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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Define reproduction

A

Reproduction is the fusion of egg and sperm via fertilization

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2
Q

What is the transformation of the egg over time to an organism?

A

development

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3
Q

name some primary and secondary sex characteristics.

A

Primary: uterus, ovaries
secondary: voice, breasts, antlers

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4
Q

Where are ovum made?

A

the two ovaries

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5
Q

How do eggs travel to the uterus?

A

oviduct is where eggs move via fallopian tubes to uterus where development takes place. Then it exits thru a small opening called the cervix.

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6
Q

What is the small opening of vagina fetus exits thru?

A

vagina

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7
Q

Where are follicles located and what do they do?

A

they are located in around fallopian tubes and store ovum

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8
Q

in males what produces sperm

A

testes in the semiferous tubules

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9
Q

what is temperature for testes?

A

two degrees lower than body

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10
Q

where does the sperm mature?

A

epididymus

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11
Q

which structure connects the epid.and urethra and what 2 glands are let into the deferens

A

vas deferens; two glands are prostate glands and seminal vesicle with fructose

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12
Q

what do prostate glands? do

A

give out fluid to urethra

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13
Q

what is sperm head composed of? what is it function?

A

acrosome; lysosome at the tip with enzymes toget to egg

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14
Q

what connects the flagella of sperm to headpiece?

A

midpiece with the mitochondria

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15
Q

what is the process that females makes eggs?

A

oogenesis

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16
Q

When oogonia goes thru mitosis, what does it make?

A

eggs

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17
Q

When do primary oocytes stop dividing during meiosis and when does it continue

A

prophase 1and continues at menstrual cycle

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18
Q

Where do primary oocyte grow and what does it form?

A

grows in follicle nand forms secondary oocyte and polar body

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19
Q

Where do secondary oocytre fuse with sperm

A

in oviduct after it gets out of follicle

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20
Q

What is first stage of spermatogenesis

A

puberty

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21
Q

Describe spermatogenesis.

A

primary spermatocytes made in semiferous tubules which then become secondary spermatocytes and then spermatids becoming sper. This then goes to epididymis to mature

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22
Q

How did sperm come from spermatids?

A

due to sertoli cells for nourishment

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23
Q

WHat does GnRH release and from where?What do they make in males

A

FSH and LH; in males they end up making testosterone and endrogens

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24
Q

How deos GnRH play in females?

A

they release FSH but at the end they make estrogenand progesterone in ovaries

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25
Q

What occurs when the progesterone and estrogen levels decrease?

A

the menstrual cycle starts and negative feedback ovvurs

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26
Q

In what phase of menstrual cycle is estrogen from FSH and hormone LH released?

A

follicular phase

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27
Q

WHat happens during ovulation, leutal, and menstrual phase?

A

ovulation: follicle opens and is released
leutal: becomes corpus leutum which releases estrogen and progesterone and implantation occurs and endometrium develops when there are increases in the hormone levels
menstrual: negative feedback when the FSH and LH levels stop and endometrium breaks up

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28
Q

WHat occurs during implantation?

A

the GnRH is released from embryo and and keeps hormones fxning

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29
Q

what is present in urine if you are pregnant?

A

HCG

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30
Q

Describe three phases of ovarian cycle?

A

follicular phase where egg is developed and estrogen released, ovulation which releases egg, and leutal phase where corpus leutum has two hormones in its active form

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31
Q

WHat is metamorphasis

A

maturing developmentof species

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32
Q

Where does sperm go to at the start of fertilization

A

sperm goes to plasma membrane of egg.

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33
Q

what is the protein on the eggs PM the sperm attach for recognition?

A

zona pellucida

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34
Q

What enters the oocytes as both PM fuse together?

A

sperm nucleus

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35
Q

What makes penetration of sperm to egg after awhile impossible?

A

calcium ions

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36
Q

what is a cleavage and what structure does it form?what structure does it form at the end?

A

cell division without increase in number of cells; forms a blastomere

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37
Q

What are the two types of poles in an egg?

A

animal and vegetal pole; lower one is vegetal with all yolk

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38
Q

Match the following types cleavage…
1. polar a. perpendicular to poles
2. equitorial b. shifted based off how its
aligned below
3. radial c. from pole to pole
4. spiral d. early cleavage in deutosterome; cell at both poles on top of each other

A

polar-c
equitorial-a
radial-d
sprial-b

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39
Q

WHat occurs in indeterminate cleavgae

A

occurs in deutosteromes when blastomere leads to developmetn

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40
Q

What occurs in determinate cleavage?

A

occurs in protostomes when cell makes embryo

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41
Q

Define morula, blastula, and gastrula.

A

morula-solid ball of cells
blastula- hollow ball of cells due to cavity and becomes a blastula
gastrula- cells going into blastula to produce two layers

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42
Q

What does blastula become in protostome?

A

mouth and in deutostome the anus

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43
Q

Where does archentoeron open to?

A

forms as the center of gastrulation inside endoderm

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44
Q

what is the extra embryonic membrane made from?

A

out of amniotes in embrypo

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45
Q

WHat structure does chorion develop into?

A

placenta

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46
Q

WHat is its fxn in birds and reptiles?mammals?

A

in reptiles it is used for gas exchange and in mammals it is used for implantation into endometrium

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47
Q

WHat is the layer under the choroin?WHat structure does it become in mammals? what is its fxn in reptiles and birds?

A

allantois–>umbilical cord; wastes storage

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48
Q

What is the fxn of amnion?

A

the amnion covers the amniotic cavity and protects embryo and provides shock absorbance

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49
Q

Where do nutrients come from in embryotic mammals?

A

placenta

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50
Q

Where do nutrients come from in birds and reptiles?

A

yolk sac

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51
Q

WHat is organogenesis

A

organs developing

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52
Q

Where does the notochord form from?

A

dorsal part of mesoderm

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53
Q

What does the neural tube become?

A

central nervous system from ectoderm cells

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54
Q

What does the neural crest become?

A

become teeth bones which go on top of neural tube and becomes peripheral nervous system

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55
Q

When does neuralation begin?

A

it begins after 3 weeks of development

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56
Q

What do you need for development in amphibians

A

grey crescent

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57
Q

In gastrulation process, where is the blastoporeand what does it contain?

A

blastopore is in the grey crescent which becomes dorsal lip; contains vegetal pole with yolk

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58
Q

Where is the blastula located in bird?

A

its a flat disk on top of yolk

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59
Q

what is a primitive streak?

A

its a straight line that makes the blastopore

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60
Q

WHat two things does a blastocyst contain?

A

trophoblast and embryonic disk

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61
Q

What process is the trophoblast responsible for?

A

implantation into endometrium

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62
Q

What does the embryonic disk form?

A

its a mass of cells that ends up going to one end of pole and flattens

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63
Q

WHy does egg cytoplasm contribute to cell differentiation?

A

there is unequal distribution with cleavage

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64
Q

WHy does induction occur?

A

thru influence of other cells

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65
Q

WHat are the cells that influence by inducing a chemical to other cells that would stimulate developemtn of notochord?

A

organizers

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66
Q

WHat are homoetic genes?

How many nucleotides are there?

A

turns onn/offgenes that affect others for development; there are 180 nucleotides

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67
Q

What are sex organs called?

A

gonads

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68
Q

Give two examples of hermaphrodites?

A

hydra and earthworm

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69
Q

what are fxns of estrogen and progesterone?

A

estrogen: maturation, developemnt of endometrium
progesterone: released from corpus leutum

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70
Q

Why does menopause occur?

A

decline in FSH and LH levels

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71
Q

Describe the acrosomal process?

A

sperm hits rediata of ovum and acrosome contacts with zona pellucida which then forms a sperm tube in ovum

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72
Q

How many zygotes are there in monozygotic twins

A

one which become two embryo

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73
Q

Differemntiate between dizygotic and monozygotic twins

A

dizygotic: two zygotes and different placenta, amnion, and different implantation

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74
Q

Match the following:

  1. ectoderm a.hair, nose, skin
  2. mesoderm b. digestiv/resp. liver, pancreas
  3. endoderm c. muscle, skel, sex organ, circulatory system, kidney
A

ectoderm-hair nose skin
mesoderm-mucles skel, sex organ
endoderm-dig/resp, liver

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75
Q

WHat is a spina bifida?

A

when neural tube doesnt close

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76
Q

what occurs at end of 8 weeks in first trimester?

A

major organs develop

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77
Q

what organs form 22 days after first trimester?

A

heart, eye, limb gonad, and liver form

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78
Q

How long does the limb grow after seventh week?

A

9 cm long

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79
Q

what grows to become about 33cm at second trimester?

A

amnion

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80
Q

What two systems of body is developing in third trimester?

A

immune system and brain

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81
Q

what occurs during labor?

A

cewrvix dilates, fetus sac breaks, baby comes out via many contractions

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82
Q

How is teratogens caused? What does it lead to?

A

caused by H- ions and leads to malnutrition, radiation in babaies

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83
Q

what is experimental embryology?

A

USING ANTIGENS TO STUDY STEM CELLS and investigate embryo FUTURE PROBLEMS AS DIAGNOSIS

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84
Q

Name 8 taxonomic sections in order?

A
  1. Domain,
  2. Kingdom
  3. Phylum
  4. Class
  5. Order
  6. Family
  7. Genus
  8. SPecies
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85
Q

Distinguish euk/prok flagella and nucleuc

A

euk flagella: 9+2 arrangement
prok flagella: flagellin
euk nucleus:nucleus with DNA
prok nucl: no nulceus but a circular DNA

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86
Q

Who gets E from inorganic substance and who gets E from by light?

A

chemoautorophs; photoauto

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87
Q

Define Obligate, Anaerobe, Aerobe, and facultative anaerobe

A

Obligate: makes Oxygen
Anaerobe: cannot make oxygen
facultative anaerobe: can live with or without oxygen

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88
Q

WHat component in PM and cell wall do archae have?

A

polysaccharides in cell wall and glycerol ether lipid in cell membrane

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89
Q

Where do methanogens live?

A

live in env of no oxygen and make methane

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90
Q

WHat are 2 extremophiles?

A

halophiles and thermpphiles

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91
Q

WHat temp do thermopjhiles reside

A

60-80 Celcius

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92
Q

WHat are bacteria cell wall made of?

A

peptidoglycan

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93
Q

What are the three basic shapes of bacteria?

A

cocci, spirali, bacili

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94
Q

Describe what the prefixes diplo, staphyl, and strepto mean.

A

diplo: duplexes
strepto: chains
staphyl: clusters

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95
Q

WHichj of the following has thin cell wall; gra, negative or positive

A

negative

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96
Q

WHat type of bacteria are photosyntheitc, no flagella, and no organelles? Name an example.

A

cyanobacteria, blue green algae

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97
Q

WHat do chemoautotroph convert nitric oxide to?

A

NO3

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98
Q

WHat type of bacteria live mutually with plants

A

N2 fixing bacteria

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99
Q

What is shape of spirochetes?

A

spiral/coiled

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100
Q

WHere do protist get energy from and what pigment do they have?

A

get energy from phototsynthesis and examples are chlorophyll A

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101
Q

WHich algae protist have two flagella are bioluminescentand send nerve toxins?

A

dino flagellates

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102
Q

Which has flagellated sperm and is an example of seaweed?

A

Brown algae

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103
Q

WHich have 1-3 flagella, and their PM dont have cellulose

A

euglenoid

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104
Q

WHat is Euglenoids eyespotand pellicles function?

A

phototaxis

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105
Q

WHat are diatoms shells made of?

A

siO2

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106
Q

what is the pigment of rhodophyta that gives away its red color?

A

phycobilin

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107
Q

what is chlorophytas cell wall made of?

A

cellulose

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108
Q

Match three forms of sexual rep.

  1. isogamous a. sperm and egg diff. in size
  2. anisogamous b. egg stays in parent and sperm comes and hits it
  3. oogamous c. sperm and egg are motile
A

isogamous-c
anisogamous-a
oogamous-b

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109
Q

which animal protist are amoebas? How do they move? How do they eat?

A

rhizopods; psedopoda, phagocytosis

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110
Q

what are the foramiferas shells made of?

A

calcium carbonate

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111
Q

what disease do apicomplexans make?do they make spores? Are they motile? What kind of relationship do they have?

A

malaria; they do make spores; they are not motile; they are animal parasites

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112
Q

Give an example of a ciliate?

A

paramecium

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113
Q

what two things are bodies of fungal protozoa full of?

A

filaments and spores

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114
Q

How did cellular slime mold become part of fungi kingdom?

A

it was part of protozoa but it had many nuclei

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115
Q

Hoew does a cellular slime mold become a slug? What is the top of a slug composed of?

A

the spores become amoeba which then become slug; the top of slug is called stalk and has a capsule

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116
Q

What do plasmodial slime mold consume?

A

its a mass of fungal protist that acts as a detrivore feeding on dead.

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117
Q

Describe how it becomes a plasmodium.

A

spores become amoeba then becomes plasmodium

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118
Q

Name 2 examples of oomycota. What are septa? WHy are oomycota coencytic?

A

parasites that include water mold, mildew and they have hyphae. These have no cell walla. Septa are the cell walls; They are coencytic because they have many nuclei

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119
Q

What are fungi cellwall made of?

A

chitin

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120
Q

What is haustoria?

A

the hyphae consisted in parasites that affect host

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121
Q

what is a plasmogamy?WHat type of reproduction is it?

A

dikaryotic hyphae in which two nuclei fuse; sexual reproudtcion

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122
Q

WHat is karyogamy?

A

two haploid fuse to make a diploid nucleus

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123
Q

what occurs during asexual reproduction?

A

fragementation in which hyphae part breaks off and budding occurs

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124
Q

what is the relationship between plants and fungi in which the fungi provides phosphate? What type of fungi does this?

A

mycchorizae; glomeromycota

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125
Q

Which fungi have septa? WHich do not?

A

Do have septa: ascomycota, basidiomycota

Dont have it: zygomycota, glomeromycota

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126
Q

Match the following:

  1. Zygomycota a. mushroom
  2. lichens b. cynabacteria
  3. asidiomycota c. bread mold
  4. basidiomycota d. mildew, yeast
  5. deutromycota e. pennecillin
A 
zygomycota-bread mold
lichens-cyanobacteria
asidiomycota-mildew, yeast
basidiomycota-mushroom
deutromycota-penecillin
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127
Q

What do lichens have mutualistic relationship with?

A

algae

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128
Q

what are fxns of rhizoids?

A

tissues for absorption that make plants stand up

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129
Q

how do plants stand up straight

A

they have varying tissues that hold mechanical support

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130
Q

what is the main life cycle of plants, sporophyte or gametophyte?

A

sporophyte

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131
Q

Match the following :
bryophyta club mosses/spike
lycophyta vascular plants
pterophyta liverwort/hornwort
tracheophyta flowering plant
coniferphyta ferns
angiosperm pines/firs/spruce

A 
bryophyta-liverwort/hornwort
lycophyta-club mosses/spike
pterophyta-ferns
tracheophyta-vascular plants
coniferphyta-pines/firs/spruce
angiosperm-flowering plants
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132
Q

what type of plant is lycophyta? What is the male organ and female organ called?

A

resurrection plant due to it being herbacious; male is antheridium and female is aarchegonium

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133
Q

what is the dominant generation of bryphyta?

A

gametophyte

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134
Q

where do ferns grow from?

A

rhizomes with big leaves

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135
Q

In pterophyta, whatr makes spores?

A

sporangia

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136
Q

why are horsetails structure rough?

A

because of silicon dioxide

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137
Q

what two types of cells do tracheophyte have?

A

phloem and xylem

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138
Q

how do tracheophyte conserve gas?

A

thru stomata

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139
Q

what do microsporangia and macrosporangia make?

A

micro makes microspores which become pollen grainand then become 1 tube cell and 2 sperm cellls; macro sporangia makes macrospores which then go to 4 haploid cells and 8 accessory pigments

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140
Q

what three things do micro spores eventually become?

A

1 tube cell and 2 sperm

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141
Q

what are integuments and where does it compose of?

A

2 tissue layers in mega sporangium. composed in ovule containing this megaspor.

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142
Q

what happens when pollenb gets to megasporangia?

A

forms a pollen tube

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143
Q

how is the tube connected to the egg?

A

thru a micropyle

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144
Q

what do integuments become eventually?

A

seed coat

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145
Q

what type of plant has th ebiggest group? Are the gymnosperms or angiosperms?

A

coniferophyta; gymnosperms

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146
Q

what are compo. of male and female parts of cone?

A

male: small cones
female: large cones with the sporangia

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147
Q

how do they fertilize?

A

male pollen goes into wind and sperclei fertilizes the egg

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148
Q

match the following:
cycads vines
gnetophyte seeds with smell makes herb medicine
gingko feathery/short

A

cycads-feathery cyclinder stout
gnetophyte-vines
ginkgo-herbal medicine

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149
Q

name female part of angiosperm and what are the two components

A

pistil; stigma and style

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150
Q

name the male part of angiosperm and its components

A

stamen; anther and stalk

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151
Q

what are pollinators attracted to

A

petals and sepals

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152
Q

how many nuclei does the megaspor. in ovule divide to

A

3 times forming eight nuclei, then becomes 2 polar nuclei and 6 to be embryo sac

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153
Q

what is in the micropyl end of embryo

A

1 egg and 2 synergid

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154
Q

when 2 cells travel down pollen tube, what do they fuse with and make

A

one cell fuses with polar body and makes endosperm and the other fuses with egg

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155
Q

how many tissue layers do animals usually have

A

2-3

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156
Q

what is it called when animal is diploblastic? triploblastic

A

diplo: 2 layers
triplo: 3 layers

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157
Q

in dicot, how are veins of leaves? How is vascular bundle set out

A

dicot: veins are net veined, and vascular bundle is in a ring

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158
Q

in monocot , how are veins of leaves and the vascular bundle

A

its parallel and vascualr is randomly spread out

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159
Q

distinguish between radial and bilateral

A

radial symmetry means it can have front and backand bilateral is front back top and bottom

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160
Q

what is cephalization

A

alot of nerve tissue in head in bilateral species

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161
Q

what are two types of gastrovascular cavity

A

one with one opening and one with two. ow can coelem be motile

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162
Q

how can coelom be motile

A

thru mesoderm actions

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163
Q

describe what coelom, pseudo coelom, and acoelmate means

A

true coelom: has coelom

pseudo: partially
acoelom: no coelom

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164
Q

how do porifera bring in water? out water?

A

in water:choanocytes

out water: osculum

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165
Q

what type of cleavage do deutostomes have

A

radial cleavge

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166
Q

what type of cleavage do protostomes have

A

spiral cleavage

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167
Q

what are their spikule needles make of

A

calcium carbonate

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168
Q

what are some common cnidarians

A

jellyfish, sean anemones

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169
Q

Distinguish between medusa and polyp?

a. Are they diploblastic/triploblastic
b. what kind of symmetry
c. how many openings does it have

A

medusa: floating umbrella
polyp: cylindrical body
a. diploblastic
b. radial
c. protostome

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170
Q

Name some platylhelminthes.

a. Are they diplo/triplo
b. What kind of symmetry
c. what is their coelom structure?

A

flatworms, tapeworms

a. triploblastic
b. bilateral
c. pseudocoelomate

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171
Q

what is the structure on rotfiers that allow them to eat/drink?

a. Are they coelomate, pseudo, or acoelomate?
b. what kind of symmetry do they have
c. are they protostome or deutostrome
d. are they diplo or triplo

A

cilia;

a. pseudocoelates
b. bilateral
c. deutostome
d. triploblastic

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172
Q

how many shells do bivalvia have?

a. do they have open/close circulatory system
b. how many layers do they have
c. are they deutostome or protostome
d. what kind of symettry does it have

A

2 shells

a. open circulatory system
b. three layers
c. deutostome
d. bilateral

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173
Q

where are the bivalve’s mantels located?WHat do they release?

A

exoskeleton; release calcium carbonate

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174
Q

name some anellids.

a. are they triplo/diplo
b. deuto/proto
c. what is their symmetry
d. coelomates?

A

earthworms, leeches;

a. triplo
b. protostome
c. bilateral
d. coelom

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175
Q 
name some arthropods.
how are their limbs composed
what are thei skeleton made of
what two stages are in arthropods life cycle
which stage conducts metamorphasis
how many gut opening does it have
what is the symmetry
A 
spiders, crustaceans
limbs are composed of joint appendages
chitin
two stages are larvae and nymph stage
larvae
2 opening
bilateral
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176
Q

what kind of texture does echinoderm have?

a. how many gut openings?
b. what is the symmetry and is it protostome or deutostome?

A

spiny;

a. 2 gut opening
b. deutostome and radial

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177
Q

name invertibrates and vertebrates

a. what do the vertibrtes conserve and get rid of
b. what forms the nervous system
c. what is the function of the pharyngeal slit
d. do they keep the muscular tail

A

invertebrates: lancelets, tunicate
vertebrate: shark, fish, reptiles
a. conserve the nerve cord and gets rid of notochord
b. dorsal hollow nerve cord
c. oxygen exchange
d. no they lose it during embryonic development

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178
Q

what class is jawless fish

A

agnatha

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179
Q

what are some fish that have cartilage

A

lamprey and hagfish

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180
Q

what are ostheicytes? Do they have notochord? what gives them a bony appearance

A

bony fish that do not have notocord; cartilage

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181
Q

what is unique about amphibeans?

a. how do they breathe?
b. how many chambers in the heart does it have

A

they live in water and land

a. gills
b. 3

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182
Q

How do reptiles fertilize?

a. are they homeo/poikilo thermic
b. how many chambers does its heart have

A

internal fertilization;

a. poikilo
b. 3

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183
Q

are mammalian homeo/poikilo?

a. how do they feed their young?

A

they are homeo

a. thru their mammary glands

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184
Q

Match the following:
monotremata-embryo goes from uterus to pouch
marsupialia-lay eggs and has no nipples (platypus)
placentalia-embryos are in uterus

A

monotremata-lay eggs and have no nipples
marsuplaia- uterus to pouch
placentalia-in uterus

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185
Q

how many chambers do aves have in their heart and are they homeo or poikilo?

A

4 chambers and are homeotherm

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186
Q 
match the following:
epithelial-deals with nervous system
connective-lining of organs
nervous-musculatory/skeletal
muscle-bone and cartilage
A

epithelia-lining of organs
connective-bone and cartilage
nervous-nervous system
muscle-skeletal

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187
Q

what is homeostasis?

A

sustaining internal environment of body

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188
Q

In negative feedback what is the receptor and change evaluated by?

A

by the integrator and the effectory that corrects it

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189
Q

What occurs in positive feedback

A

when there is an action that is increased tension in a condition

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190
Q

Distinguish between ecto therm and endo

A

ecto are cold blooded and endo generate their own heat.

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191
Q

what are some ways you generate own body

A

sweating, mucle contraction, metabolism

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192
Q

what system protects against dehydration, infection, and temperature?

a. what does it help exit the blood
b. where does air travel over to make sound

A

respiratory system

a. helps carbon dioxide to exit blood
b. over vocal cords

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193
Q

what are two ways ventilation can occur with the environment

A

skin and gills

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194
Q

what system is gas exchange conducted via gills

A

ventilation

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195
Q

describe how ventilation occurs in insects

A

via trachaea in which oxygen goes in and co2 comes out thru spiracles

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196
Q

write pathway of respiration from oral cavity to alveoli

A

air goes into nose then pharynx and larynx then trachae then epiglottis then 2 bronchi then bronchioles then alveoli

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197
Q

where does diffusion of gas occur

A

between alveoli and capillary

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198
Q

how many bronchi does right lung and left lung have respectively`

A

2 in left and 3 in right

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199
Q

when does carbon dioxide become HCO3? what is the enzyme

A

when co2 is in plasma thru carbonic anhydrase

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200
Q

what causes lung volume to increase during contraction

A

as diaphragm and muscles contract due to the phrenic nerve

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201
Q

what happens when muscles relax

A

air comes out and diaphragm decreases

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202
Q

what occurs to the thoracic cavity and pressure when you exhale

A

thoracic decreases and pressure increases

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203
Q

when does blood pH decrease?

A

increased levels in HCO3 and CO2

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204
Q

what are chemoreceptors responsible for

A

check carotid artery to see the intercoastal and diaphrgm muscles to increase respiratory rate

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205
Q

why do chemoreceptors check the carotid artery

A

to see intercoastal and diaphragm muscles to increase respiration rate

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206
Q

what do surfactants assist in

A

help in lung collapse prevention and surface tension for alveoli

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207
Q

what does the medulla control?WHat occurs as carbon dioxide increases and hydrogen ions?

A

controls breathing; increase levels means it starts to inhale/exhale

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208
Q

match the following:
total lung cap.-amt of air inhaled/exhaled in maximum conditions
tidal volume-air is still in lungs after exhalation
inspiratory reserve volume-amt of air left after max cond.
expiratory reserve volume- how much air is moving per breath
vital capacity-total amt of air lungs can withstand
residual volume-how much air still inhaled after inhalation

A

tota lung cap-total amount of air lungs can withstand
tidal volume-how much air is moved in one breath
inspiratory reserve volume-amt of air still inhaled after resting inhalation
expiratory reserve volume-air is still in lungs after exhalation
vital capacity- amt of air that is inhaled and exhaled in max conditions
residual volume-amt of air left after maximal exhalation

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209
Q

what fluid does the blood in hemolymph go to tissues

A

hemocyl

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210
Q

what are ostia? what do they provide entry to?

A

little holes in heart that make entry to hemolymph

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211
Q

Distinguish sizes of ventricles and atria

A

atria are thin and ventricles are thick

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212
Q

when ventricles contract, what valve shuts

A

tricuspid valve

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213
Q

when the ventricles relax, what valve shuts

A

semilunar valve

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214
Q

why is left ventricle muscular than the right ventricle

A

because of greater systemic resistance in left ventricle

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215
Q

what is rhythmic contraction of the heart called? how is it regulated?

A

cardiac cycle; regulated thru autorhythmic cells

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216
Q

what do the AV nodes send their impulse to?

A

thru a bundle of purkinge fibers

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217
Q

distinguish between parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system

A

parasympathetic deals with decreased heart rate and symp. deals with increase

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218
Q

what hormone is released via medulla

A

epinephrine

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219
Q

if you have Blood A, what antigen and antibody you sue

A

antigen A and antibody B

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220
Q

if you have blood B, what antigen and antibody you use

A

antigen B and antibody A

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221
Q

if you have AB, what antigen and antibody you use

A

antigen A and B; no antiboddy

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222
Q

if you have blood O, what antigen and antibody you use

A

no antigen and A and B antobody

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223
Q

what is universal donor

A

blood O

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224
Q

what is universal acceptor

A

blood AB

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225
Q

what is Rh+

A

positive for Rh factor in blood

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226
Q

what happens when pregnant mother is Rh-?

A

The mother with the Rh negative is affected by the baby but the antigen goes to the mother thru placenta when you have another baby with Rh positive. it causes erythroblastosis fetalis

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227
Q

what drug stops the killing

A

rhogam stops it

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228
Q

what is different between systole and diastole? WHat valves close in each of these?

A

systole is when ventricles contract and the blood goes thru the pulmonary artery and closes the AV valve; diastole is when the ventricle relaxes and semi lunar vakves close

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229
Q

what is cardiac output

A

when left ventricle pumps blood in one minute

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230
Q

what causes blood to move thru arteries?veins?

A

hydrostatic pressure; adjacent skeletal movement

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231
Q

what are the walls of capillaries made of?

A

endothelium

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232
Q

what is the lymnphatic system? WHere are the ducts located

A

lymph moves thru lymp vessels and returns it to circulatory system thru two ducts in the shoulder area

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233
Q

How much hemoglobin does red blood cells have? How many oxygen can hemoglobin bind to at once

A

250 ml of hemoglobin and can bind to 4 oxygen

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234
Q

What converts fibrinogen to fibrin

A

platelets

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235
Q

how much is plasma part of blood

A

55 percent

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236
Q

what does plasma consist of?

A

salt, resp gases, hormones

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237
Q

where are erythrocytes formed

A

bone marrow in stem cells

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238
Q

what allows them to get out of the bone marrow? Where is it located?

A

erythropeoiton in kidneys

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239
Q

what dont red blood cells have?Where do they mature? For how long?

A

mitochondria; mature in spleen for 120 days

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240
Q

how does a platelet plug form

A

clot occurs when platelet and collagen combine in broken vessel area. thrombopl;astin releases and the prothrombin gives out the thrombin to join thromboplastin. The thrombin makes fibrinogen so fibrin can later on cover the vessel

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241
Q

what does prothrombin make and then combine with? What makes fibrinogen?

A

prothrombin makes thrombin and combines with thromboplastin; this thrombin gives rise to fibrnigen

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242
Q

what fluid is released as clotting occurs

A

serum

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243
Q

how does warfarin stop clotting

A

takes out vitamin K to stop making more thrombin

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244
Q

what does the excretory system maintain

A

maintaining the water regulation and disposing wastes

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245
Q

what is the process called when you regulate body temperature when the evaporation of body sweat removes heat?

A

perspiration

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246
Q

Between marine water fish and fresh waterfish, which is hyper/hypo osmotic, urinates more, and has more salt in the fish than water

A

marine fish is hypoosmotic, urinates less, and has less salth in it than water

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247
Q 
Match the following excretory system:
flame cells-mammals
nephridia-insects
malphigian tubules-flat worms
kidneys-earthworm
A

flame cells-flatworms
nephridia-earthworms
malphigian tubules-insects
kidneys-mammals

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248
Q

WHat kind of system does flame cell occupy? How does it exit thru pores

A

tube system; fluid becomes filtered and the cilia moves it thru pores

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249
Q

what is the structure in which fluid moves via collecting tube where reabsorption takes place

A

nephron

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250
Q

where does the fluid come from in malphigian tubules and go to

A

comes from hemolymph and goes to hindgut

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251
Q

what are nephrons

A

filter and make urine

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252
Q

what are the arteries leaving and entering glomerulus called

A

leaving: efferent arteriole
entering: afferent arteriole

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253
Q

what happens in collecting duct

A

where nephrons are passed to the center of kidney into renal pelvis

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254
Q

where does the urine travel after collecting duct

A

the ureter which then goes to bladder and then to urethra

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255
Q

what substance gets pushed out of bowman capsule

A

only water and solutes, not red blood cells

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256
Q

when does water move out of loop of henle? solute?

a. where does the solute accumulate after leaving loop?

A

when it goes down loop; solute moves out moving up loop

a. interstitual fluid

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257
Q

what is the function of ADH

A

it increases salt and water concentration and water permeability in collecting ductfor reabsorption

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258
Q

what is the function of aldosterone

A

increases sodium and water absorption and sodium to move out of distal convulatedtubule

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259
Q

how do aquatic animals get rid of nh3? how about mammals

A

thru water directly; by converting it to urea in which there is decreased water to be let out in urine

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260
Q

Do ADH and aldosterone increase or decrease urine making

A

decrease urine and increase bp

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261
Q

where does nutrient reabsorption occur

A

proximated convoluted tubule

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262
Q

where does secretion of substance into filtrate occur

A

distal convoluted tubule

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263
Q

when does osmolarity increase

A

when going down medulla and when sodium/chlorine ions go in/out of nephron

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264
Q

what is a counter-current multiplier system

A

when energy is used find out the concentration gradient which makes interstitual fluid hyperosmolar to nephron

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265
Q

what does diuretics do

A

make urine and increases its levels;

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266
Q

Which medication helps to stop sodium from being reabsorbed in the ascending loop?

A

loop diuretics

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267
Q

WHich medication helps to stop sodium chloride transport in distal convoluted tubule

A

thiazide loop

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268
Q

what is the pH of urine

A

7.4

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269
Q

WHich acid/base disorder affects pH of blood with the difference in HCO3 concentration

A

metabolic

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270
Q

what is the difference between alkalosis and acidosis

A

acidosis makes blood acidic and increases the carbon dioxide partial pressure and decreases levels of HCO3
alkalosis is when it increases blood pH and decreases partial pressure of Carbon dioxide and increases HCO3

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271
Q

which type of digestion occurs in vesicles which lysosome enzymes joins the vacuole

A

intracellular digestion

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272
Q

whivh type of digestion deals with the lumen and food break up

A

extracellular

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273
Q

how does the mechanical digestion work

A

food breaks down in the mouth into a bolus

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274
Q

what is the function of a epiglottis

A

heps stop certain liquid and solids from entering

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275
Q

what is the movement that assists in food traveling from esophogus to stomach

A

peristalsis

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276
Q

what two things does the stomach release; What does the stomach walls compose of

A

gastric juices and HCl; gastric mucosa

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277
Q

how many liters can the stomach store

A

two to four

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278
Q

what is chyme made of; what is the function of HCl in the stomach

A

food and water and gastric juices; to kill protein and other bacteria

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279
Q

how is pepsin formed

A

thru various proteins by pepsinogen and is activated by HCl

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280
Q

what occurs if bacteria cant make mucus

A

can cause peptic ulcers

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281
Q

where does most of digestion take place?How long is it

A

the duodenum in SI whichis first 25 cm

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282
Q

where does the chyme enter in the first segment of SI

A

pyloric sphincter

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283
Q

what is the enzyme used in SI

A

proleotic enzymes which break protein using amino peptidase

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284
Q

what are the enzymes used for digestion that are located in pancreas? What are their functions

A

lipases which break fat, amylase which break starch, and chemotrypsin which synthesize protein

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285
Q

WHere in pancreas do the enzymes get released from

A

from pancreatic duct which goes to duodenum

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286
Q

WHat do the enzymes in pancreatic duct want to neutralize

A

HCl

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287
Q

what chemical does pancreas secrete

A

HCO3which then goes to SI thru the duct

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288
Q

what does the liver make? WHere is it stored

A

liver makes bile and is stored in gall bladder; the bile goes thru bile duct and to the pancreatic duct

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289
Q

how does blood get to liver

A

blood in the digestive system goes to liver thru hepatic portal system and releases the nutrients

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290
Q

what does villi in SI function as

A

absorption and increase surface area

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291
Q

what are the villi made of

A

lacteals and capillaries

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292
Q

ow do amino acids and sugar travel in circulatory system? How do fatty acid/glycerol travel

A

the aa/sugar travel into the blood thru capillary because of Energy req. fatty acid and glycerol travel into the lymphatic systemand become triglycerides

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293
Q

How long is the LI; what is its function

A

1.5 cm long; releases feces thru anus in the rectum

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294
Q

what does the appendix do

A

cecum and digests cellulosre

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295
Q

what are the function of parietal cells and chief cells

A

the parietal cells secrete HCl and kill pathogen and chief cells are in gastric glands and convert pepsinogen to pepsin

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296
Q

Between esophogus and abdominal cavity, which has positive pressure?

A

esophogus has negative and abdominal cavity has positive

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297
Q

what is the gastroesophageal reflux dis due to? WHat has low pressure

A

it is due to periodically reflux that occurs of gastric juice; the sphincter of esophogus has low pressure so that the material in the stomach can come up

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298
Q

what does lactose intolerant mean

A

not having lactose to break milk, so lactose isnt digested and by bacteria it is

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299
Q

which hormone in stomach is made to release pepsinogen and histamine; When is it activated

A

gastrin; when food is in stomach

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300
Q

what is secretin made from; what does it produce; when is it activated

A

duodenum and S cells in the intestine; bicarbonate and is activated once food goes in duodenum

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301
Q

where is cholecystokinene made in

A

in Small intestine and lives in I cells of two upper segments of Si (duodenum and ileum)

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302
Q

what is a function of neuroglia

A

they support and protect neuron

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303
Q

which neurons are efferent and afferent

A

sensory neurons are afferent and motor are efferent

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304
Q

what does it mean when plasma membrane is polarized

A

when charge in and out is different usually more sodium out and potassium in.

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305
Q

why is charge in the cell more negative

A

proteins and nucleis acids

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306
Q

what is the status of cell being in resting potential

A

if its 70 mV inside more negative than out`

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307
Q

what occurs during action potential

A

when Na+ channels open and rush in (-70–>0) and is depolarized. WHen it is at -55 its threshold is so complete and depolatization occurs.

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308
Q

what is reached when All or Nothing happens?

A

threshold membrane potential

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309
Q

what happens during repolarization

A

when potassium ions channels open and move out and sodium gates close

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310
Q

when does hyperpolarization happen

A

before potassium gates close

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311
Q

what is the period when neuron goes to normality

A

refractory period

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312
Q

what happens when calcium gates open

A

influx of calcium ions are present after action pot occurs

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313
Q

distinguish between excitatory post synaptic neuro transmitter and inhibitatory

A

Excit: when sodium gates open and dep. generates
inh: potasium gates open and hyper polar causes it but AP is hard to generate

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314
Q

how are neurotransmitters degraded

A

broken by enzymes

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315
Q

what does cholinesterase do

A

degrades acetocholine which is at the junction between motor neuron and muscle

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316
Q

where do gaba live

A

brain neurons

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317
Q

what is a reflex arc

A

have involuntary response to stimulus and doesnt use brain

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318
Q

what innervates thoracic viscera

A

the vagus nerve and acetopcholine does as parasympathetic restores normailty after stress

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319
Q

what are the grey and white matter

A

grey: outter portion of cell

white matter: innermyelinated part

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320
Q

match the following:
prosencephelon-midbrain; visual/ auditory
diencephelon-forebrain; cerebral cortex/memory
mesencephelon-hindbrain; cerebellum, pons
rhombocephelon-forebrain; hypo/thalamus

A

prosencephelon-forebrain; cerebral cortex/memory
diencephelon-hypo/thalamus
mesencephelon-midbrain; visual/auditory
rhombocephelon-hindbrain; cerebellum, pons

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321
Q

what are grey and white matter full of in spinal cord

A

grey: nerve bodies
white: motor/sensory neurons

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322
Q

wherre do sensory nerve enter? where do motor nerves exit from

A

thru dorsal horn and stay in dorsal rot ganglia; ventral horn

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323
Q

how is myelin made in CNS and in PNS

A

from oligodendrocytes in CNS and from schwann cell sin PNS

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324
Q

what type of cells deal with the blood brain barrier

A

astrocytes

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325
Q

what ttype of cells take away waste from NS?

A

microglia

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326
Q

what two areasdo ependymal cells associate with

A

with cerebral spinal fluid and ventricles

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327
Q

what type of cells are neural cells occupied by

A

satellite cells in PNS

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328
Q

What happens as a result of the diameter of axon increasing

A

its heavily myelinated and impulse travels faster

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329
Q

what does curare inhibit? does it involve constriction

A

nicotine receptors where relaxation and paralysis occurs but no constriction

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330
Q

what does the botulism toxin stop from coming to post synaptic cell?

A

prohibits entry of acetylcholine coming from presynaptic cell

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331
Q

what is the result of anticholinesterase not breaking down acetylcholine

A

uncoordinated movement

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332
Q

what is a plexus

A

nerve fibrers

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333
Q

what are microfilaments made of

A

actin

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334
Q

what is a function of an endo nuclease

A

to break off the bonds within a nucleotide

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335
Q

whatis a difference between Atrial natriuretic peptide and an renin angiotensin aldosterone system

A

ANP: decreases bp and dilates vessels while RAAS increases bp and constricts it

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336
Q

Would there be a fire of an action potential if the graded potential summation is lower than the actual threshold potntial

A

No

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337
Q

what is a function of a surfactant

A

to lower surface tension within alveoli to ease inspiration

338
Q

what is a haplotype

A

when genes are linked and inherited together

339
Q

Does a echinodermata have a mantle? What are their endoskeleton made of

A

No mantle and are made of calcium carbonate

340
Q

what do gram negative and positive stain respectively? How many membranes do gram negative have

A

neg: pink; pos.: purple

2

341
Q

what layer is the notochord derived from? what does the notochord lead to

A

mesoderm; neural plate from endoderm

342
Q

what is a founder effect

A

when remaining genes after a disaster get passed on to following generations, or new population in which sometimes lacks diversity and variation

343
Q

what is habituation

A

when animal ignores a useless stimulus

344
Q

Does aquatic biomes contribute or consume most of earths oxygen?

A

contributes due to the photosynthesizing factor of algae releasing oxygen

345
Q

match the following description with type of muscle

skeletal: striated; multi nucleated, voluntary
smooth: 1 or 2 nucleated and is striated
cardiac: not striated, 1 nucleus, lines digestive tract, uterine

A

match the following description with type of muscle

skeletal: striated; multi nucleated, voluntary
smooth: 1 or 2 nucleated and is striated
cardiac: not striated, 1 nucleus, lines digestive tract, uterine

346
Q

what do t-tubules carry

A

carry action potential to cell and line the sarcolemma

347
Q

what do sarcoplasmic reticulum carry

A

calcium ions

348
Q

what is the function for T-system

A

ion flow

349
Q

how can many nuclei be seen via the sarcolemma

A

swelling and sometimes live off edge of cell

350
Q

what are sarcomeres mad eof

A

myofibrils

351
Q

what are thin/thick filaments called? which is made of globular protein

A

thin-actin
thick-myosin;
actin

352
Q

what two molecules cover the actin binding sites

A

troponin and tropomyosin

353
Q

what line does the actin live in? Where do myosin live?

A

I band; H zone

354
Q

WHat is the striation due to

A

overlap filament

355
Q 
match the following:
m line: contains actin
I band: has myosin
h zone: center of sarcomeres
a band: seperates sarcomeres
z: also has myosin
A 
m line: center of sarcomere
i band: contains actin
h zone: has myosin
a band: has myosin and some actin
z line: seperates sarcomere
356
Q

when does muscle contract

A

when atp joins myosin and becomes adp

357
Q

what does the calcium ion bind to to make binding site exposed

A

troponin

358
Q

what forms the crossbridge

A

the actins exposed site joins in with myosin to make a cross bridgeand then the adp is gone

359
Q

what happens to the Z line when it contracts

A

z line moves inward and contracts

360
Q

what breaks the crossbridge

A

when new atp binds

361
Q

what happens when there is no atp in the muscle contracting system

A

myosin and actin would not break

362
Q

what is released when an Action potential flows past the T-tubules? WHere does it go?

A

acetylcholine which goes into synaptic cleft

363
Q

What happens when depolarization occurs in muscles?

A

calcium ions are released

364
Q

What does calcium ions bind to in the msucle and what is exposed?

A

troponin of actin and tropomyosin is exposed

365
Q

What is a pyramidal system?

A

there is no synaptic break and causes fast impulse to flow through skeletal muscle while extrapyromidial system is somatic motor commands resulting in unconsciousness

366
Q

What is rigor mortis?

A

all muscles go stiff at time of death

367
Q

match the following 5 types of contraction
isotonic-dynamic where fiber and tension increases
dynamic-tension is constant as muscle decreases
concentric-length is constant and tension increases
eccentric-dynamic where fibers decrease and tension increases
isometric-length and tension changes

A

isotonic-muscle decreases tension is constant
dynamic-length and tension changes
concentric-is a dynamic process where fibers decrease and tension increases
eccentric-dynamic where fiber and tension increase
isometric-length doesnt change but tenson increases

368
Q

what is a stimulated response that has a latent, contraction, and relaxation period

A

twitch

369
Q

what is a absolute refractory period

A

when there is a relaxation period where muscle cannot respond to stimuli

370
Q

what is it called when the muscle fibers portray a few stimuli and can only contract

A

temporal summation

371
Q

distinguish between tetanus and tonus

A

tetanus: when muscle does not rerlax because it keeps contracting
tonus: occurs when muscle can contract in limited amount

372
Q

what is a pyruvid

A

is when pyruvic acid gets converted from glucose int he skeleton muscles.

373
Q

what does lactate dehydrogenase do

A

makes lactate acid

374
Q

what is the cori cyle a result of

A

stress and exercise when lactate acid forms from glucose

375
Q

what does the muscle cells in glucose make

A

glycogen for energy

376
Q

what deos creatine phosphate provide

A

increased energy for organisms

377
Q

how do two hormones move to target cells

A

via blood

378
Q

what releases hormones that connect the pit of hypothalamus

A

neurosecretory cells

379
Q

what 2 hormones do posterior pituitary secrete and what are the functions

A

ADH for increasing reabsorption and oxytocin which associates with childbirth and increase in milk in mammary glands

380
Q

what are tropic hormones

A

In the Anterior Pit. they release their hormones which are activated by giving out the hormones from neurosecretory cells

381
Q

what is acromegaly

A

too much growth hormone of bone and skull

382
Q

distinguish 2 cells of islet of langarhans

A

cells in the pancreas;
Bcells–> release insulin when glucose in blood increases and makes liver absorb it to make glycogen
alpha cell–> secrete glucagon when glucose is decreased

383
Q

Distinguish between PTH and Calcitonin

A

PTH: increases calcium in blood and activates reabsorption thru kidneys and releases it via bones
Calcitonin since there is alot of calcium it reduces calcium levels

384
Q

Name the steps how hormone can activate genes in nucleus

A

A hormone goes thru plasma membrane, the cytoplasm, and to the nucleus. It first binds to a receptor protein in the nucleus which then activates genes
It can also bind to a receptor on the plasma membrane and stimulate secondary messenger (for example: CAMP which causes cellular changes and IP3 which is made from Plasma Membrane and allows ER to release calcium ions

385
Q

What secondary messenger hormone stimulate when it binds to receptor? what does IP3 do

A

Camp and IP3 makes ER release Ca

386
Q

WHat is prolactin

A

direct hormone for milk in females

387
Q

WHat hormone makes glucocortoids

A

ACTH

388
Q

WHat does TSH release

A

thyroxine from thyroid

389
Q

Where is the ACTH released from

A

adrenal cortex and steroid hormones

390
Q

WHat are the steroid hormones responsible for

A

to either transport transcortins in blood or determine which gene in nucleus of target cell will get transcribed

391
Q

WHat is the LH associated with? What hormones does it release

A

deals with corpus leutum and releases progesterone and testosterone

392
Q

what us FSh’s role in men and women

A

men: allows seminiferous tubule to develop
women: releases estrogen via follicle

393
Q

WHat makes pain decrease

A

endorphins

394
Q

what are two types of corticoids

A

glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

395
Q

what is a function of glucocorticoids? what does it decrease

A

raise glucose levels decrease protein synthesis

396
Q

what hormone deals wth mineral corticoid

A

aldosterone which controls the levels of K+and Na+ and allows reabsorption of sodum and water and allows for increased bp and bv

397
Q

which of these two is made from angiotennsin II and ANP

A

mineralocorticoids

398
Q

How does cortical sex hormone play a role in men/women

A

for men it is androgens and for women its masculinitiy

399
Q

what two hormones does adrenal medulla consist

A

norepinephrine and epinephrine which makes up the catecholamines

400
Q

what does epinephrine convert

A

glycogen to glucose in liver

401
Q

where in body is blood supply increase or decrease

A

it increases in muscles heart and brain and other systems it decreases such as digestive system

402
Q

what happens in the hypothalamic hypophaseal portal

A

the releasing hormone enter the anterior pituatory via condensive csapillary through this

403
Q

how is the ACTH released in the adrenal cortex

A

thru portal vein and glucocortoids increase

404
Q

how is thyroid in kidneys and adults beneficial

A

help kids brain and growth and in adults help in metabolism

405
Q

where are T4/T3 made from

A

from thyroglobulin and thyroid cells

406
Q

what compound in the thyroglobulin makes the T4/T3?

A

iodinated tyrosine

407
Q

WHat is 20% of T3 come from

A

from T4 to T3 thru 5’ monodeiodase

408
Q

what is cretinism

A

in babies which deal with mental retardism

409
Q

what is hypothyroidism and how can it be treated

A

no thyroid hormones which are treated by animal derivative productsand decreases bp

410
Q

how is hyperthyroid treated

A

too much thyroid which can be treated by anti thyr supplement

411
Q

what can form in the neck

A

goiter

412
Q

what is diabetes due to

A

result of decreased insulin and hyperglycemia which is increased blood glucose

413
Q

which diabetes has islet cell antibodies and insulin decrease? which produce alot of glucose

A

islet cell antibodies and insulin decrease–> type 1

produces alot of glucose–> type 2

414
Q

where do you have exocrine and endocrine system and what is the difference

A

in the pancrease and the exocrine in which cells are associated with digestion in small intestine and endocrine are associated with alpha and beta cells

415
Q

what hormone is associated with renin? what does renin produce

A

aldosterone; angiotensinogen to angiotensin I and then angiotensin II

416
Q

what protein does aldosterone make

A

erythropeoitin to make rbc

417
Q

what does the pineal gland release? how does this lighten the skin

A

melatonin which lets out circadian rhythms. lighten skinn via pigment granules in melanophore

418
Q

in a peptide hormone, what do first messenger do

A

bind to receptors of target cells secreting certain enzymes; these make atp and convert to cyclic amp

419
Q

describe the cascade effect

A

the conversion to cyclic amp relays the message from outside to the cytoplasm

420
Q

describe the method of steroid hormone

A

they enter phospholipid bilayer and respond to receptors in target cell in the cytoplasm and goes into expressing genes in nucleus
forinstance: estrogen and aldosterone

421
Q

what is the main first line of defense

A

skin, a physical barrier wehich has oily acidic via sweat gland

422
Q

how isa it oily and acidic

A

sweat gland

423
Q

where are antimicrobial protein composed in

A

tear and sweat , cilia which take away bad pathogens

424
Q

what two types of hormones are there

A

steroid or peptide

425
Q

name some examples of peptide hormones

A

ADH and long-insulin

426
Q

what are the functions of gastric juices and symbiotic bacteria

A

gastric juices:kill pathogens in the stomach

symbiotic bacteria: take away bacteria in digestive system

427
Q

what are phagocytes? name some examples

A

(i.e. leukocytes); take in foriegn objects

428
Q

what is a compliment

A

20 protein which attract phagocytes and kill cells

429
Q

what are substances that get released when cells get affected by viruses

A

interferons

430
Q

what do they alert other cells to do

A

to produce defending proteins

431
Q

when an inflammatory response occurs what do basophils secrete? what does it cause

A

histamine; vasodilationwhich causes redness/increased temperature

432
Q

what is a MHC

A

mechanism that tells apart self and nonself and is composed of glycoproteins

433
Q

what are the two types of lymphocyte

A

T and B cells

434
Q

where do B cells grow and produce?

A

grow and produce in bone; they get in contact with antigen

435
Q

what do plasma B cells make

A

antibody that joins with antigen

436
Q

what do memory cells do

A

dont release antobody but help avoid invasion after first

437
Q

where do T cells grow and produce

A

produce in bone but grow in thymus gland

438
Q

what does the receptor of T cell do? What 2 cells do T make

A

they recognize between self and nonself and make 2 cells the killer cells, which kill toxic cells and helper t cells , which makes more kill t cells

439
Q

how do T cells interpret mixed markers? give example

A

they can be nonself by T cell and can viewit as nonself by MHC on plasma membrane

440
Q

what are 5 types of immunoglobulin

A

A,D,E,G. and M

441
Q

why does clonal selection occur

A

as a result of B cells binding to antigen and T cells binding to nonself cellsdue to a foriegn substance

442
Q

where do anti bodies come from

A

bacteria and fungi

443
Q

what do vaccines promote

A

production of memory cells

444
Q

what is passive immunity

A

when antibodies of infected person goes to new infection

445
Q

whenever is there no immune response

A

there is no immune response if antibodies decrease in blood circulation

446
Q

whatis innate immunity

A

initial defense against pathogens such as fever, white blood cells, enzymes, etc

447
Q

in adaptative immunity, when cells become contact with antigen, what do they make to increase in repsonce

A

they make memory cells stimulated

448
Q

when transplantation occurs, what does recipient do during immunity? what do drugs do that can affect immune system

A

affects donor organs but when drugs are given to decrease antgen response it can affect immune system

449
Q

when do cell-mediated response occur

A

in response to T cells

450
Q

what do helper t cells combine with

A

they make killer t cells to kill nonself and helper t cells that join with macrophages that has engulfed the pathogen

451
Q

what do t cells release which then proliferate after contact with engulfing pathogens

A

interleukins and use positive feedback to proliferate

452
Q

match the following leukocytes
granulocytes-come present when you have asthma/allergy
neutrophils-large WBC that let out macrophage
eosinophil-come to injury and collect antigen
basophil-attract other WBC and let out cytokines
monocyte-release histamine/allergic rxns

A

granulocyte-come to injury and collect antigens
neutrophils-present as injury occurs and attract other WBC and stick to cytokines
eosinophil-come present when you have asthma
basophil-allergic rxns, release histamine
monocytes-large WBC that let out macrophages

453
Q

how can t cells be destroyed

A

by not being responsive to MNC

454
Q

what kind of protein does t cells have and what do t cells kill

A

have CD8 protein and respond to MHC1 and kill the tumor cells they are infected

455
Q

what kind of protein do helper t cells have and kill

A

CD4 protein and associate with MHCII and kill nonself cells

456
Q

what decreases t cells after infection

A

T regulatory cells

457
Q

what do humoral response respond to

A

antigens

458
Q

whatis function of integument

A

gives protection to different bacteria that enter thru top skin layer called skin microbiome

459
Q

what is the function of sebacious gland? what is the pH

A

release oil and sweat which protect from bacteria and have a pH of 4-6

460
Q

distinguish between epidermis and dermis

A

dermis supplys blood and most of differentiated cells, while epiderm contains keratinocytes which are water proff cells

461
Q

what is the purpose of hair

A

the hair conserves body heat and avoids sweat contact from skin; secretions of mucus avoids bacteria to be let in skin layers

462
Q

what is evolution

A

study of change of a organism

463
Q

differentiate between micro and macro evolution

A

micro: change of populations of organisms and macro is patterns of change in related species

464
Q

what is the study of relationship between organisms

A

phylogeny

465
Q

who developed theory of evolution

A

Lamark

466
Q

describe use and disuse theory

A

use: parts that were advantage were used disuse: parts that were not were not used

467
Q

why is inheritance of acquired trait false

A

DNA from sex cells only does pass down from generation

468
Q

what topic did darwin initiate

A

natural selection

469
Q

what theory involves the relationship between natural selection and genetics

A

synthetic theory of evolution

470
Q

what is plaeontology?what do some of these fossils contain

A

study of fossils to determine pre-existant creatures before time; include hand print, foot, body features

471
Q

what is the process that brought minerals to make cells become conform

A

petrification

472
Q

what is biogeography

A

when geogeaphy is used to study the location of different organisms

473
Q

what is embryology

A

study of difference in development of species

474
Q

distinguish between homologous and analogous structures

A

homologous: have same ancestor

475
Q

what kind of structure is wings of bird and fly? how about flipper of whale and wing of bat

A

homologousl analogous

476
Q

what is molecular biology

A

using DNA/genome to study evolution

477
Q

name the arguments for natural selection

A

resources limited, variation, survival of fittest, competition, populations can reproduce, only favorable traits in population, variation is heritable

478
Q

define stabilizing, directional, disruptive and sexual selection and give examples of each

A

stabilizing: traits dont favor extreme or unusual (ie height in human)
directional: when you favor towards one extreme trait (iemoth color)
disruptive: when environment favors both extreme and unusual trait, but no common ones (ie weed height)
sexual: mating diff. and dep[ends on appearance

479
Q

name three reasons variations occur via sexual reproduction

A

mutatons of alleles, sex rep, independent assortant of alleles and random fusion of gametes

480
Q

what is diploidy

A

offspring recieves 2 alleles from parent

481
Q

how does outbreeding contribute to variation

A

the alleles form as a result of two seperate species breeding

482
Q

what allows diff phenotypes to exist in gene population

A

balanced polymorphism

483
Q

whatis heterozygous advantage? example? what disease does it relate to?

A

when the heterozygous allele has advantage over homozygous recessive (ie sickle cell anemia- malarial resistance)

484
Q

why does hybrid vigor occur

A

due to inbreeding

485
Q

what is it called when recessiveis advatage

A

frequency dependent allele

486
Q

what causes changes in population

A

allele frequencies

487
Q

distinguish between gene flow and drift

A

flow: new and old alleles get introduced
drift: increase/decrease in allele frequencies

488
Q

what is difference between founder and bottleneck effect

A

FOunder: allele frequency not same as original
Bottleneck: original frequency is not longer present due to natural disaster

489
Q

what two things does non-random mating include

A

inbreeding and sexual selection

490
Q

what is another word for genetic equilibrium? Define it.

A

Hardy weinburg eq; frequenies are constant throughout generations

491
Q

what causes microevolution

A

Natural selection, mutations, genetic drift and pool

492
Q

what are p and q? p^2 and q^2?

A

p and q are allele frequencies and the squares are homozygotic genotypes

493
Q

Why does speciation occur

A

species forming due to enviornmental changes , mutation, migration, genetic drift/flow

494
Q

What is difference between allopatric and sympatric speciation

A

allopatric: formation of new species with a barrier

495
Q

How does natural selection play into balanced polymorphism

A

sympatric speciation without a barrier asscoiates with balanced polymorphism in which species with differenct traits thru NS separates them

496
Q

where does hybridism occur

A

includes when 2 different species produce progeny in hybrid zone

497
Q

what is adaptive radtiation

A

includes evolution from single ancestor

498
Q

why cant some species interbreed when there isnt a barrier

A

reproductive isolation

499
Q

what are 2 mechanisms for reproductive isolation

A

pre/post zygotic isolation

500
Q

Match the following:
behavior isolation-when male/female genetalic cannot be together
mechanical isolation- time at which when and how they mate
gametic isolation-they dont have contact with each other
temporal isolation- exposure to gametes in enviornment has harmful effect to survive
habital isolation can’t recognize partners in mating because of wrong cortship

A

behavior isolation- cant recognize partners in mating due to wrong courtship ritual
mechanical isolation- male/female genitalia cannot be together
gametic isolation- exposure to gametes in env, has harmful effect to survive
temporal iso- time at which relates to when and how they mate
habital iso-dont have contact with each other

501
Q

atch the follow:
Hybrid inviability-hybrids make offspring that cant really produce
Hybrid Breakdown- when zygote cant form progeny
Hybrid sterility- when it reproduces sterile

A

Hybrid inviability- when zygote cant form progeny
Hybrid Breakdown- hybrids make offspring that cant really produce
hybris sterility- when it reproduces sterile

502
Q

distinguish between punctuated eq. and phyletic gradualism

A

punctuated eq: evolution thru long periods of time and short big changes; gradualism: long period of short changes

503
Q

what organisms were popular during paleozoic and mesozoic era

A

trilobites and dinosaurs

504
Q

when did prehorse (dawn horse) evolve to sabor tooth, mammoth, gradualism or puctual

A

gradual

505
Q

why were DNA bases of organisms similar in relation to comparitive biochemistry

A

Had similar enzymes in respiration

506
Q

what was a good method to distinguish animals evolutionary patterns

A

blood samples

507
Q

what are vestigial structure? Give example.

A

fxns that no longer are workin; appendix

508
Q 
match the following:
heterotroph anaerobe: chemosynthetic bacteria
autotrophic aerobe: humans
autotrophic anaerobe: yeast
heterotrophic aerobe: green plants
A

heterotroph anaerobe: yeast
autotrophic aerobe: green plant
autotrophic anaerobe: chemosynthetic bacteria
heterotrophic aerobe: humans

509
Q

what is a population

A

group of animals per area

510
Q

what the relationship between organism and enviornment

A

ecosystem

511
Q

what is a bioshphere

A

places where organisms reside

512
Q

what is the difference between habitat and niche

A

habitat: where organism lives
niche: resources in the environment

513
Q

what is referred to the size of population

A

N

514
Q

what is the total number of organisms per area

A

density

515
Q

what is the term that describes how spread out the population is? what are three terms to describe dispersion

A

dispersal; random, uniform, clumped

516
Q

what is the survivorship curve

A

organisms length of life

517
Q

match the following:
type 1-rodent; curve is constant
type 2-oysters; die early
type 3- humans; survive and die later on

A

type 1- humans; survive and die later on
type2- rodent; curve is constant
type 3- oysters; die early

518
Q

What is the difference between biotic potential and carrying capacity

A

biotic pot: how much an organism can use respiration and grows
carrying capacity: capacity at which animal lives

519
Q

what is character shift displacement

A

some organisms get better resource than others

520
Q

what isit called when 2 species can be at each others presence while being at 2 difference places in the same niche

A

realized niche

521
Q

what occurs when 2 species diverge apart

A

development of new niche

522
Q

how does parasite get its nourishment

A

from host

523
Q

what is a parasitoid

A

when parasite lays eggs on host and dies from it

524
Q

what do herbivores do

A

eat grass; grazers

525
Q

name three symbiotic relationshop

A

mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism

526
Q

whatis coevolution

A

one species evolves in response to other

527
Q

what types of chemicals are released from plants that are harmful to the enviornment

A

secondary compounds

528
Q

what is aposematic coloration

A

animals warn predator that they can bite and sting

529
Q

Name/ Describe two types of mimicry

A

Mullerian: animal with defense blends with predator
Batesian: without defense ‘’

530
Q

what is it called when you have a change in composition of species

A

Ecological Succession

531
Q

what is a climax community

A

community is at constant due to environment and other factors (biotic/abiotic) but can be affected by epidemic or disaster

532
Q

what kind of species in habitat an area first

A

pioneer

533
Q

what is the sere in grassland

A

dominant species(grass)

534
Q

what are primary producers

A

autotrophs

535
Q

what are primary consumers

A

herbvores

536
Q

whivh part of trophic level recycle everything to goback to food cycle

A

detrivores

537
Q

How much energy is used every trophic level

A

10 percent energy

538
Q

which material cycle involves decomposition and respiration into atmosphere, fossil fuel production and for photosynthesis

A

Carbon cycle

539
Q

which material cycle deals with excretion and decomposition into rocks and ocean sediments? what does it release tot he plants

A

phosphorus cycle; phosphoric acid which get absorbed to plants

540
Q

which material cycle deals with plants aborsbing material due to transpiration, decomposition in air , water, etc.

A

Hydrologic cycle

541
Q

which material cycle fixes nitrogen

A

nitric cycle

542
Q

which biome has long leg animals decrease temperature than savannas no shelter for carnivores for protection

A

temp. grassland

543
Q

which biome has cactii with less than 10 cm rain per year

A

desert

544
Q

which biome has decrease amount of rain and have plants trees that are dispersed

A

savannah

545
Q

where are temperate decidious forests located? what type of trees and animals does it have

A

Northeast; maple/oak/deer

546
Q

distinguish between taigas and tundras

A

taiga: cold winter/hot summer, coniferous forest
tundra: permafrost, thawy layer

547
Q

what allows people to predict which animals inhabit an area

A

climax vegetation

548
Q

why are aquatic biome more stable than land biome

A

constant temperature and oxygen levels

549
Q

which biome includes pine, fir, and spruce

A

temperate coniferous forest

550
Q

what happens as you go up a mountain

A

temperature increases

551
Q

What is a cofactor

A

nonprotein molecules that assist enzymes (inorganic: vitamins, organic: metal ions)

552
Q

What is the primary structure of protein

A

sequence of amino acids

553
Q

What is the secondary structure of protein

A

3d shape resulting from hydrogen bonding between amino and carboxyl groups of adjacent amino acids (alpha helix, beta sheet)

554
Q

What is the tertiary structure of protein

A

Noncovalent interactions between amino acid R groups

(H-bonds, ionic bonds, hydrophobic effect, disulfide bonds, van der waals

555
Q

What is the quaternary structure of protein

A

shape of protein that is a grouping of two or more seperate peptide chains (hemoglobin)

556
Q

What are the properties of water

A

Excellent solvent, high heat capacity, high heat of vaporization, ice floats, cohesion/surface tension, Adhesion

557
Q

What are examples of dissacharides

A

sucrose (glu+fru), lactose (glu+gal), maltose (glu, glu)

558
Q

What are examples of polysaccharides

A

Starch-stores energy in plant cells (alpha-glucose), Glycogen- stores energy in animal cells (alpha-glucose), Cellulose- structural molecules for walls of plant cells and wood, (B-glucose)
Chitin- Nitrogen-containing group attached ring (B-glucose)

559
Q

What is protein denaturation

A

secondary onward structure of protein is removed

560
Q 
Match the following:
intertidal zone-depth upto 600ft
neritic zone-photosynthesis; 250-600, plankton, fish/shark
pelagic zone-dry/tidal; algae
photic zone-open sea
aphotic zone-dark/cold; heterotrophs
A 
intertidal zone-dry/tidal; algae
neritic zone-depth upto 600 ft; crabs
pelagic zone-open sea
photic zone- photosynthesis; 250-600, plankton, fish/shark
aphotic zone- dark/cold; heterotrophs
561
Q

what abiotic factors are contained in freshwater biomes

A

sun, oxygen, salinity

562
Q

how do fish consume water in hypotonic enviornment

A

storing in the contractile vacuole

563
Q

how does pollution affect freshwater biomes

A

death

564
Q

what are biotic factors

A

organism/environment relationship

565
Q

what is the rock and soil layer which can impact the organisms thru pH level of soil

A

substratum

566
Q

how is water retained in the soil

A

depends in the structure

567
Q

why do carnivornes have small digestive

A

digest fastly

568
Q

why do reomra and shark share commensalism

A

remora sticks to surface of shark for food

569
Q

what does a plants cuticle do

A

saves water

570
Q

In poikilothermic animals is Energy absorbed or released to enviornment

A

poikilothermic are cold blood animals so E is releeasing to the environment

571
Q

how does homeothermic animal save heat

A

homeothermic animal save energy thru fat and hair

572
Q

what is osmoregulation

A

when animals sustain water input and output

573
Q

how does virus act like an endoparasite

A

the virus enters host impairing the functions and performs DNA replication

574
Q

what animal does saprophytic bacteria affect and what disease is the result

A

cattle; anthrax from diphteria

575
Q

why do protists/fungi act as saprophytic organisms

A

feed on dead animals and release remnants into environment

576
Q

name some examples of scavengers

A

hyenas; vultures

577
Q

what do insects release from urea to save water

A

uric acid from urea

578
Q

Distinguish between salt water fish and freshfish

A

saltwater fish: have less salt in them so they drink constantly an dmhave more salt go in
freshwater salt: have more salt in them than the water and absorbs alot of salt and is hypoosmotic

579
Q

define food web and food pyramid

A

food web: is there is abundance of food chains between animals which show who eats what
food pyramid: when food moves thru the chain and releases energy

580
Q

which has most energy top or bottom of pyramid

A

base of pyramid

581
Q

as you go up pyramid does, does the mass and number of animals increase or decrease

A

decreases in mass and number of animals

582
Q

what causes nitrogen to become nitrate in legumes

A

lightening

583
Q

what happens when plants take in nitrate

A

becomes nucleic acid which goes to animals

584
Q

name three ways how you know ecosystem is stable

A
  1. if they are stable abiotic and biotic factors
  2. Energy is going into syste of organisms to make organics compounds
  3. there is regular flowing of material cycles
585
Q

what two factors do dominant species look for

A

temperature and soil

586
Q

What is a steroid

A

three 6-membered rings and one 5-membered ring

587
Q

What makes up a nucleotide

A

nitrogen base, five carbon sugar deoxyribose, phosphate group

588
Q

What is a purine

A

(2 rings)- adenine, guanine

589
Q

What is a pyrimidine

A

(1 ring)- thymine, cytosine

590
Q

How many H-bonds do Adenine and Thymine have?

A

2

591
Q

How many H-bonds do guanine and cytosine have?

A

3

592
Q

What is a nucleoside

A

sugar + base

593
Q

What is RNA

A

contains ribose, thymine replaced by uracil, single stranded. Precursors to current life

594
Q

What is the cell theory

A
  1. All living organisms are composed of one or more cells
  2. The cell is the basic unit of structure, function, and organization in all organisms
  3. All cells come from preexisting, living cells
  4. Cells carry hereditary information
595
Q

What is a stereomicroscope

A

Visible light for surface of sample. Can look at living samples, but low resolution

596
Q

What is a compound microscope

A

Visible light for thin section of sample. Can look at some living samples (single cell layer). May require staining

597
Q

What is a phase-contrast microscope

A

Uses light phases and contrast. Detailed observation of living organisms (not good for thick samples and produces “Halo effect” around perimeter of samples)

598
Q

What is a flouescence microscope

A

Can look at thin slices while keeping sample intact; fluorescent tagging. observe chromosomes during mitosis

599
Q

What is a confocal laser scanning microscope

A

Uses laser light to scan dyed specimen, then displays image digitally

600
Q

What is a scanning electron microscope

A

Look at surface with high resolution(can’t use on living)

601
Q

What is a transmission electron microscrope

A

look at thin cross-sections in high detail. Can look at internal structures but can’t be used on living things

602
Q

What is the order of organelles pellet out during centrifugation

A

nuclei layer –> mitochondria/chloroplasts/lysosome/peroxisomes –> ribosomes/viruses/ larger macromolecules –>

603
Q

What is an allosteric enzyme

A

have both an active for substrate binding and an allosteric site for binding of an allosteric effector

604
Q

What is cooperativity

A

enzyme becomes more receptive to additional substrate molecules after one substrate molecule attaches to an active site (quaternary structure)

605
Q

wht four bases does dna have

A

thymine, adenine, guanine, and cytosine

606
Q

name three forms of rna

A

r,t,m RNA

607
Q

What is permeable in the phospholipid membrane

A

small, uncharged, nonpolar molecules and all hydrophobic molecules

608
Q

which RNA goes from nucleus to ribosome

A

mRNA

609
Q

what is rRna responsible for synthesizing

A

rRNA

610
Q

which rRNA is most abundant

A

rRNA

611
Q

Match the following description of parts/enzymes in DNA replication
DNA Ligase-unwinds helix
helicase-seals okazaki
leading strand-makes DNA 3’-5’
topoimerase-breaks H-bonds in nucleotide
ss binding protein-replaces primers with nucleotide
DNA Polymerase-hold strands separate
RNA primase- okazaki put in 5’-3’
lagging strand-fill in nucleotides to RNA primers

A

DNA ligase-replaces primers with nucleotide
helicase-unwinds helix
leading strand-makes DNA 3’–>5’
topoimerase-breaks H bonds in nucleotide
ss binding proteins-hold strands separate
DNA polymerase-makes the DNA 3’->5’
RNA primase-fill in nucleotides to RNA primers
lagging strand-okazaki put in 5’–>3’

612
Q

Describe the process of DNA rep

A
  1. Helicase unwinds
  2. single stranded binding protein holds apart
  3. topoimerase prevents from strangling
  4. RNA primers start replication and add into the strand
  5. DNA polymerase fill in nucleotides to primers
  6. leading strand replicates 5’–> 3’
  7. lagging strand fills in okazaki fragment
  8. ligase seals fragments
  9. primase replaces primers with nucleotides
613
Q

WHat is protein synthesis

A

DNA codes for proteins; the metabolic process that gets initiated by enzymes determines the trait

614
Q

what is difference between 1 gene 1 enzyme and 1 gene 1 polypeptide

A

1 gene/enzyme: one gene codes for one enzyme

1 gene/polyopept: one gene codes for multiple proteins

615
Q

what do enzymes during metabolic process in protein synthesis determine?

A

the traits

616
Q

What is the function of cholesterol

A

adds rigidity to membrane of animal cells under normal conditions (but at low temps, it maintains its’ fluidity) Sterols in plant cells, hopanoids in prokaryotes

617
Q

In initiation, where does the RNA polymerase bind to

A

promotor

618
Q

WHat direction does elongation happen

A

5–>3

619
Q

What is a holoenzyme

A

union of the cofactor and the enzyme

620
Q

What is an apoenzyme

A

enzyme not combined with a cofactor

621
Q

What is the phospholipid membrane permeability

A

small, uncharged, nonpolar molecules and all hydrophobic molecules

622
Q

where does termination happen

A

pol A tail

623
Q

what is the strand that is being transcribed

A

mRNA

624
Q

what are codons? How many are there? How many stop codons are there?

A

they are 3 sets of nucleotides that bind to anticodon of tRNA; 64 codons and 3 stop codons

625
Q

WHich RNA is involved in translation? WHat does it contain that bonds to codons?

A

tRNA; anti codon

626
Q

WHat is the wobble position

A

the 3rd codon that doesnt need tomatch with anticodon

627
Q

what are telomeres? WHat do telomerases do?

A

tips of DNA strandl they are enzymes that help out with replication at telomeres

628
Q

How is energy used in elongation in replication

A

2 phosphate groups are cut off on new nucleotide

629
Q

why does RNA processing occur

A

correct the RNA nucleotides

630
Q

what is the function of polyA tail and what part of DNA is it bind to

A

polyA tail is added to 3’ end to make sure it goes out iof nuclear envelope

631
Q

WHat is the function of guanine cap and what part of DNA it binds to

A

forms GTP and can attach properly to small ribosome

632
Q

Describe the process of RNA splicing?WHat cuts the introns off?

A

RNA splicing occurs to to remove unnecessary segments of RNA. Introns are spliced by snRPs and exons are expressed

633
Q

WHy is ALternative SPlicing important

A

because they remove various parts of DNA so it codes for different proteins

634
Q

WHat happens during initiation of translation? WHat is the first amino acid coded

A

Initiation: involves 5’ cap which attaches to small ribosome and tRNA’s codon binds to start codon of mRNA to produce methionine; the large subunit binds and all this occupies P site

635
Q

Name the order of sites in ribosomes amino acid/tRNA goes to?

A

A site–> P–> E
Elongation occurs when start amino acid releases and amino acid occupies A site. Once the P site attaches to amino acid A site moves to P site and so on

636
Q

How is termination processed

A

occurs when a stop codon reaches and terminates sequence all amino acid are to be in E site to be released afterwards

637
Q

WHat are mutations

A

alter protein sequences

638
Q 
Match all point mutations 
deletion-1 nucleotide gets into sequence
frameshift-1 nucleotide is omitted
substitution-when 2 nucleotide switch
insertion-shifts codon so sequence is wrong
A

deletion-1 nuc. is ommited
frameshift-shifts codon so sequence is wrong
substitution-2 nuc. switch
insertion-one nuc. gets into sequence

639
Q

distinguish between missense and nonsense mutation

A

missense: new codon is added and new amino acid is a resultt

640
Q

why do mutations occur

A

due to replication errors or environmental factors such as some mutagens–> chemicals, radiation, carcinogens

641
Q

name three DNA repair mechanism and describe them

A

proofreading which DNA polymerase checks any incorrect nucleotide, Mismatch repair sees if there is something wrong with proofreading. Excision repair checks if mutagens have impacted activity of nuceotides

642
Q

How many histones are wrapped in nucleosome

A

8 histones

643
Q

what type of chromatin cannot be transcribed because its densely packed

A

heterochromatin

644
Q

what type of chromatin can be transcribed because its loosely coiled

A

euchromatin

645
Q

what do transposons allow DNA to do

A

to move around but can cause mutations

646
Q

Are viruses living cells

A

nonliving cells and affect host functions

647
Q

Describe lytic cycle

A

involves viruses to enter host cell membrane and use their enzymes to replicate their DNA and proteins; these DNA and proteins enter new virus cell which leaves host cell by lysing it

648
Q

How does retroviruses make up DNA

A

they use ssRNA to make DNA which make RNA later on or goes thru lysogenic cycle

649
Q

In the lysogenic cycle, what form does the DNA of virus stay in

A

involves temp. staying in host cell as a provirus and then going thru lytic cycle

650
Q

WHat is the circular form of DNA in bacteria called

A

plasmid

651
Q

How does the bacterial cell replicate

A

via binarry fission

652
Q

what is it called when a plasmid incorporates into a chromosome

A

episome

653
Q

what is the difference between F and R plasmid

A

F: is when pili connects two bacteria to exchange material
R: produces resistance to antibiotic

654
Q

DIstinguish among the 3 types of genetic variation of prokaryotes

A

conjugation: bacteria exchange DNA material thru pili
transduction: virally send new DNA to bacteria
transformation: bacteria gets DNA into genome thru environment and via recombination

655
Q

what is an operon

A

when RNA polymerase attaches to initiate transcription

656
Q

where is RNA polymerase blocked when repressor binds

A

operator

657
Q

where does the RNA polymerase attach to start replication

A

promtor

658
Q

What are structural genes

A

genes code for certain enzyme to make a product (lactose/trp)

659
Q

where are regulatory gene located? what is its function?

A

located outside of operon can make repressor protein which blocks RNA polyemrase and activator protein which activates RNA polymerase to transcription.

660
Q

what is the difference between lac and trp operon

A

lac: first cannot transcribe due to repressor binded to operon. When lactose is available, it inactivates repressor and transcription is possible
trp: allows transciption to occur via RNA polymerase on operon to make trp. THis trp activates repressor which no longer can transcription

661
Q

What is the difference between acylation and methylation

A

acetylation: histones are uncoiling with acetyl groups and can transcribe while methylation is when methyl groups of histones dont allow to coil and transcribe

662
Q

Describe the process of RNA interference

A

occurs when SiRNA are made to destroy DNA translation/transcription

a. ssRNA folds back to make dsRNA
b. they get cut by enzyme to make siRNA
c. siRNA binds to complementary sequence which blocks transcription and degrades

663
Q

What sources do recombinant DNA use to incorporate into DNA

A

technology, transcformation, transduction, conjugation, etc.

664
Q

What is a channel protein

A

provide passageway through membrane for hydrophilic substances (polar, charged)

665
Q

What is a recognition protein

A

MHC complex on macrophage to distinguish between self and foreign

666
Q

What is a ion channel

A

passage of ions across membrane. Gated channels in nerve and muscle cells. voltage-gated, ligand-gated (chemical), mechanically-gated (respond to pressure, vibration, temp)

667
Q

What is a porin

A

allow passage of certain ions + small polar molecules (kidney and plant root cells)

668
Q

What is a carrier protein

A

bind to specific molecules, protein changes shape, molecule passed across

669
Q

What is a transport protein

A

can use ATP to transport materials across (not all transport use ATP)

670
Q

What is an adhesion protein

A

attach cells to neighboring cells, provide anchors for internal filaments and tubules

671
Q

What is a receptor protein

A

binding site for hormones + other trigger molecules

672
Q

What is the function of cholesterol

A

adds rigidity to membrane of animal cells under normal conditions (but at low temps, it maintains its’ fluidity) Sterols in plant cells

673
Q

WHat part does plasmid and host DNA combine after using restriction enzyme to cut it

A

sticky ends

674
Q

How does gel electrophoresis work? WHat is the main goal of it?

A

when you take different strands of DNA to separate fragment in gel. small fragements will move down gel faster than larger ones; main goal is to see how close certain species are to each other

675
Q

What are RFLP

A

is a way to see the relationships of species’ DNA that have restriction fragment of same species but have different lengths

676
Q

What are short tandem repeats

A

sequences repeat in different individuals

677
Q

WHy is DNA fingerprinting used

A

to check criminal cases because you compare DNA

678
Q

WHat dont cDNA have

A

introns

679
Q

Where do CDNA come from

A

reverse transcriptase

680
Q

What is a polypeptide chain reaction

A

when you use fragments of DNA and copy ot multiple times via DNA polymerase and the RNA primers at nuc. bases

681
Q

What is the function of glycocalyx

A

carbohydrate coat that covers outer face of cell wall of some bacteria. consists of glycolpids and glycoproteins
(provides adhesive capabilities, barrier to infection, markers for cell-to-cell recognition)

682
Q

What is the nucleus

A

chromatin in the general packaging structure of DNA around proteins in eukaryotes, chromosomes is tightly condensed chromatin when the cell is ready to divide, DNA coiled into bundles called nucleosomes.

683
Q

What is the nucleolus

A

inside the nucleus–maker of ribosomes

684
Q

What is the nucleoid

A

contains genetic material within cell of prokaryote

685
Q

What is the cytoplasm

A

JUST AN AREA– NOT A STRUCTURE. Doesn’t include nucleus, just organelles and everything suspended in cytosol

686
Q

What is a ribosome

A

Eukaryote- 60S+ 40S=80s, Prokaryote 50S+ 30S = 70S. Made of rRNA + protein

687
Q

What is the ER (not emergency room lolol)

A

Rough- ribosomes are present

Smooth- synthesis of lipids and hormones, In liver cells- breakdown of toxins, drugs

688
Q

What is the Golgi

A

modify and package proteins into vesicles (cis=incoming, trans= secretory vesicles) had flattened sacs known as cisternae

689
Q

What is a lysosome

A

VESICLES not Organelle. Contains digestive enzymes (low pH) for break down of food, cellular debris, and foreign invaders, functions in apoptosis

690
Q

What is a peroxisome

A

break down H2O2, fatty acids, and amino acids (common in liver and kidney cells)
germinating seeds- break down stored fatty acids to help generate energy for growth

691
Q

What is a mitochondria

A

carry out aerobic respiration (carbs–> energy) have their own circular DNA and ribosomes

692
Q

What are microtubules, intermediate filaments, and microfilaments

A

Microtubule: protein tubulin, support and motility. Found in spindle apparatus which guide chromosomes during division, flagella and cilia (9+2 array)
Intermediate filament: support for maintaining cell shape (keratin)
Microfilament: made up actin and involved in cell motility ( skeletal muscle, amoeba, cleavage furrow)

693
Q

What are MTOC’s

A

centrioles and basal bodies 9*3 array. Plant cells lack centrioles but do have MTOC’s

694
Q

What is a chloroplast

A

carry out photosynthesis (energy from sunlight–> carb)

695
Q

What is a transport vesicle

A

move materials between organelles or organelles and plasma membrane

696
Q

What is a food vacuole

A

Temporary receptacles of food, merge with lysosomes for food break down

697
Q

What is a storage vacuole

A

In plants- store starch, pigments, and toxic substances

698
Q

What is a central vacuole

A

exert turgor (pressure) when fully filled, maintaining rigidity in the cell

699
Q

What is a contractile vacuole

A

single-celled organisms- collect and pump excess water out of cells (hypotonic environment)

700
Q

What is a cell wall

A 
provide support for the cell.
Plants- cellulose
Fungi- chitin
Bacteria- peptidoglycan
Archaea- polysaccharides
701
Q

What is an extracellular matrix

A

Found in animals, in area between adjacent cells. (collagen, integrin, fibronectin)

702
Q

What is an anchoring junction

A

Desmosome- binds adjacent cells together (Tissues with mechanical stress- skin, epithelium, cervix/uterus)

703
Q

What is a tight junction

A

seal that prevents passage of materials between cells (digestive tract– pass through cells)

704
Q

What is a gap junction

A

narrow tunnels between animal cells (connexins), prevent cytoplasms of each cell from mixing, but allow passage of ions and small molecules (heart to pass electric impulses)

705
Q

What is a plasmodesmata

A

narrow channels between plant cells

706
Q

What is a eukaryote

A

include all organisms except bacteria, cyanobacteria, and archaebacteria

707
Q

What is a prokaryote

A

Only have plasma membrane, DNA, ribosomes, cytoplasm, and cell wall. No nucleus, single DNA (no chromatin), 50S=30S= 70s, flagella constructed from flagellin not microtubules

708
Q

What is hypotonic, hypertonic, and isotonic

A

Hypotonic: lower concentration of solutes
Hypertonic: higher concentration of solutes
Isotonic: equal concentraion of solutes

709
Q

What is bulk flow

A

collective movement of substances in the same direction in response to a force or pressure. (blood)

710
Q

What is osmosis

A

diffusion of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane

711
Q

What is dialysis

A

diffusion of solutes across a selectively permeable membrane

712
Q

What is plasmolysis

A

movement out of a cell that results in the collapse of the cell

713
Q

What is countercurrent exchange

A

substances are moving by bulk flow in opposite directions

714
Q

What is exocytosis

A

vesicles fusing with plasma membrane and releasing contents to outside of cell

715
Q

What is endocytosis

A

outside to inside of cell

716
Q

What is phagocytosis

A

undissolved material enters cells and plasma membrane (wraps around)engulfs it. White blood cell engulfs

717
Q

What is pinocytosis

A

dissolved substances enter cell and plasma membrane invaginates (folds inward)

718
Q

What is receptor-mediated endocytosis

A

form of pinocytosis. Ligand molecules bind to receptors (proteins that transport cholesterol in blood (LDL) and hormones target specific cells

719
Q

what is ethology

A

study of behavior

720
Q

what is the term that describes in born quality

A

innate behavior

721
Q

what is behavioral ecology

A

study of how behavior affects rep fitness`

722
Q

give example for instinct behavior

A

mother caring for a offspring

723
Q

describe and give example of foxed action pattern

A

when an animal develops behavior and through life has unvarying pattern of it. It is due to a prior stimulus. In this type of behavior you continue response because it expected thruought evolution. An example for this type of respons eis when a goose is moving egg in her nest and if the egg is gone she will continue to do it

724
Q

what is critical period? What behavior is associated with it

A

period animals develop behavior via enviornment; imprinting

725
Q

Describe Classical conditioning and Pavlovs experiment

A

when behavior is response delivered via a stimulus for instance a dog responds to food, but if the food is no longer there then dog gets used to it and salivates to the new conditioned stimulus. THe response or the bell is now normal

726
Q

what is operant conditioning?Give example

A

is response to environment that is favoring and discontinuation of behavior is not favorable; an example is when rat pushes lever to get food which results in positive reinforcement but if rat pushes lever and there is a shock then its not favorable

727
Q

what type of learning involves an animal getting familiar with the environment due to special cues

A

spatial learning

728
Q

Define extinction

A

when behavior is no longer favorable due to response being negative and stopping

729
Q

What kind of learning helps animal respond to unexpected events

A

associated learning

730
Q

Define habituation

A

when animal learns to disregard meaningless stimuli and respond to meaningful ones; for example anemones get nonfood items if they touch tentacles

731
Q

What behavior is responsive and a behavior without prior knowledge

A

insight; for example when monkey use boxes and try to reach bananas which couldnt be reached before

732
Q

Distinguish between kinesis and taxis

A

kinesis is when animals portray undirected movement toward or away from stimulus
taxis: is directed movement; for example when animals move in odor of food

733
Q

Name two chemical pheromones and describe them

A

releaser pheromones are when they target behavior of animal; for example when female and male get called to mate and when ants leave tail for food
primer pheromones are when it causes physical change (for example queen bees give out primer pheromones to worker bee to which reduce theur reproductive success

734
Q

Give example of visual and auditory pheromones

A

visual: when aggressive animals show teethor their tail
auditory: whales give sound to others

735
Q

Define foraging behavior

A

behavior that includes using least energy and not getting killed by predators; involves being in herds

736
Q

How can animals defend their young

A

being in herds/flocks

737
Q

WHat is one method of animals targeting their prey

A

going in packs

738
Q

How can animals keep on lookout and see if anything is coming to attack them

A

using search images

739
Q

Match the following:
Dominance hierarchy-includes protecting another animal by alerting them of predator
territoriality-aggression amongst animals for food, land
altruistic behavior-competition for territory portraying defense
agonostic behavior-animals in higher status gets priority and power

A

dominance hierarchy- when animals in higher status gets priority and power
territoriality-competition for territory portraying defense
altruistic behavior-includes protecting another animal by alerting them of predator
agonostic behavior- aggression amongst animals for food/land

740
Q

WHat is inclusive fitness

A

fitness of itself and its relatives; when animal conducts this behavior it involves kin selection in which the lives of relatives, itself, and others increase

741
Q

what happens to kin selection in altruistic behavior

A

increases

742
Q

what is a reflex

A

sudden stimulated response to a stimulus causing behavior

743
Q

which reflex involves only invertrebrates

A

simple reflex

744
Q

where does complex reflex affect in the body? a simple reflex

A

the complex reflex in which danger comes to animal occurs in brain stem which the reticular activating system is startled; the simple reflex occurs when receptor goes thru sensory to interneuron, to motor neuron in the spinal cord

745
Q

Describe the pathway on how simple reflex occurs

A

sensory neuron to interneuron to motor neuron in the spinal cord

746
Q

what is circadian rhythm

A

daily behavior in which can be lost when away from time such as day/nightiime; an example of this is the cycle of eating where external fctors is through dinner bells, sleep, etc. and internal factors include body satiation

747
Q

name some external factors that impact cycle of eating? Name internal factors

A

external fctors is through dinner bells, sleep, etc. and internal factors include body satiation

748
Q

What are environmental factors

A

external stimulus that make us respond by having certain behaviors

749
Q

in learning, what type of learning do animals have

A

lower animals have minor learning with innate behavior while higher animals have major learning because it deals with nerveous system

750
Q

what two things does conditioning regulate

A

reflex and response with a neutral stimulus

751
Q

what is pseudo conditioning

A

when neutral stimulus gives out response before conditioning so its not a neutral one anymore

752
Q

in habit-family hierarchy, what will make animal behave certain way all the time

A

an animal getting rewarded with many responses to a stimulus

753
Q

can extinction occur when reinforcement stops and no conditioning response is present

A

yes.

754
Q

is there a relationship between unconditional stimulus and condition stimulus

A

no

755
Q

what is spontaneous recovery

A

conditioned stimulus leads to conditioned response

756
Q

Distinguish between stimuli discrimination and stimuli generalization

A

stimulus generalization: when conditioned organism responds to conditioned stimulus
stimulus discrimination: when animal will not get reward for learning past a certain range

757
Q

What is external respiration

A

entry of air into lungs and gas exchange between alveoli and blood

758
Q

what is internal respiration

A

exchange of gas between blood and the cells and intracellular respiration processes

759
Q

what is the equation for cellular respiration

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 –> 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy

760
Q

what is aerobic respiration

A

in the presence of O2 (glycolysis, pyruvate decarb, krebs cycle, oxidative phosphorylation); water is the final product

761
Q

What is glycolysis

A

decomposition of glucose into 2 pyruvate in cytosol

2 ATP added, 2 NADH produced, 4 ATP produced, 2 pyruvate formed

NET:
2 ATP
2 NADH (energy-rich molecule)
2 pyruvate

762
Q

What is PFK (phospho-fructose kinase)

A

adds 2nd phosphate, makes fructose 1,6 bphosphate– irreversible and commits to glycolysis (major regulatroy point)

763
Q

What is pyruvate decarboxylation

A

in the mitochondrial matrix
Pyruvate –> acetyl CoA, producing 1 NADH and 1 CO2

NET: 2 NADH + 2CO2

764
Q

What is the Krebs Cycle (citric acid cycle, TCA cycle)

A

Occurs in mitochondrial matrix

Acetyl CoA + oxaloacetate –> citrate (7 intermediate products)

3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP, 2CO2 produced per turn

x2 (2 pyruvate made from 1 glucose)= 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP, 4 CO2

CO2 produced here is the CO2 animals exhale when they breathe

765
Q

Where does the ETC take place (electron transport chain)

A

Takes place at the inner membrane/cristae

766
Q

What is oxidative phosphorylation

A

Occurs in cristae

ADP–> ATP from NADH and FADH2 via passing of e- thru carrier proteins.
Energy comes from the e- in the ETC establishing H+ gradient that supplies energy to ATP synthase

Final e- acceptor= oxygen (forms H2O)

Carries extract energy from NADH and FADH2 while pumping protons into the intermembrane space

Cytochrome C common in many living organisms

767
Q

What is the NET YIELD from the breakdown of 1 glucose molecule

A

glycolysis: 2 ATP, 2 NADH=4 ATP
pyruvate to acetyl CoA: 2 NADH= 4 ATP
Krebs Cycle: 2 ATP, 6 NADH= 18 ATP, 2 FADH2= 4 ATP

= 36 ATP

768
Q

How does cell respiration occur in prokaryotes?

A

38 ATP NET GAIN

don’t transfer pyruvate into mitochondrial matrix

769
Q

What is chemiosmosis

A

Mechanism of ATP generation that occurs when energy is stored in the form of a proton concentration gradient across a membrane (Krebs produces FASH2/NADH which lose e-, H+ transported from matrix to intermembrane space, ATP synthase uses this energy to create ATP by letting H+ flow thru channel (H+ concentration UP means pH DOWN)

770
Q

What is anaerobic respiration (cytosol)

A

Includes fermentation + glycolysis
Aerobic respiration regenerates NAD+ via O2, which is required for continuation of glycolysis

*WITHOUT O2, NO replenishing= NADH accumulates, cell dies without no new ATP so fermentation HAS to occurs

771
Q

What is alcohol fermentation

A

Occurs in plants, fungi, bacteria
Pyruvate –> acetaldehyde + Co2
Acetaldehyde (final e- acceptor) –> ethanol (NADH –> NAD+)

772
Q

What is lactic acid fermentation

A

Occurs in human muscle cells
Pyruvate –> lactate (NADH–> NAD+)
Lactate transported to liver for conversion back to glucose once surplus ATP is available

773
Q

What are alternate energy sources

A

When glucose supply is low, body uses other energy sources in the order of : other carbs, fats, and proteins

774
Q

What is gluconeogensis

A

production of glucose (occurs in liver and kidney) Muscle cells

775
Q

What does insulin do

A

stores glucose and glycogen (polymer of glucose)

“lots of glucose lying around so let’s chew it up”

776
Q

What does glucagon do

A

turns on glycogen degradation
“uh oh, not enough glucose around, don’t chew it up– we need it for the brain, other tissues can use other energy sources”

777
Q

How do fats make energy

A

Glycerol–> PGAL, enters glycolysis
Fatty acids in blood combine with albumin which carries them
Produce FADH2 and NADH for every 2 carbons–> big yield in ATP (more energy in fats than sugars)
Broken down via beta oxidation (mitochondrial matrix)

778
Q

How do proteins make energy

A

Amino acids deanimated in liver–> pyruvate or acetyl coA
Ammonia is toxic to vertebrates: fish excrete, insects and birds convert to uric acid, mammals convert to urea for excretion

779
Q

WHere are sensory neuoron associated

A

muscles

780
Q

WHich process can one look at genes in a cell type and see if they can be expressed or not

A

DNA microarray technology

781
Q

WHich valve is located between si and li

A

pyloric valve

782
Q

WHat is the compound that prevents mitosis from occuring and affect microtubule activity

A

colcholine

783
Q

where are calcitionin located? what is its function? what compound can the thyroid hormones not be produced without

A

thyroid gland; to decrease clacium levels in blood; iodine

784
Q

Does vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles cause increase filtration? How does blood flow become affected by this process

A

its causes decrease filtration and blood flow is decreased

785
Q

WHat type of cleavage do identical twins form from

A

indeterminate cleavage

786
Q

what causes jaundice

A

increased levels of bilirubin

787
Q

WHat is the origin of platelets leukocytes and erythrocytes

A

a pluripotent stem cell

788
Q

what is a hybridoma

A

when a lymphocyte binds with a myeloma cell

789
Q

what is the spleen responsible for

A

blood cell storage restroration of old blood cells, filtration of blood cell, and production of lymphocytes

790
Q

What is the overall reaction for photosynthesis

A

6CO2 + 6H20 –> C6H12O2 + 6O2

791
Q

What is non cyclic phosphorylation

A

ADP + Pi + light –> ATP : light-dependent reaction

792
Q

What are the steps in non cyclic phosphorylation

A
  1. Starts in photosystem II: electrons trapped by P680 in PS11 are energized by light
  2. Two excited e- passed to primary electron acceptor
  3. E- transport chain: consists of plastiquinone complex (PSII) which contains proteins like cyctochrome and cofactor Fe2+; analogous to oxidative phosphorylation
  4. 2 e- move to ETC –> lose energy (energy used to phosphorylate about 1.5 ATP)
  5. Photosystem I: ETC terminates with PSI (P700); they are again energized by sunlight and passed on to another e- acceptor
  6. NADPH: 2- pass down short ETC (w/proteins like ferrodoxin) to combine NADP+ + H+ + 2e- –> NADPH (coenzyme)
  7. Splitting of water (photolysis): loss of 2e- from PSII is replaced when H2O splits into 2e-, 2H+, and 1/2O2 (H+ goes for NADPH formation and 1/2O2 that contributes to release as oxygen gas) Occurs at PSII.
793
Q

Overall reaction for noncyclic phosphorylation

A

H2O + ADP + Pi + NADP+ + light –> ATP + NADPH + O2 + H+

794
Q

What is cyclic phosphorylation

A

replenishes ATP when Calvin Cycle consumes it

When excited 2e- from PSI join with protein carriers in the first electron transport chain and generate 1 ATP as they pass through; these 2e- are recycled into PS1 and can take either cyclic or noncylic path

795
Q

What is the Calvin cycle (dark reaction– C3 photosynthesis)

A

fixes CO2, repeats 6 times, uses 6CO2 to produce C6H12O6 (glucose)
- occurs in mesophyll cells

796
Q

Steps for the Calvin Cycle

A
  1. Carboxylation: 6CO2 + 6RuBP –> 12PGA, RuBisCo (RuBP Carboxylase) catalyzes this reaction
  2. Reduction: 12ATP + 12 NADPH converts 12PGA –> 12G3P or 12 PGAL; energy is incorporated; by-products (NADP+ and ADP) go into noncyclic phosphorylation
  3. Regeneration: 6ATP convert 10G3P –> RuBP (allows cycle to repeat)
  4. Carbohydrate synthesis: 2 remaining G3P used to build glucose
    6CO2 + 18ATP + 12NADPH + H+ –> 18ADP + 18ADPi + 12NADP+ + 1 glucose (2G3P)
  5. “dark reaction” but cannot occur without light because it is dependent on high energy molecules produced from the light reaction ( ATP and NADPH)
797
Q

What happens in the chloroplast

A

light-dependent and light-independent reactions occurs (double membrane like mitochondria and nucleus)

798
Q

What are the parts of the chlorplast

A
  1. Outer-membrane: plasma membrane (phospholipid bilayer)
  2. Intermembrane space
  3. Inner membrane: phospholipid bilayer
  4. Stroma: fluid material that fills area inside membrane; Calvin cycle occurs here (fixing CO2 –> G3P)
  5. Thylakoids: suspended within stroma (stacks); individual membrane layers are thylakoids; entire stack is granum membrane (contain PS1 + PSII)
  6. Thylakoid membrane: interior of the thylakoid; H+ accumulates here
799
Q

What is chemiosmosis

A

uses H+ gradient to generate ATP

800
Q

What are the steps in chemiosmosis

A
  1. H+ ions accumulate inside thylakoids: H+ are released into lumen when H2O is split by PSII. H+ is also carried into lumen from stroma by cytochrome between PSII and PSI
  2. pH and electrical gradient is created: about pH5
  3. ATP synthase generates ATP: phosphorylate
    ADP + Pi –> ATP (3H+ required for 1 ATP)
  4. Calvin Cycle produces 2G3P using NADPH & CO2 & ATP: end of electron transport chain following PS1, 2e- produces NADPH
801
Q

What is photorespiration

A

fixation of oxygen by rubisco (can also fix CO2) –> produces no ATP or sugar. Rubisco will fix both CO2 and oxygen at the same time if both are present. Peroxisomes breakdown the products with Rubisco

802
Q

What is C4 photosynthesis

A

evolved from C3 when CO2 enters leaf; absorbed by mesophyll cells (then moved to bundle sheath cells); instead of being fixed by rubisco into PGA, CO2 combines with PEP to form OAA (4 C) by PEP Carboxylase

  1. OAA –> malate and then transported through plasmdodesmata into bundle sheath cell
  2. Malate –> pyruvate + CO2 (CO2 used in Calvin Cycle or C3)) (Pyruvate moved back to mesophyll–> PEP)
803
Q

What is the purpose of C4 photosynthesis

A

move CO2 from mesophyll to bundle sheath cell (little O2 presence reduces competition while rubisco is fixing) Minimize photorespiration and H2O loss from stomata (leaf pores)

  • Found in hot, dry climates (faster fixation speed and more efficient)
  • Corn, sugarcane
  • occurs in bundle-sheath cells
804
Q

What is CAM photosynthesis

A
  1. PEP Carboxylase fixes CO2 + PEP –> OAA –> malic acid
    2Malic acid is shuttled into vacuole of cell
  2. At NIGHT, stomata are open (opp of normal), PEP Carboxylase is active, malic acid accumulates in vacuole
  3. During DAY, stomata are closed. Malic acid is out of vacuole and converted back to OAA (require 1 ATP), releasing CO2 (moved into Calvin Cycle with Rubisco) and PEP.
    • reduce H2O loss
  • Cacti, crassulacea plants
805
Q

Overall picture of photosynthesis

A
  • As leaves age, chlorophyll breaks down to extract components like Mg2+. carotenoids are visible
  • Splitting of H2O provides 2e- for noncylic phosphorylation; incorporated into NADPH and Calvin Cycle
  • Calvin Cycle is light-independent, but it requires ATP and NADPH produced from light-dependent rxn.
806
Q

Examples of light-abosorbing pigments

A

Chlorophyll a, b, and caretenoids

807
Q

what are antenna pigments

A

chlorophyll b, carotenoids, phycoblins (red algae pigement), xanthophylls capture wavelengths that chlorophyll a does not, passes energy to chlorophyll a where direct light rxn occurs
– Chlorophyll a has porphyrin ring (alternating double and single bonds complexed with Mg atom inside)

808
Q

What is a gene

A

genetic material on a chromosome for a trait

809
Q

What is a locus

A

location on the chromosome where gene is located

810
Q

What is an allele

A

variance of genes such as different color

811
Q

What are homologous chromosomes

A

pair of chromosomes that contains same genetic material (gene for gene). Each parent contributed 1 of the chromosome in the pair and thus different alleles may exist for a gene (dominant and recessive or incomplete dominance (color blending/ co-dominant such as blood type)

812
Q

What is the law of segregation

A

one member of each chromosome pair migrates to an opposite pole so that each gamete is haploid (each gamete has only one copy of each allele), occurs in anaphase 1

813
Q

What is the law of independent assortment

A

migration of homologues within one pair of homologous chromosomes does not influence the migration of homologues of other homologous pairs (independent assortment of alleles

814
Q

What is a test cross

A

Monohybrid: one gene
Dihybrid: two gene on different chromosomes

815
Q

What is complete dominance

A

traits expressed as if one allele is dominant to a second allele (both alleles show as dominant Capital A and B)

816
Q

What is incomplete dominance

A

blending of expressions of alleles red + white–> pink

817
Q

What is codominance

A

both inherited alleles are completely expressed (blood types)
3 possible alleles: A, B, O
4 possible geno/phenotypes: AO (A type), BO (B type), AB AB type0, OO (O type)

818
Q

What is epistasis

A

one gene affects phenotypic expression of 2nd gene
Ex: pigmentation (one gene controls production of pigment, 2nd gene controls color or amount)

**If 1st gene codes for no pigment –> 2nd gene has no effect

819
Q

What is pleiotropy

A

single gene has more than one phenotypic expression

Ex: sickle-cell disease

820
Q

What is polygenic inheritance

A

interaction of many genes to shape a single phenotype with continuous variation (height, skin color)

821
Q

What are linked genes

A

two or more genes that reside on the same chromosomes and thus cannot separate independently because they are physically connected (inherited genes)

BbVv * bbvv can only get BV or bv NO recombination (Bv or bV)

822
Q

Define sex-linked

A 
single gene resides on (X) sex chromosome
When females (XX) inherit the sex-linked gene, the receive two copies of the gene, one on each X chromosome (autosomal inheritance)
Males (XY) inherits only one copy of the gene because only the X chromosome delivers the gene (allele on X chromosome is expressed regardless of whether domainant or recessive

*EX: hemophilia (moe common in males)

823
Q

What is penetrance

A

probability an organism with a specific genotype will express a particular phenotype

824
Q

What is expressivity

A

term describing the variation of phenotype for a specific genotype

825
Q

What is X-inactivation

A

During embryonic development in female mammals, one of two X chromosomes does not uncoil into chromatin (Barr body) cannot be expressed
EX: calico cats
XHXh is normal carrier, but if XH inactivated Xh is expressed (hemophilia)

826
Q

What is non-disjunction

A

failure of one/more chromosomes pairs or chromatids to separate during mitosis (results in trisomy or monosomy ex: down syndrome)

Mosaicism: in cells that undergo nondisjunction in mitosis during embryonic development; fraction of body cells have extra or missing chromosome

Polyploidy: all chromosomes undergo meiotic nondisjunction and produce games with twice the number of chromosomes. (common in PLANTS)

827
Q

What is point mutation

A

single nucleotide changes causing substitution, insertion, deletion

(insertion/deletion cause frameshift)

Transition mutation: purine to purine or pyrimidine to purine
Transversion mutation: purine to pyrimidine or vice-versa

828
Q

What is aneuploidy

A

genome with extra/missing chromosome (can be caused by nondisjunction)

  • -Down syndrome= trisomy 21 (mental retardation, heart defects, respiratory problems, deformities in external features)
  • -Turner syndrome: non-disjunction in sex-chromosome (can be XX from one egg, XY from one sperm, O (no chromosome) XO= sterile) physically abnormal
  • -Kleinfelter Syndrome: XXY
829
Q

What are chromosomal abberations

A

chromosomes segments are changed

  • -Duplications: chromosome segment is repeated on same chromosome
  • -Inversions: chromosome segments are rearranged in reverse orientation
  • -Translocation: segment is moved to another chromosome
830
Q

What is chromosomal breakage

A

spontaneous or induced (mutagenic agents [colchicine- inhibits spindle formation causing polyploidy] , X rays) Deficiency = lost fragment

Proto-oncogenes stimulate normal growth; if mutated become oncogenes –> cancer

831
Q

What is PKU

A

(Autosomal recessive)inability to produce proper enzyme for phenylalanine breakdown; breakdown product phenylpyruvic acid accumulates

832
Q

What is cystic fibrosis

A

(autosomal recessive) fluid build-up in tracts

833
Q

What is Tay-sachs

A

(autosomal recessive) lysosome defect; can’t breakdown lipids for normal brain function

834
Q

What is sickle-cell

A

(autosomal recessive) defective hemoglobin due to substitution mutation

835
Q

What is Huntingtons

A

(autosomal dominant) degenerate nervous system disease

836
Q

Sex-linked recessive diseases

A

hemophilia: abnormal blood clotting
color-blindness
Duchenne (muscular dystrophy)

837
Q

Chromosomal diseases

A

Down syndrome, turner (XO), Klinefelter (XXY), Cri Du Chat (deletion on chromosome 5)

Forward mutation means already mutated organism mutates again even more and backward mutation is back to normal

838
Q

What is extranuclear inheritance

A

extranuclear genes are found in mitochondria and chloroplasts
Defects in mitochondrial DNA can reduce cell’s ATP production (mother-related)

839
Q

Define hemizygous

A

one single copy of gene instead of two (male has XY sex chromosome –> hemizygous)

840
Q

What is autosomal recessive

A

skips generations

841
Q

What is autosomal dominant

A

No skip

842
Q

What is X-linked recessive

A

father doesn’t have phenotype– none of his daughters have it

dat-biology (2 decks)

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