Bio SAT Flashcards

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1
Q

When number of protons = number of electrons

A

atom in elemental state

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2
Q

Electrons in the lowest available energy level

A

ground state

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3
Q

Are isotopes chemically identical

A

yes

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4
Q

Used to diagnose diseases of thyroid

A

radioactive idoine (I-131)

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5
Q

When two atomic nuclei attract the same electron

A

bonding

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6
Q

CL-, NA+, and CA2+ examples of

A

ions (from ionic bonding)

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7
Q

Covalent bonding (sharing electrons) results in

A

molecules

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8
Q

When two atoms share one pair electonrs

A

single covalent bond

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9
Q

What is the anon in water?

A

oxygen

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10
Q

weaker than ionic bonds have stronger than non polar bonds

A

hydrogen bonding

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11
Q

Hydrogen bonding – polar or non polar

A

polar

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12
Q

Bonding between non polar molecules

A

Van der walls

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13
Q

Example of van Der walls

A

CO2

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14
Q

What type of substances diffuse across PM

A

non polar

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15
Q

Capillary action made possible by

A

adhesion

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16
Q

Transpirational-pull cohesion tension made possible and surface tension made possible by

A

cohesion tenstion

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17
Q

As the concentration of H+ increases, the pH

A

decreases

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18
Q

pH of acid rain

A

less than 5.6

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19
Q

human blood and seawater: basic or acidic

A

basic

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20
Q

HC03- is the

A

bicarbonate ion

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21
Q

What kind of bonding is sharing electrons

A

covalent

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22
Q

What kind of bonding is transferring electrons

A

ionic

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23
Q

1 gram carb releases

A

4 calories heat

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24
Q

Monosacchardie chem formula

A

CnH2nOn

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25
Q

Same molecular formula but different structures

A

isomers

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26
Q

What reaction occurs in digestion

A

hydrolysis

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27
Q

Makes up exoskeleton in arthropods

A

chitin

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28
Q

Stored in liver and skeletal muscle

A

glycogen (animal starch)

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29
Q

Hydrocarbon chain with carboxyl group at one end

A

fatty acid

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30
Q

Have only single bonds btwn carbon atoms

A

saturated fats

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31
Q

Have at least one double bond between carbons (fewer hydrogens)

A

Unsaturated fats

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32
Q

1 gram lipid releases

A

9 calories of heat

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33
Q

Parts of an amino acid

A

Carboxyl group, amine group, variable R, all attached to central carbon

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34
Q

1 gram protein releases

A

4 calories

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35
Q

Elements in proteins

A

CHONSP

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36
Q

Can proteins be hormones

A

yes

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37
Q

the 3D conformation of a protein

A

tertiary structure

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38
Q

Do enzymes bind to many or only one type of substrate

A

just one

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39
Q

Enzyme that hydrolyzes “-ose” would be named

A

“-ase”

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40
Q

minerals + enzymes

A

cofactors

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41
Q

vitamins + enzymes

A

coenzymes

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42
Q

Denature when body temp rises above

A

40 C

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43
Q

What elements make up nucleic acids

A

CHONP

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44
Q

Parts of nucleotide

A

Phosphate, 5-C sugar, nitrogenous base

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45
Q

Is uracil pyrimidines or purine

A

pyrimidine

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46
Q

Water is a __ polar molecule with __ hydrogen attraction __ its molecules

A

highly
strong
between

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47
Q

Does water have high or low heat of fusion

A

High

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48
Q

Takes a lot of heat to melt water like ice

A

High heat of fusion

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49
Q

Why does water have relatively high heat of vaporization

A

strong intermolecular attractions

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50
Q

O=C=OH is

A

carboxyl group

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51
Q

chain of C’s with OH on one side and H on the other

A

glycerol

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52
Q

Sweating is due to

A

high heat of vaporization

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53
Q

Can temp affect an enzyme

A

yes

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54
Q

Endocrine opposition of insulin to increase blood sugar

A

glucagon

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55
Q

First person observe/document living cells

A

Leeuwenhoek

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56
Q

Microscope, coined term “cell”

A

Robert Hook

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57
Q

“Where a cell exists, there must be a preexisting cell”

A

Rudolf Virchow

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58
Q

Parts of cell theory

A

all living things composed of cells
cells basic unit of all organisms
all cells arise prexising cells

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59
Q

Most plant and animal cells micrometers

A

10 to 100

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60
Q

Are ribosomes larger pros or euks

A

euks

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61
Q

Most have tough external cell walls

A

Pros

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62
Q

__ fits __

A

form

function

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63
Q

Does the nucleolus divide

A

no

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64
Q

Are nucleoli membrane bound structures

A

no

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65
Q

Site of transport throughout cytoplasm

A

Rough ER

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66
Q

Where does glycogen/carb metabolism occur

A

smooth ER

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67
Q

Complex network protein filaments extends throughout cytoplasm, gives cell shape and ability to move

A

cytoskeleton

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68
Q

Thick hollow tubes made of tubular

A

microtubules

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69
Q

What do microtubules make

A

cilia, flagella, spindle fibers

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70
Q

made of actin, help support shape of cell

A

microfilaments

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71
Q

Enable animal cells to form cleavage furrow, amoeba to move by sending out pseudopods, skeletal muscles contract by sliding along myosin filaments

A

microfilaments

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72
Q

Lie outside nuclear membrane, organize spindle fibers (microtubules) required for cell division

A

centrioles and centrosomes

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73
Q

Only __ cells have centrioles and centrosomes

A

animal cells

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74
Q

Plant cells have __

A

microtubule organizing regions instead

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75
Q

___, at right angles to each other, make up __

A

Two centrioles

one centrosome

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76
Q

__ and __ have the same structure

A

centrioles

spindle fibers

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77
Q

Centrioles =

A

9 triplets

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78
Q

9 triplets =

A

Centrioles

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79
Q

Cilia and flagella =

A

9 +2

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80
Q

9 +2

A

cilia and flagella

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81
Q

Both cilia an dflagella are made from

A

microtubules

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82
Q

Substance that does dissolving

A

solvent

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83
Q

Substance that dissolves

A

salute

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84
Q

Types of Passive transport

A

Simple diffusion
Facilitated Diffusion
Osmosis

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85
Q

The steeper the gradient, the __ the rate of diffusion

A

faster

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86
Q

Calcium enters nerve cells through

A

facilitated diffusion

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87
Q

Is 5 percent sodium chloride hypertonic or hypotonic to a cell

A

hypertonic

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88
Q

Active release of molecules from a cell

A

Exocytosis

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89
Q

Types of endocytosis

A

pinocytosis, phagocytosis, receptor-mediated endocytosis

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90
Q

What type of transport do pseudopods use

A

phagocytosis

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91
Q

How do body cells uptake cholesterol

A

receptor mediated endocytosis

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92
Q

What does sodium potassium pump use

A

active transport

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93
Q

Only animal cells exhibit

A

locomotion

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94
Q

Main tool for studying cell structure/cytology

A

compound microscope

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95
Q

Where is the diaphragm on a microscope

A

right below the stage

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96
Q

To determine total magnification, multiply magnification of ___ by magnification of objective lens

A

ocular lens/eyepiece

objective lense

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97
Q

A light microscope that enhances contrast; useful for living, unstained cells

A

phase-contrast microscope

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98
Q

TEM is __, while SEM is __

A

2D; 3D

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99
Q

Site of RNA production; produces RNA that makes up ribosomes

A

nucleoli

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100
Q

T/F: only plant cells have large vacuoles

A

F

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101
Q

Spindle fibers and centrioles consist of

A

nine triplets of microtubules in a circle

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102
Q

Membranes in mitochondria?

A

Outer double membrane and folded inner membrane

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103
Q

Plastids membranes

A

Double outer membrane and inner one (grana)

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104
Q

What does meiosis produce

A

gametes

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105
Q

Two sister chromatids (exact copies of each other) =

A

replicated chromosome

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106
Q

Specialized religion holding two sister chromosomes together

A

centromere

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107
Q

___ connect the centromere to the ___ during cell division

A

spindle fibers

centrosome

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108
Q

What is this: X

A

one chromosome

Also acceptable: one replicated chromosome

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109
Q

Some cells like ___ permanently lose ability to __ and go into ___

A

nerve and muscle cells
divide
G zero

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110
Q

proteins ensure cell doesn’t undergo mitosis till certain conditions met

A

internal regulators

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111
Q

what are growth factors

A

external regulators

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112
Q

what do growth factors do

A

affect rate of cell cycle

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113
Q

What stage?

Chromosomes replicate, one or more nucleoli become visible in nuclear, nuclear membrane remains intact

A

Interphase

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114
Q

5 parts of prophase?

A
Chromosomes condense
Nucleoli disappear
Spindle fibers form from one centrosome to tother
centrioles migrate to poles
nuclear membrane diseintegrates
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115
Q

3 parts of metaphase?

A

Chromosomes line up on metaphase plate
Centrosomes at opposite ends of cell
spinde fibers run from centrosomes to centromeres of chromo

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116
Q

what does centromere refer to

A

connection point btwn sister chromatids

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117
Q

2 parts of anaphase?

A

Centromeres of each chromosome separate

Spindle fibers pull sister chromosomes apart

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118
Q

3 parts of telophase

A

chromosomes cluster opposite ends
nuclear membrane reforms
supercoiled chromosomes unravel

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119
Q

What signals interphase?

A

nucleoli reforming

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120
Q

Processes during reduction division?

A

synapsis, crossing over, independent separation

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121
Q

What is independent separation

A

how one pair of chromosomes separates doesn’t affect how other pairs separate

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122
Q

What separates during Meiosis II

A

sister chromatids separate

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123
Q

What separates during Meiosis I

A

Homologous chromosomes separate

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124
Q

How many cells result from Meiosis

A

four

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125
Q

are cells produced by meiosis genetically identical

A

no, genetically unique

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126
Q

how many crossing overs occur

A

just one

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127
Q

Produces cells with half the n chromosome number

A

meiosis I

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128
Q

chromosome number remains unchanged

A

Meiosis II

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129
Q

X X – how many chromosomes

A

2

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130
Q

X X – how many chromatids

A

4

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131
Q

How to determine number of chromsomes

A

count number of centromeres

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132
Q

When is the nucleolus visible

A

interphase

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133
Q

T/F: spindle fibers are attached to the centriole in plant cells

A

F

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134
Q

Is cell respiration reduction or oxidation

A

oxidative

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135
Q

Equation for cellular reps. one molecule glucose:

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 –> 6CO2 + 6H20 + energy

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136
Q

Waste products from cell resp

A

co2 and water

137
Q

Energy is __ to __ a phosphate to ___ to produce __

A

absorbed
add
ADP
ATP

138
Q

Processes using substrate level phosphorylation?

A

Glycolysis and Krebs cycle

139
Q

What is the anaerobic phase of aerobic cell respiration?

A

glycolysis

140
Q

1 glucose + 2ATP –>

A

2 pyruvate + 4 ATP + 2 NADH

141
Q

How many turns of Krebs cycle to break down one molecule glucose/2 pyruvates

A

2 turns

142
Q

Products of 1 turn of Krebs

A

1 atp
1 fadh2
3 nadh

143
Q

Waste product of krebs cycle

A

CO2

144
Q

NADH and FADH2 are ___ that shuttle ____ from ___ and ___ to the ___

A
coenzymes
protons and electrons
glycolysis
Krebs cycle
ETC
145
Q

NADH

NAD+

A

reduced form

oxidized form

146
Q

FADH2

FAD+

A

reduced form

oxidized form

147
Q

Flow of protons cellular rest

A

pups protons from inner matrix to outer compartment, then flood back into matrix

148
Q

What powers pumping protons across crustal membrane

A

Electrons carried by NADH and FADH2 being pulled through ETC

149
Q

Roles of oxygen cellular reps

A

pulls electrons through ETC

Final electron/proton acceptor

150
Q

ETC is collection of carrier molecules like

A

cytochromes

151
Q

__ molecule glucose leads to __ molecules ATP

A

1

36

152
Q

Other routes for 2 pyruvate from glycolysis:

A

alcohol/lactic acid fermentation

153
Q

Where is lactic acid converted back to pyruvate

A

liver

154
Q

Does cell respiration produce energy

A

No, it only transfers it

155
Q

What is waste product of ETC

A

water

156
Q

What is immediate result of electron transport chain?

A

Creates proton gradient

157
Q

What processes in cell reps require energy

A

just glycolysis

158
Q

What s the raw material for krebs cycle

A

acetyl coa

159
Q

Where does Krebs cycle occur

A

inner matrix

160
Q

where does ETC occur

A

cristae membrane

161
Q

where does glycolysis occur

A

cytoplasm

162
Q

Formula for photosynthesis

A

6CO2 + 12H20 + energy –> C6H1206 +6H20+602

163
Q

Is photosynthesis oxidation or reduction

A

reduction

164
Q

If something appears green, it __ green and absorbs all other colors of lighr

A

reflects

165
Q

what color is photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll a

A

green

166
Q

Where are phycobilins found

A

red algae

167
Q

Do both reactions of photosynthesis take place all the time

A

No, both take place wonly when there is light

168
Q

Function of light reactions

A

produce ATP and protons for next stage

169
Q

Light ind focus

A

make sugar (PGAL)

170
Q

Where do electrons from photosynthesis water go

A

replace those lost by chlorophyl

171
Q

Where do protons from water in photosynthesis go

A

pass through ATP, carried by NADP to storm

172
Q

Where do O2 go

A

oxygen as waste product

173
Q

In photosynthesis, the protons begin the in the __ and are pumped into the __, then flow back into the __

A

stroma
thylakoid space
stroma

174
Q

What process occurs in Calvin cycle

A

carbon fixation

175
Q

why do light reactions make ATP

A

keep Calvin cycle running

176
Q

Carbon fixation equation

A

CO2 + protons and electrons carried by NADP –> PGAL

177
Q

first enzyme in Calvin cycle

A

rubisco

178
Q

two important particles in photosynthesis

A

NADP+ and NADPH

179
Q

two important particles in cellular reps

A

NAD and NADH

180
Q

What does water split into during photosynthesis

A

protons, electrons, oxygen

181
Q

Tightly packed cells containing chloroplasts

A

palisade mesophyll

182
Q

Clear and does not carry out photosynthesis

A

Epidermis layer

183
Q

above the edidermis, clear and minimizes water loss

A

cutin

184
Q

Why is photosynthesis reduction

A

CO2 gains hydrogen

185
Q

Carotenoids absorb all colors of light except

A

yellow

186
Q

brought math to inheritance laws

A

Mendel

187
Q

What laws did Mendel produce

A

law of dominance, segregation, independent assortment

188
Q

when two organisms, homozygous for two opposing traits, offspring will be hybrid but only exhibit dominant

A

law of dominance

189
Q

During the formation of gametes, the ___ carried by each parent ___

A

two traits

separate

190
Q

What is monohybrid cross

A

Cross btwn two organisms each hybrid for single trait

191
Q

Phenotype Monohybrid

A

3 tall, one short

192
Q

Genotype Monohybrid

A

1 HH: 2 Hh: 1hh

193
Q

what does test cross find

A

whether animal showing dominant trait is BB or Bb

194
Q

In a testcorss, if any offspring show recessive trait, parent of unknown genotype must be

A

hybrid

195
Q

What is phenotypes for testcross in which one parent pure recessive one parent hybrid

A

1 to 1

196
Q

What determines how alleles are inherited

A

how homologous pairs line up in metaphase of meiosis I (random)

197
Q

What is dihybrid

A

cross between two individuals hybrid for two different traits

198
Q

What is phenotypic ratio for dihybrid cross

A

9:3:3:1

199
Q

Only dealt with one gene, two allelles

A

Mendelian

200
Q

What does crossing BB with WW produce according to incomplete dominance

A

all BW

201
Q

example of codominance

A

MM and NN blood group like to MN, where both types are fully expressed

202
Q

When there are more than two allelic forms of a gene

A

multiple alleles

203
Q

What are blood types an example of

A

Codominance and multiple alleles

204
Q

when characteristic controlled by many separate genes

A

polygenic inheritance

205
Q

Polygenic inheritance such as skin pigmentation results in

A

bell-shaped curve

206
Q

All daughters of affected fathers are ___of recessive sex linked traits

A

carriers

207
Q

Sons __ inherit a sex-linked trait from the __ because the son inherits the Y chromosome from the father

A

cannot

father

208
Q

Genes located on either sex chromosme

A

sex-linked genes

209
Q

When inheritance is influenced by the sex of the individual carrying the traits

A

sex-influenced inheritance

210
Q

How many total chromosomes in a human

A

46

211
Q

How many autosomes

A

44 or 22 pairs

212
Q

How many sex chromosomes

A

2 or 1 pair

213
Q

pedigrees based on

A

phenotype

214
Q

caused by a change in the DNA sequence

A

gene mutations

215
Q

can be observed under light microscope; may have deletion or addition

A

chromosome mutation

216
Q

Any abnormal chromosome condition

A

aneuploidy

217
Q

If chromosome present in triplicate

A

trisomy

218
Q

An organism in which the cells have an extra set of chromsomes

A

triploid

219
Q

example of triploid

A

cells of endosperm or cotyledon

220
Q

Organism with more than 3 sets of chromsomes

A

polyploid

221
Q

Examples of chromosome abberations

A

deletion, inversion, translocation, polyploidy, nondisjunction

222
Q

Degenerate disease of nervous system

A

Huntington’s disease

223
Q

PKU pattern

A

Autosomal recessive

224
Q

Cycstic fibrosis pattern

A

Autosomal recessive

225
Q

Tay=Sachs pattern

A

AR

226
Q

Hemolphilia pattern

A

sex-linked recessive

227
Q

color blindness

A

sex-linked recessive

228
Q

How to rule out sex-linked dominant?

A

At least one parent would need to have trait

229
Q

discovered bacterial transformation

A

griffith

230
Q

DNA replication occurs in

A

opposite directions

231
Q

RNA single or double stranded

A

double stranded

232
Q

Clover leaf shaped molecule that carries specific amino acid molecules to ___ at the ribosome to help form a polypeptide during __

A

mRNA

translation

233
Q

when RNA polymerase adds nucleotides to growing end of new strand

A

elongation

234
Q

what do slurps do

A

remove introns during RNA processing

235
Q

What are stop codons

A

UAA
UGA
UAG

236
Q

what is start codon

A

AUG

237
Q

Role of anticodons?

A

To match up with DNA and thus bring

238
Q

If the codon is AUG, what is the anticodon?

A

UAC (met)

239
Q

genes + their switchese

A

operon

240
Q

Two types of operons?

A

Lac/Inducible operon

Repressible operon

241
Q

binding site RNA polymerase

A

promoter (like an on switch)

242
Q

Binding site for the repressor

A

operator

243
Q

Turns off the Lac operon

A

repressor

244
Q

helps RNA polymerase bind to promoter

A

TATA box

245
Q

Point mutation =

A

base-pair substitution

246
Q

Point mutation is what type of mutation?

A

Gene mutation

247
Q

What type of gene mutation results in frameshift

A

insertion/deletion

248
Q

Having entire extra sets of chromosomes, like 3n or 4n

A

polyploidy

249
Q

What does presswork for gel electrophoresis

A

restriction enzymes

250
Q

Does PCR use cells

A

No, just DNA

251
Q

what is mismatch repair

A

DNA polymerase proofreading

252
Q

example of molecular biology

A

chromosome c

253
Q

whop published treatise on population growth, disease, famine that inspired Darwin

A

Malthus

254
Q

darkening due to industrailization

A

industrial melanism

255
Q

when two or more phenotypes coexist in a population; often results from diversifying selection

A

balanced polymorphism

256
Q

What are the sources of variation in a population

A

mutation, genetic drift, gene flow

257
Q

when small population breaks away from larger one to colonize a new area

A

founder effect

258
Q

what do founder effect and bottleneck effect have in common

A

both are examples of genetic drift in which part is not representative of the whole

259
Q

movement of alleles into or out of a population

A

gene flow

260
Q

How to take square roots of decimals

A

make sure that there are the same number of digits beyond decimal point in the factors as in the answer

261
Q

If lions and tigers can interbreed, are they same species?

A

No, they would not do so in nature

262
Q

Is polyploidy example of isolation factor leading to speciation

A

yes

263
Q

when two groups have the same common ancestor, they both evolve but do so in similar environments

A

parallel evolution (wolves in N. America and Australia)

264
Q

Examples of coevolution

A

predator/prey, pollinator plant

265
Q

same common ancestor, same environment with different niches

A

adaptive radiation

266
Q

Why don’t accept gradualism

A

can’t find transitional fossils for every stage

267
Q

Example of punctuated equilibrium?

A

New species arises in a different place and expands its range, competing with and replacing the ancestral species that becomes extinct

268
Q

What made up ancient environment

A

methane, ammonia, vapor, and nitrogen

269
Q

Why could organic molecules form in early earth

A

no oxygen to erode them

270
Q

What is heterotrophic hypothesis

A

states that first ells on earth were anaerobic heterotrophc prokaryotes

271
Q

What organelles resulted from endosymbioisis

A

nuclei, chloroplasts, mitochondria

272
Q

period of time in which so many animals appeared

A

Cambrian xplosion

273
Q

What allowed animals to move around

A
lungs
skin
Limbs
Internal fertilization
Shell for eggs
274
Q

What allowed plants to move to land

A
roots
cells for light
vascular tissue for water
cutin
seeds
275
Q

Volcanic eruptions in Siberia

A

Permian mass extinction

276
Q

asteroid crashed into Mexico

A

Createcous mass extinction

277
Q

Does evolution always cause organisms to become more complex

A

no, only to fit their environment

278
Q

Part of Darwin’s theory? Organisms change in response to a need in the environment

A

false

279
Q

Part of Darwrin’s theory? Populations tend to overpopulate

A

yes

280
Q

How was populations tend to overpopulate developed

A

by Darwin after reading Malthus’ treaty on disease

281
Q

Stephen Gould and Niles Edlridge developed

A

puntuated equillibrium

282
Q

What is genetic drift

A

a change in the gene pool due to chance

283
Q

chocolate or fruit first

A

chocolate

284
Q

How to bacteria get food

A

hetero/autotrophic

285
Q

Do bacteria have cell wall

A

yes

286
Q

what is blue-green algae

A

autotrhopihic bacteria

287
Q

What do methanogens do

A

produce methane from hydrogen to obtain nrg

288
Q

what kingdom seaweeds and slime molds

A

protista

289
Q

do some Protista carry out conjugation

A

yes

290
Q

Are any fungi autotrophic

A

No, all heterotrophic

291
Q

organisms that obtain food from decaying organic matter

A

saprobes

292
Q

what category is regular mold

A

fungus

293
Q

are any plants multicellular

A

No, all unicellular

294
Q

Are any animals autotrohpic

A

No, all heterotrophic

295
Q

Characteristics of chordates

A

Post-anal tail
Dorsal nerve cord
Notochord
Gill slits

296
Q

Do Porifera/sponges have tissue

A

No, loose federation of cells

297
Q

Do flatworms have organs?

A

Yes

298
Q

Most bilaterally symmetrical animals are ___

A

triploblastic

299
Q

most simple animal to show cephalization?

A

flatworm

300
Q

provides space for organ systems

A

coelom

301
Q

What animals are coelomates

A

annelida, Mollusca, arthropoda, chordata

302
Q

A fluid-filled body cavity completely surrounded by __ tissue

A

mesoderm

303
Q

Example of pseudocoelomate

A

roundworm

304
Q

Mneumonic phyla?

A

Charlie eats a monkey annually, never pondering chestnut pie

305
Q

Order of phyla?

A
Chordata
Echinoderms
Arthopods
Mollusca
Annelids
Nematodes
Platyhemids 
cyndiarians 
proiferia
306
Q

Do flatworms have 3 cell layers

A

yes

307
Q

Porifera reproduction?

A

fragmentation, hermaphrodites

308
Q

cnidarians types of digestion?

A

Intraceullar/extracellular digestion

309
Q

Examples of platyhelminthes

A

Flatworms and tapeworms

310
Q

Advancements of flatworm?

A

Bilateral symmetry
Cephalization
There cel layers

311
Q

Examples of annelids?

A

earthworms and leeches

312
Q

Examples of mollusks?

A

squids, octopuses, slugs, clams, snails

313
Q

Molluks have a __ circulatory system with blood-filled __

A

open

hemocoels

314
Q

Examples arthropods?

A

Insects (grasshopper), crustaceans (shrimp, crab), arachnids (spider)

315
Q

Examples echinoderms

A

Sea stars, sea urchins

316
Q

generate heat from within, example is reptile

A

some reptiles

317
Q

maintain consistent body temp

A

homeotherms

318
Q

Do cladograms tell time

A

no

319
Q

What becomes digestive system?

A

Endoderm

320
Q

How do archaea obtain energy?

A

autotrophic and heterotrophic

321
Q

How do all animals get nutrients

A

ingestion

322
Q

What do some arthropods have

A

exoskeleton made of chitin

323
Q

heated from the outside

A

ectotherm

324
Q

Benefit of being warm-blooded?

A

Can move around at any time

325
Q

What waste do birds excrete

A

uric acid

326
Q

Where does digestion occur hydra

A

gastrovascular cavy

327
Q

food enters the same opening waste exits

A

two way digestive tract

328
Q

Do cnidarians have 3 cell layers

A

no

329
Q

Hydra/cnidarian nervous system

A

nerve net

330
Q

increases surface area in intestine for absorption

A

typhlosole

331
Q

What is responsible for removing uric acid from grasshoppers

A

Malpighian tubules in the digestive tract

332
Q

Why does grasshopper have open circulatory system

A

blood leaves artery and moves through sinuses

333
Q

Grasshoppers internal or external respiratory surface

A

internal

334
Q

Which one has an open circulatory system

A

grasshoppers

335
Q

Which was has closed circulatory system

A

Earthworm

336
Q

Which one has external respiratory surface

A

worm

337
Q

Which one has internal respiratory surface

A

grasshoppers

338
Q

What is earthworm’s nitrogenous waste

A

urea