Bio Final Flashcards

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1
Q

Based on the snow placement next to the tree which way is north?

A
  • North will be the side with the snow because of wind patterns and mountains. North sides of mountains (in the northern hemisphere) have more precipitation being brought in from the oceans
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2
Q

in the regions of the rocky mountains a local variety of ponderosa pine predominantly occurs at 5,000-7,000 feet in elevation (half way up the mountains) where it can best tolerate temperatures. Given future climate change predictions which of the following changes might an ecologist predict about that varieties range?

A
  • It will occur at higher elevations
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3
Q

Define the following terms: Thermocline, Aquatic biomes, Rain Shadow, and pelagic zone

A

Thermocline: Density barrier in lakes and oceans separating warm surface waters from cooler deeper water
Aquatic Biomes: defined by physics and chemistry

Rain Shadow: Coastal mountain ranges are dryer on the interior (leeward) than on the seaward side

Pelagic Zone: Deeper, open water zone of the lakes or oceans

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4
Q

Coral reefs occur on the southeast coast of the United States, near Florida, but not at similar latitudes on the southwest coast near Los Angeles, California. Differences in which of the following most likely account for this?

A

water temperatures driven by ocean currents

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5
Q

Dr. Doyle grew up on the Amazon River about 1.5 degrees South of the Equator. There, the annual average temperature is hot and varied by less than 5 degrees Celsius (C) over an entire year. In Waco (31.5 degrees North) the temperature varies from very hot to quite cold (40-50 C variation over the year). What best explains this difference? the abundant rainfall in the tropics keeps temperatures more constant?

A
  • the angle of Earth’s rotation causes solar radiation to vary much more at mid-latitudes than at the Equator.
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6
Q

Mountains can impact microclimates. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways mountains consistently impact microclimates?

A

Mountain soils are consistently more fertile than lowland soils

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7
Q

Select the answer that puts the following factors in a REASONABLE order of importance in regulating the plant community structure of a terrestrial biome. Frequency of disturbance: 1. Frequency of disturbance, 2. moisture, 3. temperature, 4. Soil fertility

A

3241

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8
Q

Mark each statement as true false:

terrestrial biomes are defined primarily by their animal communities

tropical oceans usually have higher rates of net primary production than artic waters because the waters are warmer near the tropics

moisture and temperature are thought to be the primary variables controlling terrestrial primary production

summers occur during the portion of the earth’s orbit when it is closer to the sun

A

false

false

true

false

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9
Q

Which ONE factor is most closely associated to the location of the major deserts in North America all being situated about the same latitude (30N)?

A

Global air circulation patterns

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10
Q

Which ONE factor is most closely associated with seasonal changes on Earth?

A

The angle of Earth’s axis with respect to the sun (=Tilt of the Earth)

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11
Q

In mountainous areas of North America, south-facing slopes would be expected to… (Select two correct statements, penalty for wrong answers)

A

receive more sunlight than similar north-facing slopes

  • be warmer and dryer than north-facing slopes
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12
Q

Mark each statement as true or false

In deep oceanic water, the net primary production of algae is most likely limited by low nutrient concentration

“Ecology” considers interactions among animals and plants, but not abiotic factors

Deserts do not always have very warm daily average temperatures

About half the water on planet earth is freshwater found in lakes and rivers

A

false

false

true

false

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13
Q

Where is waco on a climograph and what would happen if climate change results in a temperature increase of 3 C and a rainfall decrease of 25 cm/yr

A
  • Waco is in spot a and it would become a grassland
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14
Q

Subtropical plants are commonplace in Land’s End, England, whose latitude is the equivalent of Labrador in coastal Canada, where the local flora is instead subarctic. Which statement best explains why this apparent anomaly exists between North America and Europe?

A
  • Warm Gulf Stream currents interact with England, whereas cold arctic ocean currents interact with Labrador
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15
Q

Consider an area that historically been a grassland (like McLennan County, TX). Which characteristic is most likely to be related to the observation of many MORE trees now surviving per acre of land (current tree density)?

A
  • Change in the frequency of fire
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16
Q

Mark each statement as true or false

Natural populations of plants and animals are more likely to have a clumped distribution than a random one.

All species we know of stop growing when they reach the environmental carrying capacity and can never exceed this threshold, even for limited periods of time.

the process of “demographic transition” applies only to humans and not to other animal species

Resource competition is a common density-dependent factor for most populations as population density increases

A

true

false

true

true

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17
Q

Select the TWO true statements about r-selected species

A
  • r-selected species would likely be the first to colonize an abandoned agriculture field and r-selected species would likely dominate environments where frequent density-independent factors are important regulators of population size
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18
Q

Which of the following hypotheses is most consistent with the data shown in this graph with respect to survival and clutch size?

A

Large clutch size results in low survival.

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19
Q

A species population’s size (N) may vary depending on a number of factors including crowding and resource limitation. As N approaches K (carrying capacity) for a certain population, which of the following outcomes is predicted by the logistic growth model?

A

The population growth rate will slow and approach zero: The population growth rate will slow and approach zero

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20
Q

define the following terms: strategy of repeated reproduction, maximum population size an environment can support with available resources, metapopulation

A
  • Strategy of repeated reproduction. Mature females reproduce several/many times during their lifetime. Iteroparity
  • Maximum population size environment can support with available resources. Carrying capacity
  • Long-lived species where parents invest significant energy in care for offspring: K-selected species
    • Population composed of geographically separate subpopulations linked by immigration/emigration: metapopulation
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21
Q

Select the TRUE statement about human population growth

A
  • The ecological footprint of the US is much larger than the sustainable global capacity per person
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22
Q

Based on the data shown in the figure below related to hare (=prey) relative to several experimental conditions, which conclusion is best supported by the data?

A

hare population density is impacted by both predation and food availability

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23
Q

hen populations become excessively crowded, intrinsic factors often become active to limit further population growth. Which ONE of the following is an example of such an intrinsic factor

A
  • Under crowded conditions, the immune system of individuals becomes less efficient.
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24
Q

he human population growth rate (r) has INCREASED during the past 10,000 years until the 1960’s. At that point, population growth rates began to strongly decline and have continued declining until now. What BEST explains this dramatic recent decline in human population growth rates?

A
  • this is due to a social factor; educated women chose to have fewer children
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25
Q

consider these simplified age structure diagrams of plant populations. The layers (bottom to top) are three plant age classes: seedlings, ‘adolescent’ plants, and mature (reproductive) adult plants. MATCH each population (I, II, III) with the statement that BEST describes its likely future population growth

A

Population I: rapid future growth

Population II: near stable future population growth.

Population III: Negativ future population growth

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26
Q

Select the single false statement regarding human population on Earth.

A
  • At the current rate of growth of 1.1% per year, it will take about 650 years for the population of Earth to reach 15 billion inhabitants
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27
Q

Which of the following graphs illustrate how you would expect the instantaneous growth rate (r) of a population to change over time if the species is growing LOGISTICALLY?

A

A

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28
Q

How you would expect the DOUBLING TIME of a population to change over time if the species is growing exponentially?

A
  • remain constant, even as the population size increased
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29
Q

Which of the following graphs illustrate how you would expect the annual mortality of adult female sparrows to change as a function of annual fecundity (number of offspring) the previous season?

A

B

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30
Q

Select the life history most likely to be associated with each of the following traits. (r or k)

  • Early age of sexual maturation
  • Long lifespan
  • High rate of juvenile mortality
  • Many reproductive cycles for each individual female
A
  • Early age of sexual maturation: r
  • Long lifespan: K
  • High rate of juvenile mortality: r
  • Many reproductive cycles for each individual female: K
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31
Q

If two organisms have significant overlap of their fundamental niches, what two outcomes could happen?

A

Resource partitioning. One or both species will adjust their niches so that competition will be minimized and Competitive Exclusion. one will become extinct while the other survives to occupy the niche

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32
Q

Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration?

A

the brightly colored patterns of monarch butterfly caterpillars

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33
Q

Consider four communities as shown in the figure. The number of circles represent the abundance of each species. Answer the following questions by selecting the correct community. Which community has the highest diversity?

Which community has the lowest species richness?

A

Which community has the highest diversity? 2; Which community has the lowest species richness? 1

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34
Q

Which of the following would qualify as a top-down control on a grassland community?

A

grassland community grazed by bison had higher species diversity than ungrazed area

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35
Q

Which description below is most consistent with the nonequilibrium model of community diversity? communities are constantly changing after being influenced by disturbances and the recovered community may be different from the original community

A
  • communities are constantly changing after being influenced by disturbances and the recovered community may be different from the original community
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36
Q

fill in the word to make each statement true

  • Lower diversity communities will recover from disturbance at _______ rate as higher diversity communities.
  • Species richness is highest at _________ level of disturbance.
  • Temperate ecosystems typically have ______ community diversity than a similar size tropical ecosystem.
  • Compared to a high biodiversity community, a community of low biodiversity would be expected to have _____ year to year fluctuations.
A
  • Lower diversity communities will recover from disturbance at a slower rate as higher diversity communities.
  • Species richness is highest at Intermediate level of disturbance.
  • Temperate ecosystems typically have lower community diversity than a similar size tropical ecosystem
  • Compared to a high biodiversity community, a community of low biodiversity would be expected to have higher year to year fluctuations.
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37
Q

Which TWO of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry?

A
  • a nonvenomous larva of a moth that moves like a venomous snake and a non-poisonous frog mimics the color of a poisonous one
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38
Q

Use the following diagram of five islands (A-E) formed at around the same time near a particular mainland, as well as MacArthur and Wilson’s island equilibrium model principles to evaluate if each statement below is T/F or provide correct response to a question. Island with the highest diversity

Island with highest rate of extinction and lowest species diversity

E and F are the same size, so they will have similar species diversity

It is impossible to say if island B or E will have a higher species diversity

A

Island with the highest diversity: A;

Island with highest rate of extinction and lowest species diversity: F;

E and F are the same size, so they will have similar species diversity: False;

It is impossible to say if island B or E will have a higher species diversity: True

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39
Q

define the following terms: character displacement, resource partitioning, predation, Mullerian mimicry

A
  • Beaks of finches evolve to be larger or smaller to minimize competition: Character displacement
  • As you study two closely related predatory insect species, the two-spot and the three-spot avenger beetles, you notice that each species seeks prey at dawn in areas without the other species. However, where their ranges overlap, the two-spot avenger beetle hunts at night and the three-spot hunts in the morning.: Resource partitioning
  • Certain woodpecker-like African birds have become specialized for removing and eating ticks and parasitic insects from the bodies of large herbivores. The relationship between the birds and the ticks is an example of….: predation
  • Multiple wasp species evolve to resemble each other: Mullerian mimicry
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40
Q

Fill in the term that matches: batesian mimicry, primary succession, mutualism, intermediate distubrance hypothesis

A
  • A palatable (=edible) tropical frog evolves to closely resemble the notorious ‘poison dart frog’: Batesian mimicry
  • Colonization of land recently exposed by retreating glacier Secondary succession, : Primary succession
  • Termites and microorganisms in their gut: Mutualism
  • Diversity of a prairie that burns about every 5 years is significantly higher than prairies which burn annually or prairies that are never allowed to burn Intermediate disturbance hypothesis: Intermediate disturbance hypothesis
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41
Q

What is the major factor explaining why food chains are relatively short?

A

Energy transfer between levels is inefficient.

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42
Q

Use the graph to answer the following question. In 1963 the keystone predator was removed from one area, but not the other. What does the graph tell you about the effect of a keystone species?

A

Removing a keystone species from the community reduces species richness.

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43
Q

Consider this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem (arrows represent energy flow and letters represent species). Match the species trophic level with the letter that most likely represents it.

Decomposer:

Photosynthetic plant:

Carnivore:

A

Decomposer: E; Photosynthetic plant: A; Carnivore: D

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44
Q

Identify the TWO FALSE statements

A
  • Increased CO2 in the atmosphere caused the recent appearance of the “ozone hole” and Oceanic productivity is higher near the North and South Poles because these areas have much clearer water than tropical oceans.
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45
Q

Consider a jaguar, a catfish and a termite. Rank these organisms from LOWEST to HIGHEST production efficiency.

A

Lowest: Jaguar, Middle: Catfish, Highest: Termite

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46
Q

MATCH the nutrient with the term or statement most uniquely identified with it.

  • Nitrogen:
  • Phosphorus:
  • Carbon:
A
  • Nitrogen: Heavily used to make amino acids and proteins
  • Phosphorus: Becomes biologically available by weathering or rock
  • Carbon: Becomes biologically available via photosynthesis
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47
Q

If you applied a fungicide to a cornfield, what would you expect to happen to the rate of decomposition(=respiration) and net ecosystem production (NEP)? (assume no change to plant productivity)

A
  • The rate of decomposition(=respiration) would: decrease. The NEP would: increase
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48
Q

provide examples for the following terms: bioremediation, biological augmentation, restoration

A
  • Use of wetlands to remove contaminants from water: Bioremediation
  • Plant nitrogen-fixing legumes to increase nitrogen in soil: Biological augmentation
  • Replanting a prairie with native species after many years of use as a crop field: Restoration
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49
Q

Select the response that correctly identifies the statements as T/F or correctly completes the statement.

  • In a terrestrial community food chain, the biomass of the carnivore trophic level is usually much lower than that of the herbivores.
  • Most plant biomass in a community is never eaten by the herbivores
  • Human bodies in Irish bogs may be 6,000 years old. Select one factor that explains why these bodies not decompose?
  • Food chains are generally short because energy transfer between trophic levels is inefficient and longer chains are less stable.
A
  • In a terrestrial community food chain, the biomass of the carnivore trophic level is usually much lower than that of the herbivores.: True
  • Most plant biomass in a community is never eaten by the herbivores.: True
  • Human bodies in Irish bogs may be 6,000 years old. Select one factor that explains why these bodies not decompose?: bottom of bogs in Ireland lack oxygen
  • Food chains are generally short because energy transfer between trophic levels is inefficient and longer chains are less stable.: True
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50
Q

Select the TWO TRUE statements

A
  • Production of ozone in the upper level of the atmosphere is a natural process (not caused by humans) and human activities DID NOT create the greenhouse effect on planet Earth but HAS altered the composition of the atmosphere.
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51
Q

Several undergraduates in Dr. Doyle’s lab recently measured the Net Ecosystem Production (NEP) of a small farm pond and found it to be negative. What BEST explains this finding?

A

Farm ponds are receiving an organic carbon subsidy from the surrounding landscape.

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52
Q

Which of the following organisms is correctly paired with its trophic level?

A

algae—primary producer

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53
Q

You know from previous research that a Robin (common bird!) has a production efficiency of 20%. Under experimental conditions, you observe during a period of time that the robin consumed 200 grams of worms. What (if any) ADDITIONAL information would you need to compute the weight gain (=net secondary production) of the Robin?

A

Mass of worms excreted

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54
Q

Which of the following are considered the three major threats to global biodiversity listed in your textbook and discussed in class? 1. zoonotic diseases; 2. Habitat loss; 3. Ozone depletion in upper atmosphere, 4. Invasive exotic species, 5. Human overexpoitation

A
  • 2, 4, 5
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55
Q

Select the TWO TRUE statements

A
  • Production of ozone in the stratosphere is dependent on input of light energy and The “dead zone” in the Gulf of Mexico (TX LA coast) is not caused by highly toxic chemicals coming in from the Mississippi River
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56
Q

If all individuals in the last remaining population of a particular frog species were all highly related, which type of diversity would be of greatest concern when planning to prevent the species from going extinct?

A

genetic diversity

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57
Q

Ecologist were concerned about the declining growth rate of a small and isolated bighorn sheep population and feared the population was entering an extinction vortex. Five new individuals were added to a small population of bighorn sheep in 1986, and ten more were added between 1990 and 1994. Based upon evidence in the figure, which of the following changes in this population can probably be attributed to the additions?

A

the population growth rate began to increase

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58
Q

Which of the following outcomes is caused by excessive nutrient runoff into aquatic ecosystems?

A
  • eutrophication
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59
Q

Select the graph that best shows how level of Ecosystem Function (Services) changes as number of species in the ecosystem

A

a

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60
Q

The textbook used an example of the Greater Prairie Chicken (GPC) to illustrate aspects of recovering at-risk small populations. In that example, the GPC showed very low population numbers and the primary problem was low genetic diversity while the eventual solution found was adding healthy individuals from another population to increase gene flow

A
  • low genetic diversity and adding healthy individuals from another population to increase gene flow
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61
Q

Which of the following conditions is the BEST indicator that a population is in an extinction vortex? Genetic measurements indicate a loss of genetic diversity over time.

A

Genetic measurements indicate a loss of genetic diversity over time

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62
Q

Which of the following strategies would most rapidly increase the genetic diversity of a population in an extinction vortex? Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species.

A
  • Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species.
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63
Q

In the mid 1980’s ecologist studying albatross (a marine bird that eats fish) were dismayed to discover that the bird population was declining due to high levels of toxic PCB’s in the birds. What likely explains this finding?

A

biological magnification

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64
Q

Researchers have been studying a rare population of 87 voles in an isolated area. They feared the population was entering an extinction vortex. So, ten voles from a larger population were introduced into this isolated population. Besides having ten more individuals, which of the following is another major benefit of the addition that might help save the population?

A

Increasing the population’s genetic diversity.

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65
Q

So, WHY does it get colder as you go up a mountain even though (1) hot air rises, (2) the mountain is closer to the sun, and (3) the top of the mountain receives MORE light energy than the base of the mountain?

A
  • The atmosphere is thinner and retains less heat
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66
Q

Which is the definition of a ‘biodiversity hot spot’?

A
  • relatively small area with great number of endemic species
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67
Q

True or False

  • Climate change is thought to be related to the changing composition of Earth’s atmosphere by increasing concentration of gases that are better heat insulators:
  • Climate change will likely change the frequency of severe weather events like droughts and floods:
  • Climate change will likely result in higher biodiversity since animals and plants prefer warmer weather:
  • Sea levels are unlikely to be impacted by climate change since the increase from melting glaciers will be offset by higher evapotranspiration:
A

Climate change is thought to be related to the changing composition of Earth’s atmosphere by increasing concentration of gases that are better heat insulators: True

Climate change will likely change the frequency of severe weather events like droughts and floods: True

Climate change will likely result in higher biodiversity since animals and plants prefer warmer weather: False

Sea levels are unlikely to be impacted by climate change since the increase from melting glaciers will be offset by higher evapotranspiration: False

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68
Q

Which TWO of the following factors MUST be true for a compound to biomagnify in the food chain?

A

Compound must be lipid soluble and Compound must be stable

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69
Q

what are two factors that do not occur exclusively in animals

  • eukaryotic cells
  • nerve cells
  • gastrulation of embryonic development
  • multicellularity
A

eukaryotic cells and multicellularity

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70
Q

Mark each statement as true or false

  • most animals are heterotrophic, but a few are autotrophic and can photosynthesize
  • no animals have a cell wall made of cellulose
  • in animals sperm and egg cells are produced directly from 2n cells via meiosis
  • most animals form a hollow ball of cells known as a blastula during embryonic development
A
  • most animals are heterotrophic, but a few are autotrophic and can photosynthesize: false
  • no animals have a cell wall made of cellulose: true
  • in animals sperm and egg cells are produced directly from 2n cells via meiosis: true
  • most animals form a hollow ball of cells known as a blastula during embryonic development: true
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71
Q

match the evolutionary period with the evolutionary development that occurred during that period

ediacaran biota, reptile division, mammalian diversification, and arthropod colonization of land

A

neoproterozoic era: ediacaran biota

paleozoic era: arthropod colonization of land

mesozoic era: reptile diversification

cenozoic era: mammalian diversification

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72
Q

match the embryonic layer shown with tissues or organ that arises from it

central nervous system, lining of the digestive tract, muscles, skin

A

central nervous system: ectoderm

lining of the digestive tract: endoderm

muscles: mesoderm
skin: ectoderm

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73
Q

for each developmental characteristic listed below, select if it is associated with protostome or deuterostome development

blastopore becomes the anus

coelom forms by splitting of mesoderm cells during gastrulation

initial cleavage of embryonic cells is the determinate

cell cleavages to form blastula show spinal spiral cleavage pattern

A

blastopore becomes the anus: deuterostome

coelom forms by splitting of mesoderm cells during gastrulation: protostome

initial cleavage of embryonic cells is the determinate: protostome

cell cleavages to form blastula show spinal spiral cleavage pattern: protostome

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74
Q

select the only structures which could correctly be categorized as homologous to the human coccyx

which of the following pairs is not an example of analogous structures due to convergent evolution

A

select the only structures which could correctly be categorized as homologous to the human coccyx: spider monkey prehensile tail

which of the following pairs is not an example of analogous structures due to convergent evolution: bones in the batwing and bones in the human forelimb

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75
Q

the 1700s geologist contributed which 2 key concepts to the developing ideas about the origins of the earth

A
  • deeper strata carry fossils that are older than fossils close to the land surface
    • the earth was likely much older than previously imagined
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76
Q

The colonization of land by primitive plans was facilitate by a symbiotic relationship. Which relationship was key to land colonization?

You find a green organism in a pond near your house. Even thought it doesn’t have distinct leaves you believe it is a plant, not an alga. Which of the following characteristics would best support your identification of the organism as a plant and not an alga?

A

fungi to help anchor the plant and obtain water and nutrients

the body of the organism is covered by a waxy cuticle

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77
Q

Which of the following is DERIVED trait unique to plants and not shared with algae or charophytes?

A

alternation of generation

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78
Q

Which one trait do plants share with charophytes but not other algae?

A

Sporopollenin polymer to prevent desiccation

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79
Q

Match the four key steps in plant evolutionary history to their correct location in the chronographic (time) sequence.

first step:

second step

third step

fourth step

A

first step: cuticle

second step: vascular tissue

third step: seeds

fourth step: flowers

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80
Q

Mark each statement about the plant phylogenetic tree below as T/F.

Plants collectively form a clade.

The two lineages that comprise the seedless vascular plants (Lycophytes and Monilophytes) are sister taxa.

Flowering plants (Angiosperm) share a more recent common ancestor with Gymnosperms than they do with Hornworts.

Vascular plants (including the vascular plant ancestor 425 mya) would most correctly be categorized as a monophyletic taxa.

A

Plants collectively form a clade.: true

The two lineages that comprise the seedless vascular plants (Lycophytes and Monilophytes) are sister taxa.: false

Flowering plants (Angiosperm) share a more recent common ancestor with Gymnosperms than they do with Hornworts.: true

Vascular plants (including the vascular plant ancestor 425 mya) would most correctly be categorized as a monophyletic taxa.: true

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81
Q

Match each descriptor provided with the appropriate term.

Waxy covering over epidermis of plants

Pore in epidermis of plants that allows gas exchange

Polymer present in spore walls that help prevent dessication

Molecule which mostly comprises cell wall of plants

A

Waxy covering over epidermis of plants: cuticle

Pore in epidermis of plants that allows gas exchange: stomata

Polymer present in spore walls that help prevent dessication: sporpollenin

Molecule which mostly comprises cell wall of plants: cellulose

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82
Q

Which of the following TWO statements correctly describe differences between a spore and seed?

a. Spores have a protective cell wall while the embryo within a seed is not protected
b. Spores are unicellular while seeds are multicellular.
c. Spores are diploid while all the seed cells are haploid.
d. Seeds have substantial stored nutrition while spores do not.

A

b and d

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83
Q

Which of the following is NOT a derived trait unique to seed plants?

A

stomata

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84
Q

Which of the following plant groups are homosporous?

A

nonvascular plants

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85
Q

Consider the evolutionary development trajectory of plants and mark each statement as T/F.

The evolution of flowers happened only after the evolution of seeds.

Mosses and other nonvascular plants have a life cycle dominated by the sporophyte generation

Ferns produce seeds.

Ferns and other seedless vascular plants often have a free-living gametophyte stage

A

The evolution of flowers happened only after the evolution of seeds.: true

Mosses and other nonvascular plants have a life cycle dominated by the sporophyte generation: true

Ferns produce seeds.: false

Ferns and other seedless vascular plants often have a free-living gametophyte stage: true

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86
Q

Match the description with the term to which it is most related.

Production of two types of spores giving rise to separate male and female gametophytes

Contains male gametophyte of seed plants

Structure in seed plants that contains and protects the female gametophyte

An embryo with a food supply packaged in a protective coat.

A

Production of two types of spores giving rise to separate male and female gametophytes: Heterospory

Contains male gametophyte of seed plants: pollen

Structure in seed plants that contains and protects the female gametophyte: ovule

An embryo with a food supply packaged in a protective coat.: seed

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87
Q

Select the TWO traits below which are derived traits of seed plants (found only in seed plants).

Pollen

Seeds

Cuticle

Cellulose

Free-living gametophyte

A

pollen and seeds

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88
Q

The innermost layer of the root cortex is the

A

endodermis

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89
Q

the major function of the endodermis (in plants) is

A

control substances that enter the vascular bundle

90
Q

Which TWO structures are correctly paired with its tissue system?

trichome–vascular tissue

tracheid–vascular tissue

sieve tube member–dermal tissue

guard cell-dermal tissue

root hair–ground tissue

A

tracheid–vascular tissue and guard cell-dermal tissue

91
Q

Which of the following cells or tissues or organs arise from vascular cambium activity?

a. periderm
b. leaves
c. secondary xylem
d. spongy mesophyll cells
e. secondary phloem

A

c and e

92
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the zones in the primary growth of a root, moving from the root cap toward the base of the stem?

1st zone (nearest root cap)

middle zone

bottom zone (fartherest from root cap)

A

1st zone (nearest root cap): zone of cell division

middle zone: zone of elongation

bottom zone (fartherest from root cap): zone of differentiation

93
Q

Match the floral structure with the gene types which need to be active to produce it (according to the ABC hypothesis).

Sepals

Petals

Stamens

Carpels

A

Sepals: a only

Petals: a and b

Stamens: b and c

Carpels: c only

94
Q

Identify structures W, X, Y and Z.

A

W cells: spongy mesophyll

x thin coating: cuticle

Y opening: stomate

z cells: guard cell

95
Q

Correctly select the organ system that each of the following structures is part of.

potato tuber

cactus spine

onion (the part you eat)
Rhizome

A

potato tuber: stem

cactus spine: root

onion (the part you eat): leaf
Rhizome: stem

96
Q

MATCH the primary meristem with the tissue it produces in a dicot root.

Protoderm

Ground Meristem

Procambium

A

Protoderm: epidermis

Ground Meristem: cortex

Procambium: vascular cylinder

97
Q

the layer of cells at the tip of arrow #1 is

the cells at the end of arrow #2 are

the cells at the end of arrow #3 are

the multilayer structure at the tip of arrow #4 is

This tree is approximately how many years old

A

the layer of cells at the tip of arrow #1 is: vascular cambium

the cells at the end of arrow #2 are: secondary xylem

the cells at the end of arrow #3 are: secondary phloem

the multilayer structure at the tip of arrow #4 is: periderm

This tree is approximately how many years old: 4 years

98
Q

In the atrium of the Baylor Sciences Building is a magnificent cross section of a redwood. Dr. Joseph White and students counted the rings, and have identified the date of numerous scientists and scientific events. Which of the following scientists is identified at the center of the tree (date 180 AD).

A

Galen, father of anatomy

99
Q

The turgor pressure in guard cells is adjusted by active transport of what in and out of cells

stomates open when the guard cells are what

guard cells open to allow a plant cell to what

A

The turgor pressure in guard cells is adjusted by active transport of K+ in and out of cells

stomates open when the guard cells are turgid

guard cells open to allow a plant cell to acquire carbon dioxide

100
Q

Select the TWO factors that are important components of long-distance transport process in xylem in a tall tree?

the cohesion of water molecules

active transport of water within the apoplast

a large negative water potential between soil and the air outside the leaves

high root pressure

A

the cohesion of water molecules and a large negative water potential between soil and the air outside the leaves

101
Q

Which TWO of the following ARE NOT part of the apoplast system in plants?

pace inside cell wall but exterior to plasma membrane

interior of sieve-tube element

interior of xylem cells

plasmodesmata

space between cell walls in roots

A

interior of sieve-tube element and plasmodesmata

102
Q

The value for Ψ in root tissue was found to be -0.17 MPa. If the root tissue were placed in a solution of sucrose with Ψ = -0.28 MPa.

The net water flow will be in which directions?

When water flow stops, what will be the Ψ in the root cells?

A

from the tissue into the sucrose solution

-0.28 MPa

103
Q

Mark each statement as T/F

New plasmodesmata cannot form after cells mature.

Plasmodesmata can open and close based on the needs of the plant.

Unlike animal cells, signal molecules like proteins and RNA can move from cell to cell via the plasmodesmata

The rapid response of a Venus fly trap leaf to catch a fly is activated by an electric signal

A

New plasmodesmata cannot form after cells mature.: false

Plasmodesmata can open and close based on the needs of the plant.: true

Unlike animal cells, signal molecules like proteins and RNA can move from cell to cell via the plasmodesmata: true

The rapid response of a Venus fly trap leaf to catch a fly is activated by an electric signal: true

104
Q

Which of the following best predicts the DIRECTION of movement of water across biological membranes?

The solute potential of pure water is

A

difference in water potential

zero

105
Q

If isolated flacid plant cells with a water potential averaging -0.45 MPa are placed into a solution with a water potential of -0.25 MPa…..

Which way would water flow?

How would the pressure potential of the cell change?

What would be the final pressure potential of the cell?

A

water would flow into the cell

pressure would increase

+0.2

106
Q

A water molecule could move all the way through a plant from soil to root to leaf to air and pass through a living cell membrane only once. This living cell would be a part of which structure?

This cell would be part of which plant organ?

A

the endodermis

the root

107
Q

Pressure data, measured from one of the vascular tissue types connecting leaf to root in a 11 m tall tree growing in Canada, is presented in the graph below.

Which of the following is the most appropriate title for this graph?

What time of year (season) would this most likely reflect?

A

phloem flow from root to leaf

early spring

108
Q

Mark each statement as T/F/

Under low-light conditions, plants that can adjust leaf orientation are likely to have the leaves in a vertical and not a horizontal position

Large leaves are characteristic of dry or cold environments

Nitrogen fixation is a process that requires relatively low energy input

Because nitrogen is often limiting to plant growth, all plant species form nodules and symbiotic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria

A

Under low-light conditions, plants that can adjust leaf orientation are likely to have the leaves in a vertical and not a horizontal position: false

Large leaves are characteristic of dry or cold environments: false

Nitrogen fixation is a process that requires relatively low energy input: false

Because nitrogen is often limiting to plant growth, all plant species form nodules and symbiotic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria: false

109
Q

Rhizobacteria benefit plants by providing inorganic nitrogen in a form plants can utilize. Which two processes listed are microbial processes that provide inorganic nitrogen that plant roots can uptake?

photosynthesis

transpiration

nitrogen fixation

decomposition of dead organic matter

denitrification

A

nitrogen fixation

decomposition of dead organic matter

110
Q

A plant in your grandfather’s garden developed a phosphorus deficiency after being treated with a fungicide. What is the most probable cause of the deficiency?

A

Mycorrhizal fungi were killed.

111
Q

Which of the following is a primary difference between ectomycorrhizae and arbuscular mycorrhizae (endomycorrhizae)?

Which major benefits do plants and mycorrhizal fungi receive from their symbiotic relationship?

A

Ectomycorrhizae form a dense cover over the roots (like a glove), whereas arbuscular mycorrhizae grow into invaginations of the root cell and penetrate through the cell wall.

Plants receive water and nutrients, and fungi receive photosynthetic products.

112
Q

Match the terms.

free-living bacteria living near to plant roots

structures on roots of some plants inhabited by N fixing Rhizobium bacteria

nonpathogenic bacteria living between plant root cells

soil fungi that form mutualistic associations with plants

A

free-living bacteria living near to plant roots: Rhizobacteria

structures on roots of some plants inhabited by N fixing Rhizobium bacteria: nodules

nonpathogenic bacteria living between plant root cells: endophytes

soil fungi that form mutualistic associations with plants: Mycorrihizae

113
Q

Match the plant type with the statement most related to it.

Legume (like soy)

Epiphytes (like orchids)

Parasitic plants (like mistletoe)

Carnivorous plants (like Venus fly trap)

A

Legume (like soy): form nodules for N-fixing bacteria symboints

Epiphytes (like orchids): live on trees but do not suck resources from them

Parasitic plants (like mistletoe): actively remove photosynthetic products from host plant

Carnivorous plants (like Venus fly trap): capture and digest animals

114
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of three key events that takes place during the plant responses to internal and external signals?

first

second

third

A

first: reception or detection of signal
second: transduction
third: response

115
Q

Auxins frequently interact with other plant hormones to cause a particular process. Which of the following processes is attributed ONLY to auxin?

Where in the plant is auxin most likely to be produced?

A

phototropism

stem apical meristems and young leaves

116
Q

Which of the following hormones primarily function(s) to regulate plant cell division?

What other effect does this hormone have on plants?

A

cytokinins

delays senescence

117
Q

You have a small shrub in your yard that is the height that you want it, but does not have as many branches as you want. Which of the following actions will trigger increased branching?

When you perform this action, what hormone is primarily impacted?

A

Cut off the tips of the main shoots.

decline in auxin

118
Q

Match the plant hormone with the primary site of production in plants.

cytokinins

gibberellin

Abscisic Acid

A

cytokinins: Roots
gibberellin: root and shoot apical meristem

Abscisic Acid: everywhere

119
Q

Match the hormones with a practical application which makes use of its properties.

cytokinen

gibberellin

ethylene

auxin

A

cytokinin: Apply to cut flowers to keep them fresh longer
gibberellin: Larger grapes
ethylene: Quickly ripen bananas
auxin: Kill weeds

120
Q

When a growing stem tip hits an obstacle and further upward growth is inhibited a response is generated in the plant

The name of this response is

The hormone responsible for this response is

The rate of stem growth

The direction of stem growth

A

triple response

ethylene

slows

changes to horizontal growth

121
Q

A small new shrub has just been discovered that has a novel photosynthetic pigment that absorbs far-red light but is damaged by red light. In what type of environment was this plant most likely found?

Given the habitat where you expect to find this plant, how would you expect the stomate density to compare to the average of all plants?

A

on the forest floor, beneath a canopy of taller plants

lower density

122
Q

Plants often use changes in day length (photoperiod) to trigger events such as dormancy and flowering. Which of the following best explains why day-neutral plants are more common in the tropics than in temperate zones?

How is climate change likely to impact the occurrence of day neutral plants in the tropics?

A

In the tropics there is little photoperiodic change during the year

no change

123
Q

Mark each statement as T/F

One type of phytochrome (light receptor) in plants responds to both red and far-red light.

During darkness, P(fr) is slowly converted back to P(r).

When exposed to full sunlight, the phytochrome receptors will be in the P(fr) state.

Phytochrome light sensing is known to be involved in both seed germination and flowering for some plants.

A

One type of phytochrome (light receptor) in plants responds to both red and far-red light.: true

During darkness, P(fr) is slowly converted back to P(r).: true

When exposed to full sunlight, the phytochrome receptors will be in the P(fr) state.: true

Phytochrome light sensing is known to be involved in both seed germination and flowering for some plants.: true

124
Q

Irises are plants that bloom in the spring when nights are shorter than a critical dark period (dotted line). Yellow= daylight, Grey = darkness. Colored bars represent flashes of red or far-red light as indicated. Select the THREE conditions below that would result in a bloom.

A

a, c, e

125
Q

Plant response to gravity is known as

Many plants detect gravity by the settling of dense starch granules called

A

gravitropism

statoliths

126
Q

Plant response to TOUCH is called

How would plants exposed to frequent strong winds be different from similar plants not exposed to this mechanical stimulus?

A

thigmotropism

shorter

127
Q

You are out working in your grandfather’s garden, and you notice that one of your favorite flowering plants has discolored dead spots on a few leaves. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the symptoms you observe? [responsible]

A

hypersensitive response

128
Q

A particular type of virus carries a gene for salicylate hydroxylase, an enzyme that breaks down salicylic acid. If this virus infects a plant, which of the plant defense systems is likely to be impacted?

How would you expect the virulence of this virus to compare to a similar pathogen that could not destroy salicylic acid?

A

systemic acquired resistance

more virulent

129
Q

A farmer uses triazine herbicide to control pigweed in his field. For the first few years, the triazine works well and almost all the pigweed dies; however, after several years, the farmer sees more and more pigweed growing once again in the fields. Which of the following statements best explains the return of pigweed to the farmer’s fields?

A

Triazine-resistant weeds were more likely to survive and reproduce than were non-resistant individuals.

130
Q

Within six months of effectively using methicillin to treat S. aureus infections in a community, all new S. aureus infections were caused by MRSA (S. aureusstrains that are resistant to many antibiotics). How can this best be explained?

A

Some drug-resistant bacteria were present at the start of treatment, and natural selection increased their frequency.

131
Q

The diagram shows two sets of islands. Group A is located 2,500 kilometers from the nearest mainland, whereas Group B is located about 25 kilometers from the mainland. Populations of the same species exist on the mainland and on the islands. What would you expect the genetic similarity of the island groups to be relative to that of the mainland?

A

The population on Group B islands will be more genetically similar to the mainland than that of group A

132
Q

Some beetles have antler-like structures on their heads and fight for the right to mate, much like male deer do. The existence of antlers in both beetle and deer species with strong male-male competition is an example of

A

convergent evolution

133
Q

Place the following events related to the development of the theory of evolution in their correct chronological order.

  1. Geologists discover the world is ‘really old’
  2. Lamark publishes his theory of evolution
  3. Aristotle “scala naturale
  4. Gregor Mendel publishes his work on genetics
  5. Darwin publishes his book “On the Origen of Species”
A

3 1 2 5 4

134
Q

Match the terms on the left with the item most closely associated with it from the dropdown box (use any choice only once, not all choices will be used).

Sickle-cell anemia

Human birth weight

Right/left mouth of scale-eating fish

Male peacock tailfeathers

A

Sickle-cell anemia: heterozygote advantage

Human birth weight: stabilizing selection

Right/left mouth of scale-eating fish: frequency dependent selection

Male peacock tailfeathers: sexual selection

135
Q

The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium principle outlines conditions under which allelic frequency and the genotypic frequency of a population remains unchanged. Mark each statement as true or false?

Nonrandom mating will change the genotypic frequency of the population

A small population size ensures that random mutations do not occur

Gene flow must be balanced, with the same number of individuals immigrating and emigrating from the population

Beneficial and deleterious mutations can occur, but must occur in the same ratio.

A

Nonrandom mating will change the genotypic frequency of the population: true

A small population size ensures that random mutations do not occur: false

Gene flow must be balanced, with the same number of individuals immigrating and emigrating from the population: false

Beneficial and deleterious mutations can occur, but must occur in the same ratio.: false

136
Q

Match the situation with the term most closely associated with it

Small population of primates arrive in South America after surviving a perilous voyage on a vegetation raft from Africa 40 million years ago.

Cystic Fibrosis is a devastating recessive genetic disease caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene. This genetic trait is fairly common among Europeans (almost 5% of Irish carry the gene!). WHY is the allelic frequency so high? Turns out that individuals with one normal and one mutated CFTR gene are less susceptible to severe dehydration and death caused by cholera and typhus.

A

founder effect

heterozygote advantage

137
Q

Match the situation with the term most closely associated with it.

Cacti have two sets of predators: peccaries which like to eat cactus fruits with fewer spines and parasitic insects which like cacti that have very dense spines to keep their own predators away. Successful, long-lived cacti have an average number of spines to help ward off both predators.

Mature male sea lions compete fiercely with each other for dominance over a rookery of females

A

stabalizing selection

intrAsexual selection

138
Q

Mark each statement as T or F concerning genetic variation

Genetic variation arises in response to changes in the environment.

Genetic variation must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population.

Genetic variation does not exist in a populations of haploid species because all alleles are expressed

A population that has a higher average heterozygosity may be better suited to survive a changing climate than a population with low heterozygosity

A

Genetic variation arises in response to changes in the environment: false

Genetic variation must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population.: true

Genetic variation does not exist in a populations of haploid species because all alleles are expressed: false

A population that has a higher average heterozygosity may be better suited to survive a changing climate than a population with low heterozygosity: true

139
Q

Select the TWO TRUE statements. Multiple Answer question, penalty for wrong answers.

When a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, neither allelic nor genotypic frequencies change through time

Sexual reproduction only results in neutral variation because no new genes are added to the population

The average heterozygosity in an animal species is generally found to be >60%

The fact that human babies generally have a birth weight between 5 lbs and 9 lbs is an example of disruptive selection

In frequency dependent selection the fitness of a genotype depends on how common it is in the population

A

When a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, neither allelic nor genotypic frequencies change through time

In frequency dependent selection the fitness of a genotype depends on how common it is in the population

140
Q

A REASONABLE estimate of average heterozygosity in a human for the approximate 21,000 coding genes we have would be

If you measured the average heterozygosity of 1,000 randomly selected residents of Los Angeles and compared it to the average of a 1,000 members of an indigenous village in the Amazon rainforest, the LA average would be

A

20-30 %

higher

141
Q

An earthquake followed by an intense forest fire decimates a ground-squirrel population, killing 98% of the squirrels in a region. The surviving population has broader stripes, on average, than the initial population. If broadness of stripes is genetically determined, which of the following processes most likely caused the change?

Whenever a diploid population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium….

A

a bottleneck effect

the allele frequency of the population will not change from one generation to the next

142
Q

Although each of the following has a better chance of influencing gene frequencies in small populations than in large populations, which one most consistently requires a small population as a precondition for its occurrence?

Over time, humans have steadily increased their movements across the continents of the Earth. People now live with and intermarry individuals who are physically different than they are. Which of the following results has most likely been derived from these movements?

A

genetic drift

Increase in average heterozygosity

143
Q

An island has a single species of finch (bird) that has large, strong beaks that can easily crack and eat the large, tough seeds common on the island. A tourist company sets up bird feeding stations on that island with a variety of bird seeds (different types and sizes) so that tourists can get a better look at the finches. Which of these events is now most likely to occur to finch beaks on this island ?

Female sexual selection is a powerful force in speciation. Research has demonstrated that traits favored by females is typically associated with

A

increased variation in beak size and shape over time

‘good genes’ that enhance survival and reproduction of offspring

144
Q

Listed below are the genotypic frequencies for four populations at the H locus. Which TWO population(s) are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

PopulationHHHhhhA0.360.480.16B0.500.000.50C0.330.340.33D0.090.420.49

A

a and d

145
Q

New Zealand sheep are mostly white, but may also be black or brown. One gene (the Agouti gene) controls if the sheep is white or colored (a second gene controls which color, if it is not white). At the Agouti locus, the white gene (W) is dominant over the colored gene (w). One rancher has a herd of 750 white sheep and 250 colored sheep. What is the allelic frequency of the colored allele (w)?

A

0.50

146
Q

Which of the following provides an example of a mechanical isolation as a prezygotic barrier?

Which of the following provides and example of behavioral isolation as a prezygotic barrier?

A

two snails have shells that spiral in different directions

Female frogs select a mate based on call quality

147
Q

The factors leading to speciation are diverse. Which TWO factors below would be least likely to be under the control of natural selection and more the outcome of random chance?

Mutation causes snail shell to twist in opposite direction

Female bird selects male with brightest beak

Rare desert plant has daughter plant with twice the number of chromosomes

Separate populations of insects in Florida eat different size fruit

Skunk populations mate at different times of year

A

Mutation causes snail shell to twist in opposite direction

Rare desert plant has daughter plant with twice the number of chromosomes

148
Q

Match the term on the one on the right with which it is MOST closely associated

dog breeds

Continental drift

Apples & Hawthornes

Snail shell whirl direction prevents copulation

A

dog breeds: artificial selection

Continental drift: allopatric speciation

Apples & Hawthornes: habitat isolation

Snail shell whirl direction prevents copulation: mechanical incompatibility

149
Q

Two species of sage from California are closely related and occur in the same habitats, but never crossbreed in nature although hybrids can be produced in the lab. The two-lipped flowers of Salvia mellifera have stamens and style (male and female flower parts) in the upper lip, whereas S. apiana has long stamens and style. S. mellifera is pollinated by small bees that carry pollen on their backs from flower to flower. S. apiana, is pollinated by large carpenter bees or bumblebees that carry the pollen on their wings. Even if the pollinators of one species visit flowers of the other, pollination cannot occur because the pollen does not come into contact with the style of the alternative species.

These species are best described as

The type of reproductive isolation keeping the species apart is

A

sympatric

prezygotic mechanical incompatibility

150
Q

According to the Biological Species Concept, the formation of a new species hinges primarily on

The concept of ‘punctuated equilibrium’ refers to

A

reproductive isolation

Occasional periods of rapid speciation.

151
Q

Which of the following is the most likely sequence of events in adaptive speciation involving geographic isolation

initial population is subdivided into subpopulations geographically isolated from eachother

population experiences different environmental conditions

population genetics diverge

populations are reproductively incompatible with each other

A

in order

152
Q

The frequency of Anopheles mosquitoes, which carry the malaria parasite, declines with increasing elevation (mosquitoes like it hot!). Consider a hypothetical human population living in villages distributed along the slopes of Mt. Kilimanjaro (Africa). If the incidence of the sickle-cell allele in the population is plotted against elevation,

A. Which of the following distributions is most likely under current conditions of high incidence of malaria in Africa?

B. Which distribution is most likely under future conditions where we have nearly eliminated malaria from Africa?

A

a

d

153
Q

Which graph below best shows how the genetic similarity of two populations would change as the distance between two populations increases?

A

a

154
Q

Which ONE of the following best exemplifies hybrid breakdown?

Two closely related species meet in a hybrid zone and produce hybrid offspring. Reinforcement is most likely to occur when

A

The common edible frog of Europe is a hybrid between two species, Rana lessonae and Rana ridibunda. The F1 hybrid generation is apparently healthy and long-lived and mate and produce offspring (F2). But when F2 hybrids mate, the next generation has poor reproductive success, and many individuals are physically deformed.

hybrids have lower genetic fitness than either parent population

155
Q

Mark each statement as T/F.

A female that prefers a mate with a rare color pattern is an example of stabilizing selection

Dog breeds are an example of natural selection

The production of sterile mules by interbreeding horses and donkeys is an example of hybrid breakdown

The high number of cichlid fish species in Lake Malawi is the product of large number of polyploid events in the past

A

A female that prefers a mate with a rare color pattern is an example of stabilizing selection: false

Dog breeds are an example of natural selection: false

The production of sterile mules by interbreeding horses and donkeys is an example of hybrid breakdown: false

The high number of cichlid fish species in Lake Malawi is the product of large number of polyploid events in the past: false

156
Q

Identify the key period in the evolutionary history of Earth by matching with the correct description.

Period of global warming caused by intense volcanic activity associated with Pangea

Period of global cooling caused by meteor shower that threw debris into the air for many decades.

Period of intense speciation when first organisms with bones and other hard structures appear in the fossil record

Proliferation of soft-bodied organisms in the fossil record

A

Period of global warming caused by intense volcanic activity associated with Pangea: permian mass extinction: huge loss of marine species

Period of global cooling caused by meteor shower that threw debris into the air for many decades.: cretaceous mass extinction, demise for the dinos

Period of intense speciation when first organisms with bones and other hard structures appear in the fossil record: cambrian explosion

Proliferation of soft-bodied organisms in the fossil record: Ediacaran Biota

157
Q

Mark each statement as True of False

[Select] [“F”, “T”] Carbon-14 is suitable for dating Irish bog bodies but not for dating dinosaur fossils.

Free oxygen in the atmosphere is thought to be due to the geologic processes related to volcano eruptions.

In the colonization of land, arthropods are thought to have colonized land before plants.

The first genetic systems in early evolution is believed to have been based on amino acids.

A

Carbon-14 is suitable for dating Irish bog bodies but not for dating dinosaur fossils.: true

Free oxygen in the atmosphere is thought to be due to the geologic processes related to volcano eruptions. : false

In the colonization of land, arthropods are thought to have colonized land before plants.: false

The first genetic systems in early evolution is believed to have been based on amino acids.: false

158
Q

Match the characteristic with the genetic principle or factor with which it is most closely associated.

Fish have an air-filled structure called a swim bladder that helps modern fish maintain buoyancy. Ichthyologist believe that this structure evolved from a lung of an ancestral fish species.

High sensitivity of sense of smell in mice.

Stickleback fish in marine populations have pronounced protective spines which are lacking in freshwater populations where the primary predator is absent.

The arrangement of floral parts (sepals, petals, stamens and carpels) is precisely controlled by three groups of genes.

A

Fish have an air-filled structure called a swim bladder that helps modern fish maintain buoyancy. Ichthyologist believe that this structure evolved from a lung of an ancestral fish species.: Exaptation

High sensitivity of sense of smell in mice.: Paralogous genes

Stickleback fish in marine populations have pronounced protective spines which are lacking in freshwater populations where the primary predator is absent.: Change in gene regulation

The arrangement of floral parts (sepals, petals, stamens and carpels) is precisely controlled by three groups of genes.: Homeotic genes

159
Q

Select the TWO TRUE statements.

The internal membranes of eukaryotic cells forming the endoplasmic reticulum and surrounding the nucleus originated from endosymbiont prokaryotic organisms

The early atmosphere of the Earth when life first developed lacked free oxygen

The colonization of land by plants and arthropods began after the breakup of Pangea

Mitochondria of eukaryotic cells are thought to have once been free-living prokaryotic organisms that became part of the cell via endosymbiosis.

The “Cambrian Explosion” is a term used to explain the loss of biodiversity due to huge volcanic eruptions as Pangea began to break apart.

A

The early atmosphere of the Earth when life first developed lacked free oxygen

Mitochondria of eukaryotic cells are thought to have once been free-living prokaryotic organisms that became part of the cell via endosymbiosis.

160
Q

Match the terms on the left with the example most closely associated

Exaptation

Homeotic genes (like Hox genes)

Paedomorphosis

Convergent evolution

A

Exaptation: Hearing bones in ears of mammals

Homeotic genes (like Hox genes): Evolution of 6-legged insects from arthropod ancestor with more legs

Paedomorphosis: salamander that retains larval gills as a reproductive adult

Convergent evolution: flying squirrels of north America and flying marsupials of australia

161
Q

Which TWO key characteristics distinguish all modern eukaryotic cells from their prokaryotic ancestors?

Multicellularity

DNA instead of RNA as major genetic material

  • *Mitochondria**
  • *Cell enclosed by a membrane**

Internal membranes

A

Internal membranes

Mitochondria

162
Q

What is thought to be the correct sequence of these events, from earliest to most recent, in the evolution of life on Earth?

  1. complex organisms with hard exoskeletons
  2. eukaryotic cells
  3. prokaryotic-like cells that survived on abiotically formed organic compounds
  4. photosynthetic single cell prokaryotic-like organism
  5. multicellularity
A

3 4 2 5 1

163
Q

The half-life of carbon-14 is about 5,730 years. A sample of tissue from the preserved skull of Koelbjerg Man (see image) found preserved in a bog in Denmark was found to have 38% the normal proportion of carbon-14 to carbon-12. About how long ago did this man die?

Ancient fossils from the North America are quite similar to those of Europe while those of South America are most similar to those of Africa. What explains this similarity pattern?

A

7,000-8,000 yrs

The pattern of Pangea breakup

164
Q

A female fly, carrying fertilized eggs, is hypothetically swept by high winds to an island far out to sea. She is the first and only fly to arrive on this island. Thousands of years later, her numerous descendants occupy the island and have overlapping geographic ranges. They are separated into several different species with different foods, mouthparts, egg-laying sites, and egg shapes. What term best describes this process?

The mass extinction that eliminated the dinosaurs was a period of _______ caused by _____

A

Adaptive radiation

cooling, meteor shower

165
Q

Consider how you would construct a phylogenetic tree for the following organism:

Turtle, Salamander, Bird, Goat, Leopard,redfish

Which organism would be considered the outgroup

Which two organisms would be shown as sister taxa

A

Redfish

Leopard & Goat

166
Q

Select the TWO FALSE statements.

Horizontal gene transfer is limited to transfer within a single domain since the genetic differences among domains prevents such genetic movement.

We currently view life as divided into three major domains, Eukarya, Archea and Bacteria

Fungi are more closely related to animals than to plants

The domains Bacteria and Archaea are both composed of prokaryotic organisms, but Archaea is more closely related to Eukarya than to Bacteria

Multicellular life forms are common and exist in all three life domains

A

Horizontal gene transfer is limited to transfer within a single domain since the genetic differences among domains prevents such genetic movement.

167
Q

Consider the evolutionary history of a buffalo compared to other terapods (4-legged animals).

The presence of a backbone in a buffalo is an example of

The hair that covers this animal is an example of

A

Shared ancestral trait

Shared derived trait

168
Q

Consider the phylogenetic trees that show possible evolutionary relationship of four shapes. The 4 shapes that now exist evolved from an ancestor that had the red square characteristics. According to the principle of Maximum Parsimony, which phylogenetic tree should you accept?

A

b

169
Q

Match the terms to correctly associate each term with an example characteristic

Clade

Shared ancestral trait

Mammalian shared derived trait

Analogous structure

A

Clade: ancestor species and all descendents

Shared ancestral trait: lions have 4 legs

Mammalian shared derived trait: hair

Analogous structure: legs on spider and legs on buffalo

170
Q

Refer to the figure. Which of the following forms a clade are

and the two most closely related are

A

E, F, and G

FE

171
Q

Mark each statement as True or False.

Most species found on earth are unicellular

Paralogous genes develop due to convergent evolution

Humans are so evolutionarily different from mushrooms that we no longer share any orthologous genes

The Silversword plant alliance of Hawaii is composed of plants that look quite different but in fact share a common evolutionary history

A

Most species found on earth are unicellular: true

Paralogous genes develop due to convergent evolution: false

Humans are so evolutionarily different from mushrooms that we no longer share any orthologous genes: false

The Silversword plant alliance of Hawaii is composed of plants that look quite different but in fact share a common evolutionary history: true

172
Q

Consider the following phylogenetic tree. Mark each statement as True or False.

The lineage leading to salamanders was the first to diverge from the other lineages.

Lizards are equally closely related to humans as goats.

Salamanders are more closely related to goats than they are to humans.

The group highlighted by shading (Salamander, Lizard, Goat) is paraphyletic.

A

The lineage leading to salamanders was the first to diverge from the other lineages: true

Lizards are equally closely related to humans as goats. : true

Salamanders are more closely related to goats than they are to humans. : false

The group highlighted by shading (Salamander, Lizard, Goat) is paraphyletic. : true

173
Q

The antifreeze proteins found in fish that live in very cold waters has evolved independently in the Arctic and in the Antarctic, and not because of shared ancestry. Which of the following can be said with most certainty?

According to the phylogenetic tree in the figure below, what type of taxonomic group does G. intestinalis constitute?

A

The antifreeze proteins in Arctic and Antarctic fish are analogous

paraphyletic

174
Q

Swine are vulnerable to infection by bird flu virus and human flu virus, and can both be present in an individual pig at the same time. When this occurs, it is possible for genes from bird flu virus and human flu virus to be combined, thereby producing a genetically distinctive virus, which may subsequently cause widespread disease. The production of new flu virus in the manner described above is most similar to the phenomenon of

Which of the following features permits a gene to act as a molecular clock?

A

horizontal gene transfer

Orthologous gene with consistent rate of mutation

175
Q

Mark each statement about paralogous and orthologous genes as True or False

Paralogous genes occur due to autopolyploidy

Both paralogous and orthologous genes are examples of homologous genes

Humans and mice genomes share more than 90% homologous genes

Variation in orthologous genes are commonly used to construct molecular clocks

A

Paralogous genes occur due to autopolyploidy: false

Both paralogous and orthologous genes are examples of homologous genes: true

Humans and mice genomes share more than 90% homologous genes: true

Variation in orthologous genes are commonly used to construct molecular clocks: true

176
Q

The most likely explanation for the high rate of sympatric speciation that resulted in about 600 species of cichlid fish in Lake Malawi in the past is what and the possible threat for the future of many of these species is

A

sexual selection

fusion due to eutrophication

177
Q

Select the event/development that came FIRST from the pairs below

predation or colonization of land

eukaryotic cells or photosynthesis

arthropods on land or plants on land

mitochondria before chloroplasts

A

predation

photosynthesis

plants on land

mitochondria

178
Q

A student encounters an animal embryo at the eight-cell stage. The four smaller cells that comprise one hemisphere of the embryo seem to be rotated 45° and to lie in the grooves between larger, underlying cells.

Which of the following organisms is this embryo most likely to develop into?

If the student were to separate these eight cells and attempt to culture them individually, then what is most likely to happen?

A

earthworm (Annelida)

Each cell might continue development, but none would form a complete, viable embryo.

179
Q

What do organisms with deuterostome development all have in common?

If an organism exhibits a head with sensory structures, which of the following characteristics would it likely also exhibit?

A

The blastopore formed during gastrulation becomes the anus

it is bilaterally symmetrical

180
Q

Nine-banded armadillos give birth to four genetically identical offspring at a time. What does this fact suggest about the development of these organisms?

A

the fertilized egg undergoes radial and indeterminate cleavage

181
Q

Based on the phylogenetic tree of animals shown below, determine if each statement is T or F.

All animals except Cnidaria (jellyfish) share a common ancestor

Sponges are not animals

The group ‘Eumetazoa” is paraphyletic

The groups Deuterostomia and Ecdysozoa can correctly be considered sister groups.

A

All animals except Cnidaria (jellyfish) share a common ancestor: false

Sponges are not animals: false

The group ‘Eumetazoa” is paraphyletic: false

The groups Deuterostomia and Ecdysozoa can correctly be considered sister groups.: false

182
Q

Which of the following animal groups would NOT have a flow-through digestive system with mouth and anus?

  1. Insects (Arthropoda)
  2. Flatworms (Platyhelminthes)
  3. Snail (Mollusca)
  4. Sponges (Porifera)
  5. Roundworms (Nematoda)
  6. Anemones (Cnidaria)
A

2, 4, 6

183
Q

Placing sponges as the basal metazoans on the basis of lack of tissues implies which of the following?

Some researchers claim that sponge genomes have homeotic genes, but no Hox genes, while all other animals have Hox genes. If true, how would this impact the phylogenetic tree of animals?

A

Sponge ancestors never had tissues.

it would not alter the tree, but confirm the identity of sponges as “basal animals”

184
Q

Match the labeled structures of a sponge (Porifera).

A
  1. pore
  2. spongocoel
  3. osculum
  4. choanocyte
185
Q

Mark each statement about sponges (Porifera) as T/F.

Sponges are considered animals (Metazoa) but lack true tissues

Sponges have a gastrovascular cavity where digestion takes place

Choanocytes are sponge cells which are flagellated and function in feeding by engulfing particles via phagocytosis

Most sponge species are hermaphrodite (each individual has both male and female functions)

A

Sponges are considered animals (Metazoa) but lack true tissues: true

Sponges have a gastrovascular cavity where digestion takes place: false

Choanocytes are sponge cells which are flagellated and function in feeding by engulfing particles via phagocytosis: true

Most sponge species are hermaphrodite (each individual has both male and female functions): true

186
Q

Mark each statement about sponges as T/F.

they are filter feeders

they undergo gastrulation and are the simplest diploblastic animals

they are the earliest animals to have nerve cells

they exhibit bilateral symmetry as adults

A

they are filter feeders true

they undergo gastrulation and are the simplest diploblastic animals: false

they are the earliest animals to have nerve cells:false

they exhibit bilateral symmetry as adults :false

187
Q

Jellyfish like the ones in the image below have ruined many days at the beach because of their stinging tentacles. What statements are TRUE about the Cnidarians shown in this photos?

a. These cnidarian belongs to the Anthozoa clade.
b. They reproduce only parthenogenically
c. They have nematocysts on their tentacles for stinging and paralyzing prey
d. They are diploblastic
e. They have muscles and are capable of coordinated movement

A

c,d,e

188
Q

Select the TWO statements below which are INCORRECT with regards to jellyfish (Cnidaria).

Jellyfish larva (like some adults) are bilaterally symmetric

Compared to sponges, Cnidarians have a more developed nervous and muscular system

Corals belong to the group Anthozoa, Cnidarians that exist only in the polyp form and do not have a medusa stage

Cnidarians are the first group to evolve a flow-through digestive system with mouth and anus

Cnidarians undergo gastrulation and end up with two embryonic layers (they are diploblastic)

A

Jellyfish larva (like some adults) are bilaterally symmetric

Cnidarians are the first group to evolve a flow-through digestive system with mouth and anus

189
Q

Blood flukes (a parasitic trematode flatworm) are a major public health problem in many developing countries. Based on your knowledge of this group, which of the following would be the most effective method of reducing the incidence of a parasitic blood flukes in an impacted human population?

Which of the following statements best explains how planarians (Platyhelminthes flatworms) can survive and thrive without respiratory or circulatory systems?

A

reduce the population of the intermediate snail host

their very flat body form ensures that none of their cells are far removed from the gastrovascular cavity or from the external environment

190
Q

The Lophotrochozoa clade is composed of very diverse organisms. MATCH the group within the Lophotrochozoan clade with the characteristics statement that best defines it.

lack a body cavity (=acoelomate) and do not have a flow-through alimentary canal with mouth & anus

first group with flow through alimentary canal and often reproduce parthenogenically

lophophore feeding and deuterostome development

A

lack a body cavity (=acoelomate) and do not have a flow-through alimentary canal with mouth & anus: flatworms

first group with flow through alimentary canal and often reproduce parthenogenically: rotifers

lophophore feeding and deuterostome development: ectoprocts

191
Q

Which of the following characteristics is shared by both cnidarians and flatworms?

Sexual reproduction leads to increased genetic variation, but one group of invertebrates are notorious for parthenogenic reproduction (females giving birth to more females without sexual contact with a male). In fact, one genus within this group is believed to not have reproduced sexually for over 50 million years! Which group is it?

A

a digestive system with a single opening

Rotifers (Rotifera)

192
Q

Mark each statement about Molluscs as T/F

When snails (Gastropoda) and clams (Bivalvia) outgrow their shell, they abandon the shell and seek out a larger one.

Although they are bilaterally symmetric, clams (Bivalvia) do not have a distinct head. Even so, they do have numerous sensory organs.

Surprisingly, Molluscs are only diploblastic and not triploblastic like the other Locotrochozoans.

Molluscs are a group that has seen very high number of extinctions and is currently considered one of the most severely threatened animal group.

A

When snails (Gastropoda) and clams (Bivalvia) outgrow their shell, they abandon the shell and seek out a larger one.: false

Although they are bilaterally symmetric, clams (Bivalvia) do not have a distinct head. Even so, they do have numerous sensory organs.: true

Surprisingly, Molluscs are only diploblastic and not triploblastic like the other Locotrochozoans.: false

Molluscs are a group that has seen very high number of extinctions and is currently considered one of the most severely threatened animal group.: true

193
Q

Which TWO of the following characteristics do all insects exhibit?

they have an exoskeleton

they have three pair of jointed walking appendages

most are predatory and never feed on plants

they have a primitive endoskeleton

they all undergo complete metamorphosis and have wings at some time in their life

A

hey have an exoskeleton

194
Q

MATCH the following invertebrate taxa with its correct description.

Arthropoda (Arthropods)

Echinodermata (echinoderms

Platyhelminthes (flatworms)

Cnidaria (jellyfish)

A

Arthropoda (Arthropods): exoskeleton of chitin, segmented bodies

Echinodermata (echinoderms): bilateral symmetry as larva, water vascular system

Platyhelminthes (flatworms): dorsoventrally flattened, gastrovascular cavity with one opening

Cnidaria (jellyfish): radial symmetry, medusa and polyp form

195
Q

Insects are among the most diverse groups of organisms on the planet. Select the two factors thought to have most contributed to the diversification of insects during their evolutionary history.

A

Evolution of flight

Increase in plant diversity

196
Q

Which of the following invertebrate groups is most closely related to reptiles?

T/F. This organisms has protostome embryonic development.

A

star fish (Echinodermata)

false

197
Q

In the invertebrate chordates, the pharyngeal slits carried out which of the following functions?

However, in non-tetrapod vertebrates, this structure was exapted to fulfill another function. Which?

A

suspension-feeding devices

respiration or gas exchange

198
Q

Which characteristic(s) is/are NOT characteristics shared by all Chordates.

  1. Milk
  2. Dorsal, hollow nerve cord
  3. Notochord at some stage of life history
  4. Pharyngeal slits/clefts at some stage of life history
  5. Lungs
  6. Muscular, post-anal tail at some stage of life history
A

1,5

199
Q

Mark each statement as T/F.

Lampreys (Petromyzontida) are vertebrates which lack jaws.

The neural crest is a feature found only in 4-legged vertebrates (tetrapods).

Vertebrates are thought to be paraphyletic since most agree that the backbone (vertebral column) evolved separately in various animal groups.

The increasing anatomical complexity and diversity of vertebrates is thought to be related to increasing genetic complexity and increased number of Hox genes.

A

Lampreys (Petromyzontida) are vertebrates which lack jaws.: true

The neural crest is a feature found only in 4-legged vertebrates (tetrapods); false.

Vertebrates are thought to be paraphyletic since most agree that the backbone (vertebral column) evolved separately in various animal groups.: false

The increasing anatomical complexity and diversity of vertebrates is thought to be related to increasing genetic complexity and increased number of Hox genes.: true

200
Q

In a typical ray-finned fish, the swim bladder allows individuals to perform which of the following processes

The swim bladder is thought to be an exaptation (evolutionary modification) of which structure

A

adjust buoyancy

lung

201
Q

Sharks are unusual in that the group exhibits a diversity of developmental mechanisms for their young. Match the term with the appropriate description.

producing young by means of eggs that are hatched after they have been laid by the parent

producing young by means of eggs which are hatched within the body of the parent (but not nourished by the parent)

giving birth to live young that have developed inside the body of the parent and were nourished by the parent during development.

A

producing young by means of eggs that are hatched after they have been laid by the parent: oviparous

producing young by means of eggs which are hatched within the body of the parent (but not nourished by the parent): ovoviviparous

giving birth to live young that have developed inside the body of the parent and were nourished by the parent during development.: viviparous

202
Q

Select the term of phrase that best completes each sentence.

Amphibian eggs

All Tetrapods have all of these characteristics except

The Amphibians include all of these groups except

A

lack a shell and must be laid in wet/moist location

hair

snakes (Squamates)

203
Q

Which of the following extant (currently living) animal groups are directly descended from dinosaurs?

1) lizards
2) crocodiles
3) birds
4) tuataras
5) snakes
6) turtles

A

birds

204
Q

What is believed to be the most significant result of the evolution of the amniotic egg?

Based on what you know, which of the following characteristics are analogous (evolved independently) in mammals and birds and are not homologous characteristics inherited from a common ancestor?

A

Tetrapods are no longer tied to the water for reproduction

endothermy

205
Q

Select the TWO groups of organisms which are amniotes.

hagfish (Petromyzontida)

lobed-fin fish (Acinistia)

turtles (Reptilia)

lion (Mammalia)

amphibians (Amphibia)

A

turtles (Reptilia)

lion (Mammalia)

206
Q

During chordate evolution, which of the following structures arose first blank and which evolved last

A

jaws, milk

207
Q

Imagine you had a complete fossil. Which of the following would best help to determine if the fossil represents a reptile or a mammal?

Which of the following is a derived characteristic of primates?

A

examine teeth

fingerprints

208
Q

Monotremes and marsupials are both unusual mammals. MATCH the characteristics below with the group it applies to

lay eggs

complete embryonic development in a pouch

found only in Australia & New Guinea

found in the Americas (including USA!)

A

lay eggs: monotremes

complete embryonic development in a pouch: marsupials

found only in Australia & New Guinea: monotremes

found in the Americas (including USA!): marsupials

209
Q

What is thought to be the correct sequence of these events, from earliest to most recent, in the evolution of chordates?

  1. Vertebrae
  2. Jaws
  3. Bilateral symmetry
  4. Limbs with digits
  5. Amniotic egg
  6. Notochord
A

3, 6, 1, 2, 4, 5

210
Q

Which of the following structural features of the digestive system of larger animals most improves the efficiency of exchange of energy and materials with the environment?

How can flatworms survive without a circulatory system?

A

more branching or folds in the digestive track

the animals are very thin and their cells are all in contact with the environment

211
Q

In mammals, growth hormone is an endocrine signaling molecule produced by the pituitary gland that stimulates repair and growth of various tissues. Which of the following is required for a tissue to respond to growth hormone?

Compared to the nervous systems, the endocrine system responds more blank The endocrine response is also blank and impacts blank

A

the presence of a growth hormone receptors on the cells of this tissue

slowly, sustained over time, systemic

212
Q

Mark each statement about epithelial tissue as T/F.

Epithelial tissues hold tissues and organs together and in place.

Epithelial tissues are layers that passively protect the organisms from the environment.

Epithelial tissues come in several shapes, including cuboidal (cube-shaped)

Epithelial tissues cells are more closely packed together than connective tissue cells.

A

Epithelial tissues hold tissues and organs together and in place.: false

Epithelial tissues are layers that passively protect the organisms from the environment.: false

Epithelial tissues come in several shapes, including cuboidal (cube-shaped): true

Epithelial tissues cells are more closely packed together than connective tissue cells.: true

213
Q

Match the muscle type with function.

skeletal muscle

smooth muscle

cardiac muscle

A

running, digestion, heartbeat

214
Q

The body’s automatic tendency to maintain a constant and optimal internal environment is termed as

The human organ that serves as the “thermostat” for maintaining thermal homeostasis is

A

homeostasis

hypothalamus

215
Q

The animal that best characterizes a thermal homeostasis ‘regulator’ is

This animal is a thermal homeostasis ‘conformer’.

The ability of an animals to adjust its homeostatic condition to adjust to changes in the external environment is known as

A

Road runner bird
Tuna fish

acclimatization

216
Q

In a cool environment, an ectotherm is more likely to survive an extended period of food deprivation than would an equally sized endotherm because the ectotherm

The use of brown fat to generate metabolic heat is much more common in small mammals than larger ones. Which characteristic of small mammals created the selective pressure that favored the widespread use of brown fat to generate metabolic heat?

A

invests little energy in temperature regulation

Small mammals have a large surface area to volume ratio, which allows rapid heat loss.

217
Q

Match the definition with the most appropriate term.

utilize internal, metabolic heat to regulate body temperature

regulates gain or loss of heat to/from environment in order to regulate body temperatue

allows body temperature to fluctuate with the environment

maintain relatively constant body temperature

A

endothermic

ectothermics

poikilotherm

homeotherm

218
Q

Which of the following animals most likely uses the largest percentage of its annual energy budget for homeostatic temperature regulation?

Which of the following animals most likely uses the smallest percentage of its annual energy budget for homeostatic temperature regulation?

A

Black bear in Montana

Cave-dwelling snake

219
Q

Which of the following statements is most consistent from the data in the graph relating rates of biomass-specific BMR (rate/kg) to animal size?

T/F. This graph also shows that an elephant will need less food to survive than a harvest mouse.

A

A harvest mouse need to consume more food per kg of tissue than a horse.

false

220
Q

Which of the following would NOT be used as a reliable indicator of an animal’s metabolic rate?

T/F. Activity level (like running) significantly impacts metabolic rate of endotherms but does not alter metabolic rate of ectotherms

A

water consumed during a period of time

false

221
Q

A researcher at Baylor was studying two organisms of approximately the same size (a very cute lizard and a happy squirrel, both weighing about 750g). She was measuring oxygen consumption rate (ml O2/hr) as the measure of metabolic rate. She started with the lizard since she felt it would be easier to keep it quite while measuring the ectotherm’s standard metabolic rate (SMR). She eventually felt confident she had accurately measure the lizard’s SMR and found the average to be 50 ml O2/hr. Based on that result, what might she reasonably expect the basal metabolic rate (BMR) of the squirrel to be?

A

500 ml O2/hr