regulating cell growth, differentiation (gene transcription) and survival (eg. growth factors and hormones bind to RTK’s)
  • Many cancers appear to be d/t mutations in RTK’s
  • There is both extra-cellular and intra-cellular components to the tyrosine kinase receptor (extra cellular where growth factors like VEGF attach) and intra-cellular, which when activated communicates directly to the nucleus
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7
Q

Describe the basic process of activating an RTK:

A

1) Signal molecules (ligand) will bind to an RTK
2) Neighboring RTK’s that both have signal molecules will bind to each other by cross-links
3) Cross-linking activates the tyrosine kinase activity within the cell by phosphorylation (taking the phosphorus group from ATP and adding it to itself, the protein/receptor site)
4) A protein with an extra phosphorus group will act as an on/off switch for the cell

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8
Q

How do RTK inhibitors work?

A

Blocks ATP from binding to to a tyranise kinase active site, preventing phosphorylation, and therefore keeping the cell ‘turned off’
- Groups of cancer occur when specific tyrosine kinase receptors that will act as an ‘on switch’ for cancer if they are activated and have an error in the gene, making them an oncogene and oncoprotein

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9
Q

What is the suffix for RTK inhibitors?

A
  • tinib
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10
Q

What are the side effects of RTK inhibitors?

A
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Fluid retention (CHF, periorbital edema)
  • Prolonged QT interval
  • GI and liver toxicity
  • Bone marrow suppression
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11
Q

What is the intracellular signalling kinase pathway?

A
  • When a chain of reactions transmits a signal from the surface of the cell to different places within the cell (this is intracellular signal transduction)
  • These different pathways are tyrasine kinase pathways
  • This connects the cell surface to the nucleus
  • If connected to the nucleus, can change gene expression
  • These pathways can be proto-oncogenes
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12
Q

What is one of the most potent proteins that signals for angiogenesis (both normal and abnormal)

A
  • Vascular endothelial growth factor (increased levels are found in multiple types of tumors)
  • Promotes vascular permeability = creates new blood vessels
  • Binds to tyranise kinase intracellular receptors, transmitting signals from the receptor to the nucleus
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13
Q

The three cell-signalling pathways used in targeted therapies involve tyranise kinase. What are the key differences between these pathways and their use of TK?

A

1) Receptor kinase pathways: The pathway wherein the TK protein is activated by an outside receptor
2) Intracellular signally kinase pathways: The pathway wherein the protein is activated (by the receptor kinase pathway) and creates intracellular signals to the nucleus
3) Angiogenesis pathway: The pathway wherein the activation of the TK protein directly signals the cell nucleus to develop new blood cells

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14
Q

How do anti-angiogenic agents work?

A
  • Disrupt endothelial cell survival (eg. disrupt basement membrane, deprives of nutrients)
  • Inhibit development of new blood vessel supply
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15
Q

What is the suffix for monoclonal antibody drugs?

A
  • mab
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16
Q

What are mono-clonal antibodies?

A
  • Lab-produced molecules that act as substitute antibodies to restore, enhance, or mimic the immune system’s attack on cancer cells
  • Bind to antigens that are generally more numerous on cancer cells
  • Given almost any substance, it’s possible to produce monoclonal antibodies that bind specifically to that substance, and can then serve to detect that substance
  • Kill Ca cells by attaching to the cancer cell antigens (followed then by stimulating the immune system to kill the cell, or by antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), or causing apoptosis); leaves normal cells alone
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17
Q

What is the difference between cytotoxic drugs and monoclonal antibodies?

A

Chemo kills both healthy and cancer cells, but monoclonal antibodies work by attacking tumor cells directly and sparing normal cells

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18
Q

What is the major reason for allergic reactions to monoclonal antibodies?

A

Exposure to mouse protein that is in a number of monoclonal antibodies. Some products are just humanized antibodies, but there are ‘chimeric’ ones that are both human and mouse.

Theoretically the lower the more human protein in MAb’s the lower the incidence of a hypertensivity to mouse protein

On a cellular level, it is d/t the creation of immunoglobulin E (IgE), which creates antibodies against the antigen

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19
Q

What are the cellular effects of MAb’s?

A
  • When the MAb binds to an antigen like a “lock and key” the Y portion binds to immune cells such as NK cells for the Ca cell can be killed
  • Can induce complement activation (enhancement of antibodies), coating the antigen to it can be more effectively killed
  • Cause apoptosis just by binding to it
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20
Q

What is the difference between a hypersensivity, anaphlylactic, and cytokine release syndrome?

A
  • With hypersensitivity, a patient is sensitized to the antigen with the first exposure and the body creates immunoglobulin E antibodies against the antigen = the second exposure results with antigen binding to IgE and causing immune cell rupture, releasing inflammatory mediators (creates the signs and symptoms similar to true anaphylaxis)
  • Anaphylactic occur on first exposure and are not IgE mediated
  • Cytokine release syndrome occurs during administration of MAb and is d/t destruction of cells that release cytokines, creating a systemic inflammatory response
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21
Q

What are the signs of an anaphylactoid or true anaphylactic reaction?

A
  • Increased secretions from mucous membranes
  • n/v and diarrhea
  • stridor, wheezing, bronchospasm and airway compromise
  • hypotension
  • Pruritus (d/t histamine release)
  • Arrhythmias
  • Appears within 30-60 minutes
22
Q

What are the signs of an acute infusion reaction (cytokine release syndrome):

A
  • Neurologic (dizziness, HA, syncope, seizures)
  • Anxiety
  • Rhinitis, sneezing, cough, SOB, bronchospasm
  • Tachycardia and hypotension (sometimes hypertension), can also cause MI or arrest
  • flushing, erythema, pruritis
  • n/v, cramping, diarrhea
  • drug fever, chills, arthralgia, FLS
23
Q

How are non-life-threatening reactions to MAb’s handled?

A
  • Usually managed with IV benadryl, tylenol and sometimes steroids
  • Epi may be needed if hypotensive and not responding to fluids
  • Usually resolve in 30 min to 2 hours after infusion stopped and steroid and antihistamine are given
24
Q

What are basic actions for life-threatening anaphylaxis?

A
  • Stops the offending drug immediately
  • Assess ABC’s and LOC
  • Ensure code cart is present
  • Monitor VS closely, O2 PRN
  • Reposition to recumbent or trendelenburg
  • Run NS boluses
  • Epi if not responding to fluids or profoundly hypotensive
  • Steroids
25
Q

What is the difference between unconjugated and conjugated MAb’s?

A
  • Unconjugated are “naked” and not bound to any extra substance; can work by directly attaching to the tumor antigen and stimulating multiple immune responses
  • Conjugated (attached) to a chemo agent or radioactive agent. Conjugation allows for the chemo or radiactive particles to be taken directly to the cells.
26
Q

What is the ending for chimeric type antibody drugs:

A
  • Ximab
27
Q

What is the ending for humanised antibody drugs:

A
  • Zumab
28
Q

Define biotherapy

A

Treatment with agents derived from biologic sources and/or affecting biologic responses (such as growth and differentiation factors, chimeric molecules, and agents that affect the ability to metastasize)

29
Q

What are the three types of adaptive immunity?

A

1) Humoral immunity (monitored by B lymphocytes, memory B cells and plasma cells)
2) Cell mediated (T cells and cytokines)
3) T-regulatory cells (suppressor T cells, limits other immune cells and inflammation)

30
Q

What are the two principles of cytokines?

A

1) Each cytokine may act on several different types of cells and regulatory immune functions
2) Different cytokines can have similar functions (eg. both being inflammatory mediators)

31
Q

What are interferon’s?

A
  • A Cytokine
  • Therapy treats viral diseases and modifies immune response to attack Ca
  • IFN-alpha treatment of several viral diseases and Ca
  • Work by binding to a specific receptor and having an effect on the cell
  • In the cell they can inhibit DNA synthesis and expression of proto-oncogenes, increases effect of NK cells, stimulate antibodies, etc.
32
Q

What group of Ca is interferon’s typically used for?

A

Hematologic malignancies

33
Q

Discuss the side effects of interferon therapy:

A
  • High dose IFN therapy can have very debilitating side effects and toxicities
  • Therapy can be stopped temporarily or d/c’d, you cannot dose reduce
  • FLS
  • Fatigue
  • Neurological symptoms
  • Dermatological symptoms
  • Anorexia and weight loss
34
Q

What are the two groups of biological response modifiers?

A

Interleukin-2 and interferons

35
Q

What are TKI’s?

A
  • Tyrosine kinase inhibitors
  • Oral drugs, all will end in -ib (eg. imatinib) most commonly; one group will end in - olimus
  • Work by occupying the ATP binding site within the cell so that signal activation in the cell is blocked = therefore the tumor growth is inhibited and the tumor should shrink
  • There are multiple subgroups of TKI’s; they are divided based on the different groups of receptor TK’s they block and their associated growth factors (eg. an anti-EGFR TKI will inhibit the action of the EGFR growth factor and EGFR TK receptor)
  • Some TKI’s are multitargeted TKI’s and can affect multiple TK sites
  • Some monoclonal antibodies also fall under this category, as their action is by binding to a receptor and blocking the interaction
36
Q

What are the two key groups of biological therapies?

A

1) Biotherapy

2) Targeted therapy

37
Q

What are the groups within targeted therapy?

A

1) Monoclonal antibodies

2) TKI’s

38
Q

What are the most common adverse effects of targeted therapies?

A
  • Dermatologic reactions (eg. rash, dry skin, hair and nail changes) and diarrhea
  • In antibodies, hypersensitivty reactions are common
  • Rarer but potentially life threatening include lung toxicity (like interstitial pneumonia, fibrosis) and cardiac toxicity, like HTN, CHF, emboli and ECG changes)

** think about how some MAb’s are checkpoint inhibitors that cause inflammatory changes **

39
Q

Describe the management of rash associated with targeted therapy:

A
  • Can range from mild to severe, often to the face, chest and upper back, occasionally to the extremities
  • Tend to be papulopustular, resembling acne
  • Often temporary and resolves in 2-3 weeks after treatment finished
  • Rx for antibiotic topical gel (if possible infected lesion) and/or cortisone cream
  • Use water-based, non-alcohol skin products and mild soaps
  • Sun protection
  • topical analgesics for burning and erythema
  • antihistamines for pruritis
  • If PPE suspected, assess for neuropathy, skin integrity, and reconsider treatment if becoming severe
40
Q

What other system toxicity do we assess for with targeted therapy use?

A
  • Ocular toxicity
  • Monitor pt’s for any sustained eye pain, vision decrease or loss, severe reddness, light sensitivity, and no response after a week of treatment or treatment with a topical steroid
41
Q

What are the side effects for trastuzumab?

A
  • Allergic reactions (will be stopped and restarted at a lower rate)
  • FLS, HA - take tylenol and fever to last less than 24 hours, treat as an infection if temp lasts longer
  • Rare - assess for signs of heart or lung problems
42
Q

What are the side effects of bevacizumab?

A
  • n/v
  • Constipation or diarrhea
  • Muscle or joint pain, HA
  • Anorexia and weight loss
  • Fatigue
  • Minor bleeding (eg. nosebleeds)
43
Q

What are the side effects of erlotinib?

A
  • mostly skin and GI *
  • N/v, anorexia
  • Diarrhea
  • Mouth sores
  • Skin reactions like rash, dryness and itchiness are common
  • Skin may darken in some areas - should return to normal after stopping treatment, prevent from worsening with sun sense
  • Fatigue
44
Q

Describe how to properly take erlotinib and lapatinib (oral targeted therapies):

A
  • Taken with glass of water on empty stomach (one hour before or two after eating)
  • If you vomit 30 minutes after dose, repeat
  • Avoid use of antacids, certain antibiotics and warfarin (after talking with doctor)
  • Avoid grapefruit juice
45
Q

What are the side effects of lapatinib?

A
  • n/v
  • skin reactions sometimes occur
  • diarrhea
  • fatigue
  • back pain - take tylenol and advil for mild to moderate pain and notify MRP if it interferes with activity
  • abnormal heart rhythm (rarely occurs) - check with doctor and pharmacist re: any drug interactions when starting new drugs or herbals, always take the med on an empty stomach
46
Q

What are Biologic response modifiers?

A

Substances that modify immune response. In cancer, refers to cytokines interleukin-2 and interferons, which stimulate T-cells.

46
Q

What is BCG?

A
  • Immunotherapy treatment for bladder cancer

- Is a vaccine with BCG that the bladder reacts to and creates an immune response which gets rid of cancer cells

46
Q

What is imiquimod?

A
  • Topical cream for skin lesions > stimulates production of cytokines like interferon to have an anti-cancer affect
  • appropriate for basal cell carcinoma
46
Q

How are vaccines used as a biological therapy?

A
  • eg. BCG
  • Goal is to have immune system recognize Ca cells (the way other vaccines would recognize antigens, only using treatment the disease is already present)
  • used to prevent return of Ca or to have body reject and attack Ca
46
Q

What are the different groups of biotherapies? Immunomodulators

A

1) Biological response modifiers > IL-2 and IFN
2) Immunomodulators (imiquimod) & Adoptive cell transfer therapy
3) Vaccines (BCG)

46
Q

What is interleukin-2?

A
  • A cytokine (already exists but boosts with additional amounts)
  • Stimulates immune system to fight Ca, itself does not fight Ca
  • Activates lymphocytes, macrophages, and growth of stimulated T-cells
47
Q

What are the side effects of IL-2?

A
  • Most of the side effects from the IL-2 group are d/t induced Capillary Leak syndrome, which causes side effects to multiple systems (eg. CV = hypotension, edema; GU = oliguria d/t decreased circulating volume)
  • FLS
  • Neurological symptoms
  • Dermatological symptoms
  • Peaks 2-4 hours after infusion ends and subsided 48-72 hours later