bio final Flashcards

1
Q

true or false? a haploid organism has one pair o homologous chromosomes

A

false

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2
Q

when do sister chromatids f each chromosome separate meiosis

A

meiosis ii

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3
Q

what is an x shaped structure formed from the crossing over of homologous chromosomes, which can then exchange segments at the crossover sites

A

chiasma

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4
Q

what is the composition of a tetrad at the beginning of prophase i

A

one pair of homologous chromosomes

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5
Q

what is a tetrad

A

one chromosome in a tetrad is paternally inheretid, while the other is maternally inherited. each chromosome consists of two chromosomes

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6
Q

when do sister chromatids separate meiosis

A

anaphase ii

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7
Q

synapsis

A

pairing of homologous chromosomes that occurs during prophase i

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8
Q

when do homologous chromomsomes migrate to opposite poles

A

anaphase i – the sister chromatids remain attached at their centromeres

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9
Q

HOW DO CELLS AT THE COMPLETION OF MEIOSIS COMPARE WITH THE CELLS THAT ARE IN PROPHASE OF MEIOSIS I

A

THEY HAVE HALF THE NUMBER OF CHROMOSOMES AND one-fourth the amount of dna

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10
Q

sister chromatids separate from each other during when

A

mitosis and meiosis ii

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11
Q

what syndrome is characterized by the xo chromosome abnormality

A

turner syndrome

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12
Q

when can nondisjuntion occur

A
  • in mitosis or meiosis, when sister chromatids fail to separate
  • in meiosis, when homologous chromosomes fail to separate
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13
Q

what type of chromosome abnormality is most likely to be viable in humans

A

trisomy

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14
Q

short segments of newly synthesized DNA are joined into a continuous strand by

A

ligase

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15
Q

the first step in the replication of DNA is catalyzed by what

A

helicase (unwinds double helix)

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16
Q

what catalyzes DNA synthesis

A

DNA polymerase

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17
Q

what enxyme is important for relieving tension in a helix as it unwinds during DNA synthesis

A

topoisomerase

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18
Q

when are single stranded DNA molecules antiparallel

A

when they are lined up next to each other but oriented in opposite directions

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19
Q

what does a single-strand binding protein do, and where does it bind

A

prevents H-bonds between bases, binds after the replication fork

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20
Q

eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the chromosome. THis is a consequence of what

A

the gaps left at the 5’ end of the lagging strand

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21
Q

if newly synthesized DNA is found in fragments, whta isnt working

A

ligase

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22
Q

what is a major difference between eukaryotic DNA replication and prokaryotic DNA replication

A

projaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaruptic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication

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23
Q

where does telomerase bind

A

the overhang at the end of the chromosome

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24
Q

template for telomerase

A

RNA template

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25
Q

what does a nonsense mutation do

A

leads to early termination of protein synthesis

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26
Q

when does protein synthesis end

A

when a sop codon is produced

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27
Q

what does a silent mutation do

A

results in the insertion of the same aminio acid as was coded for by th eoriginal sequence

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28
Q

base subsitution mutations alter a what

A

nucleotide

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29
Q

a missense mutation does what

A

dramatically alter protein structure

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30
Q

what untwists a portion of the DNA double helix for RNA transcription

A

RNA polymerase

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31
Q

region of DNA at which the process of transcription begins

A

the promoter

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32
Q

site in dna that recruits the rna polymerase

A

promoter

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33
Q

nontranscribed region of a gene

A

promoter

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34
Q

where are ribosomal subutits formed

A

nucleolus

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35
Q

where does transcription and RNA processing occur

A

nucleus

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36
Q

interons are removed from the pre RNA by what

A

snRNAs

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37
Q

what is added to the 5’ end of the pre-mRNA

A

a cap consisting of a modified guanine nucleotide

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38
Q

what is added to the 3’ end of the pre-mRNA

A

a poly-A tail (50-250 adenine nucleotides)

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39
Q

in eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until when

A

several transcription factors have bound to the promoter

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40
Q

the -10 box and the -35 box two regions of a bacterial promoter do what

A

bind to the sigma subunit that is associated with RNA polymerase

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41
Q

how does termination happen

A

when release factors recognize the stop codon in the A site and catalyze the release of the polypeptide from teh tRNA in the P site

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42
Q

what enxyme catalyzes the attachment of an amino acid to tRNA

A

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

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43
Q

the initiator tRNA attaches at the ribosome’s what site

A

P

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44
Q

where does amino acid bind to a tRNA

A

the part that sticks out at the 3’ end

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45
Q

where do regulatory proteins bind in bacteria

A

the operator

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46
Q

in lac operon what is the regualtory gene

A

lacI

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47
Q

why are the genes involved in lactose metabolism considered to be an operon

A

they are all controlled by the same promoter

48
Q

addition of what short proteins in eukaryotes target proteins for destruction by protasom

A

ubiquitins

49
Q

enzyme complexes that break down protein are called what

A

proteasomes

50
Q

protein-phosphorylating enzymes’ role in the regulation of gene expression involves what

A

protein activation

51
Q

is acetylation of histone tains reversable

52
Q

what is used to coordinate the expression of multiple related genes in eukaryotic cells

A

the genes share a common enhancer, which allows appropriate activators to turn on their transcription at the same time

53
Q

how does a microRNA recognize a specific target mRNA

A

a microRNA can recognize a specific target wherever it can form complementary base pairs with the target

54
Q

can mutations that occur in somatic cells be passed on to offspring

55
Q

what separates during anaphase i

A

homologous chromosomes

56
Q

crossing over contributes genetic variability between what

A

homologous chromosomes

57
Q

what synthesizes short segments of RNA

58
Q

what covalently connects segments of DNA

59
Q

which of the enzymes remove the RNA nucleotides from the priner and add equivalent DNA nucleotides to the 3’ end of Okazaki fragments

A

DNA polymerase I

60
Q

Benzopyrene in cigarette smoke binds to DNA and distorts its shape, interfering with DNA replication. Which repair mechanism would most likely be used to repair the damage caused by this chemical

A

nucleotide excision repair

61
Q

transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon

A

starts when the pathway’s substrate is present

62
Q

suppose an experimentser moves the operator to the far end of the operon, past the transacetylase (lacA) gene, what would likely occur when the cell is exposed to lactose

A

the structural genes will be transcribed continuously

63
Q

for a repressible operon to be transcribed, what must occur

A

RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive

64
Q

in eukaryotes, general transcription factors do what

A

bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the tata box

65
Q

what is used to coordinate the expression of multiple related genes in eukaryotic cells

A

a specific combo of control elements in each gene’s enhancer coordinates the simultaneous activation of the genes

66
Q

what is a karyotype and what can it be used for

A

visual representation of an individuals complete set of chromosomes, allowing doctors to examine number and structure of chormosomes in cell to identify potential genetic abnormalities

67
Q

what is meant by diploid and haploid

A

diploid has two complete sets of chromosomes, wchih is the case for most human body cells. haploid only has one set of chromosomes

68
Q

what is aneuploidy

A

aneuploidy has only one extra or less chromosomes– partial set of chromosomes

69
Q

what is polyploidy

A

extra complete sets of chromosomes

70
Q

what are non-sister chromatids

A

belong to homologous chromosomes within a pair from differnt parents

71
Q

how many alleles do you have for one gene

72
Q

what is the difference between incomplete and codominance

A

incomplete is a mix, while codominance both appear together without blending

73
Q

what is epistasis

A

expression of one gene is altered by the expression of one or more other genes

74
Q

when more than one gene is responsible for a phenotype, the trait is said to be

75
Q

when one gene has multiple phenotypic effects it is called what

A

pleiotropty

76
Q

what gene is responsible for sex determination

A

sry gene found on the y chromosome, means males who have the y chromosomes will develop male sex characteristics

77
Q

what causes Hunington’s disease

A

mutation in the HTT gene- causes buiolding blocks of DNA to repeat many more times than they normally do
it’s hereditary

78
Q

what causes down syndrom

A

trisomy 21- each cell has three copies of chromosome 21

79
Q

what causes cru di chat

A

missing piece of chromosome 5- most cases occur in development of egg or sperm, but some cases occur when a parent passes a different, rearranged for of the chromosome to their child

80
Q

what is amniocentesis

A

prenatal test by removing a small sample of amiotic fluid – can be used to diagnose chromosomal conditions, genetic disorders

81
Q

Hersey/Chase experiment

A

labeled phage’s DNA with radioactive phosphorous and its protein coat with radioactive sulfur, Showed that the DNA represented the genetic material responsible for the inheritance of traits

82
Q

what are the rungs of the helix are composed of

A

nitrogenous base pairs

83
Q

the DNA backbone is held together by what type of bonds, and what carbons in the sugar are involved in these bonds

A

phosphodiester– covalent, 5’ carbon to 3’ caron

84
Q

why is new dna synthesized in the 5’ to 3’ direction

A

the enzyme responsible for building the DNA chain (DNA polymerase) can only add new nucleotides to the 3’ hydrozyl group of the existing strand

85
Q

What happens when a nucleotide is added to a growing strand of DNA? (What bonds are formed? Does it require ATP? What enzymes are needed?)

A

Phosphodiester bond formed between the nucleotide and growing strand of DNA, no— gets its energy from phosphate groups when breaking phosphate bonds within the nucleotide itself, needs DNA polymerase

86
Q

what does primase do

A

enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers, which are short RNA sequences called primers

87
Q

DNA polymerase I

A

in prokaryotic DNA replciation, support repair of damaged Dna, but also contributes to connecting Okazaki fragments

88
Q

what does DNA polymerase III do

A

primary enxyme complex involved in the prokaryotic DNA replication- elongates DNA chains during bacterial chromosomal DNA replication

89
Q

single stranded binding protein

A

binds to single strand of DNA near the replication fork

90
Q

DNA ligase

A

enxyme that joins DNA strands together by forming phosphodiester bonds

91
Q

how does DNA excision repair repair thymine dimers

A

Recognizes the distortion caused by the dimmer in the DNA helix, then cuts the DNA background on either size of the dimmer to excise the damaged section,, allowing a dna polymerase to fill in the gap with new nucleotides, finally sealing the nick with DNA ligase

92
Q

Why is there an “end” problem with the lagging strand? What helps to protect the ends of the chromosomes? What enzyme is found in some cells to prevent this problem?

A

DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides in the 5’ to the 3’ direction, meaning it cannot fully replicate the very ends of the linear chromosomes on the lagging strand, leading to a gradual shortening with each replication cycle; telomeres are the protective structures at chromosomes end that prevent this issue, and the enzyme telomerase is found in some cells to extend these telomere res and counteract the shortening, thus preventing the loss of important genetic info.
At very end of chromosome, there isn’t enough space to add a primer for the last Okazaki fragment

93
Q

What enzyme is responsible for synthesizing mRNA? In what direction does it synthesize the mRNA?

A

RNA polymerase synthesizes in 5’ to 3’ direction

94
Q

What are the 3 stages of transcription?

A

initiation, elongation, and termination

95
Q

what happens in initiation of transcription

A

binding of RNA polymerase and local unwinding of DNA

96
Q

what happens in elongation stage of transcription

A

nucleotides are added to the 3’ end of the growing RNA strand

97
Q

what happens during transcription termination

A

the newly synthesized RNA strand is released

98
Q

what is the TATA box, and where is it found

A

found in promoter region of eukaryotes in the core promoter. it acts as a sgnal for where transcription should begin, usually around 25-30 base pairs upstream of the trascription start site, marks the location where RNA polymerase should bind

99
Q

what is meant by 5’ UTR and 3’ UTR

A

untranslated regions of messenger RNA– influences mRNA stability and translation efficiency

100
Q

what are splicesomes composed of

A

smll nuclear RNAs called small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles (snRNPs)

101
Q

what are 3 stages of translation

A

initiation, elongation, termination

102
Q

initiation in translation

A

small subunit on mRNA binding site is joined by large subunit; aminoacyl tRNA binds

103
Q

elongation of translation

A

ribosome moves along the mRNA extending the protein by shifting from peptidyl tRNA to aminoacyl tRNA

104
Q

termination of translation

A

peptuide chain is released and ribosome dissociates from mRNA

105
Q

what does aminoacyl-tRNA transferase do

A

attaches amino acids to tRNA molecules

106
Q

what takes place at 3 different tRNA binding sites

A

enters at A, p is where polypeptide chain is attached to new amino acid, and E is where it exits

107
Q

what is a polyribosome

A

cluster of ribosomes attached to a single mRNA molecule, allowing for the simultaneous tranlation of that mRNA into multiple protein copies, significantly increasing the protein synthesis within a cell

108
Q

how is the translation of proteins destined for secretion different from those that will be used in teh cell

A

secreted proteins start their translation on the free ribosomes in the cytoplasm, but then are recognized by a signal sequence at their N-terminus, which directs the ribosome complex to the ER

109
Q

what is meant by charging tRNA

A

process of attaching a specific amino acid to its corresponding tRNA molecule– basically activating the amino acid– aka amino acid activation

110
Q

what is an operon

A

a group of genes that are transcibed together and controlled y a single promoter

111
Q

describe the trp operon

A

cluster of genes in bacteria that code for enxymes necesary to synthesize the amino acid tryptophan, it is concered a repressible operon, it is turned on by default when tryptophan is needed and not readily available in teh environment.
regulated by trp represson

112
Q

lac operon

A

— for using lactose instead of glucose— expresssed when lack of glucose, is inducible— only expressed when lactose is present
Usually turned off (repressed) but can be turned on

113
Q

What effect does histone acetylation have on gene expression?

A

Histone acetylation activates gene expression — weaken the interaction between the histones and the negatively charged DNA, leading to a looser chromatin structure, so easier to promote transcription

114
Q

what affect does methylation have on gene expression

A

slows or stops it

115
Q

what role do transcription factors play in gene expression

A

Transcription factors are a broader category of proteins that bind to DNA to regulate gene expression,, including both activators and repressors.
Binds to dna to promote or inhibit the recruitment of RNA polymerase

116
Q

what role do activators play in gene expression

A

Activators are proteins that bind to enhancer sequences on DNA— recruit other proteins like RNA polymerase complex to the promoter region, initiating transcription. Can be regulated by external signals, allowing for dynamic control of gene expression

117
Q

what is a microRNA, and what does it do

A

Small, non-coding RNA molecule that plays a crucial role in regulating gene. Expression by binding to mRNA and inhibiting its translation into protein, effectively controlling the amount of specific protein produced within a cell