bio cards part 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

where do the different components of aerobic respiration occur

A

glycolysis - in the cytoplasm

krebs, etc, oxidative phosphorylation - in mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are phospholipid molecules made of?

A

glycerol backbone attached to two fatty acids and a phosphate group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

glycoproteins

A

proteins that contain carbohydrate components. they extend out of the plasma membrane and help out with adhesion and recognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

acetylcholine

A

one of the principal neurotransmitters involved in the transmission of the nerve impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

subunits of ribosomes

A

made up of 40S and 60S subunits with additional proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

endocytosis

A

used to transport materials that are too big for a transport protein from the exterior of a cell to the interior. requires ATP. involves the rearrangement of the cytoskeleton to form vesicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

shape of growth curves of microorganisms

A

sigmoidal - S shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

basic virus facts - common features

A

contain either DNA or RNA, not both. so not have metabolic machinery for ATP production or protein synthesis. Rely on the machinery of their host. unable to reproduce directly. rely on host. have no membranes to regulate entry or exit of material some have a lipid membrane-like outer coat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Facts about fungi

A

eukaryotic typically filamentous, sometimes unicellular filamentous - made of continuous hyphae that form a mycelium have chitin containing cell walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

***correspondence between frequency of recombination and distance between genes on a chromosome

A

one to one correspondence can determine gene order if given frequencies one map unit equals 1% recombination frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how is a lethal in infancy sex-linked recessive gene passed on?

A

carried on x chromosome. only from fathers to daughters and from mothers to both sons and daughters. if it is lethal in infancy, all the sons receiving the gene from their mother will die (because they only have one x chromosome and that comes from their mother)/. males can’t be carriers of the gene because they would die at birth. A female can never be homozygous because she can’t get an allele from her dad. therefore, there will be no female deaths as a result of the allele.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

where is a sex linked recessive gene carried

A

on the x chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how to do a test cross to determine genotype

A

must be able to tell the unknown parental genotype from the gross. if homozygous dominant crossed with homozygous recessive → get 100% phenotypically dominant. hetero dominant with homo recessive → 50% pheno dominant, 50% pheno recessive using a homozygous recessive as testcross allows us to distinguish between genotypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

recombinant chromosomes

A

arise through crossing over of CNA between homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

degree of genetic linkage

A

measure of how far apart two genes are on the same chromosome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the probability of a crossover and exchange happening between two points

A

generally it is directly proportional to the distance between the points. ex. genes that are far apart have higher probability of crossing over than pairs of genes that are close together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

penetrance

A

the percentage of individuals in the population carrying the allele who actually express the phenotype associated with it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

expressivity

A

degree to which the phenotype associated with the genotype is expressed in individuals who carry the gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

incomplete dominance

A

occurs when the phenotype of the heterozygote is an intermediate of the phenotypes and homozygotes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

codominance

A

occurs when multiple alleles exist for a given gene and more than one of them is dominant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

color - blindness genetics

A

sex linked recessive trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

shape for male and female on tree of genetic inheritance

A

female - circle. male - square

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

translocation

A

chromosomal fragment joins with a nonhomologous chromosome, it the fragment joins with its homologous chromosome, the event is called duplication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

digestion in mouth

A

mechanical and chem digestion begins salivary glands produce saliva which has salivary amylase (ptyalin and lipase). salivary amylase digests starch to maltose (disaccharide) tongue forms food into a bolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

digestion in esophagus

A

food moves down esophagus to the stomach via cardiac sphincter by means of peristalsis (smooth muscle contraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

peristalsis

A

smooth muscle contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

digestion in stomach

A

gastric glands make HCl which makes pH of stomach very acidic stomach protected from acid by mucosal lining proteins are digested in stomach by pepsinogen (activated to pepsin by HCl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

chyme

A

mixture of digested proteins and pepsin in stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how do ulcers form

A

when a portion of mucosal lining in stomach is digested and a hole forms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

digestion in small intestine

A

the chyme moves into small intestine via pyloric sphincter. digestion and absorption happen in small intestine produces lipase (lipid digestion), aminopeptidases (for polypeptide digestion), disaccharidases (for digestion of maltose, lactose, and sucrose). secretes secretin - stimulates release of sodium bicarbonate from pancreas lined with villi which increase the surface area for absorption of nutrients into the blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the three sections of the small intestine?

A

duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. most Digestion occurs in the Duodenum. absorptive process mostly happens in the jejunum and ileum Dow Jones Index - to remember order.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

villi

A

line the small intestine. made of capillaries and lacteals - increase surface area for absorption of nutrients into the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the functions of the liver?

A

storage of certain nutrients, detox of chemicals and drugs from the bloodstream formation of urea formation of glycogen from glucose or vice versa depending on body’s needs production of bile which is stored in the gallbladder and secreted into the small intestine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what does bile do?

A

emulsifies fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what does the pancreas do in digestion?

A

secretes pancreatic juices into small intestine that contain hydrolytic enzymes: amylase (starch), trypsin (protein), chymotrypsin (protein), pancreatic lipase (lipids), and sodium bicarbonate. sodium bicarbonate ions neutralize the acidic chyme from the stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what does the large intestine do in digestion?

A

water reabsorption. the e. coli that live in the large intestine produce vitamin K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what does the rectum do in digestion?

A

storage of feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are some properties of maltose?

A

it is a disaccharide and can be hydrolyzed into 2 glucose molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

where does the signal to breathe originate?

A

in the medulla oblongata and travels to the diaphragm via the phrenic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

axial skeleton

A

consists of skull, vertebral columns, and ribcage. basic central framework of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

appendicular skeleton

A

arms, lets, pelvic, and pectoral girdles that are attached to the axial skeleton for stability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

cartilage

A

think pipe cleaners made of chondrin - secreted by cells called chondrocytes. relatively avascular (without blood and lymphatic vessels) not innervated softer and more flexible than bone fetal skeleton has a lot of cartilage - hardens into bone in places on adult bodies that need more flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

types of bone

A

compact, spongy, and cancellous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

spongy bone

A

looks like a sponge, made of bony points called trabeculae (honeycomb) cavities filled with bone marrow (red or yellow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

long bones

A

have cylindrical shafts called diaphyses and dilated ends called epiphyses diaphysis are full of marrow epiphyses has spongy bone core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

epiphyseal plate

A

separates epiphysis and diaphysis cartilaginous structure, site of longitudinal bone growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

periosteum

A

surrounds long bone to protect it as well as serve as site for muscle attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

osteons/Haversian systems

A

structural units of the bony matrix encircle Haversian canal surrounded by concentric circles of bony matrix called lamellae (think tree stump with growth rings) space between lamellae called lacunae - house mature bone cells called osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

canaliculi

A

little canals that allow for exchange of nutrients and waste between them and Haversian canals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

endochondral ossification

A

hardening of cartilage into bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

intramembranous ossification

A

undifferentiated embryonic connective tissue is transformed into and replaced by bone. no cartilage template

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

osteoclasts

A

reabsorb bone - bone ingredients (like Ca and P) are release as ions into the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

osteoblasts

A

build bone using Ca and P obtained from the blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

sacromete

A

basic contractile unit of muscle. put end to end to build myofibrils made of thick and thin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

surround myofibrils - it is a modified endoplasmic reticulum which contains a lot of Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

myocyte

A

muscle cell - may contain many myofibrils. most cells are multinucleate due to fusion of several embryonic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

red and white fibers in muscle

A

red - slow twitch, have high myoglobin content, primarily anaerobic energy white- fast twitch, anaerobic, less myoglobin, contract more rapidly, get tired faster, mitochondria poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

myoglobin

A

protein similar to hemoglobin - binds to oxygen more tightly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

thick filaments

A

organized bundles of myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

thin filaments

A

made up of actin and troponin and tropomyosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Z-lines

A

define boundaries of each sarcomere - responsible for striated look of skeletal and cardiac muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

M-line

A

runs down center of sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

I-band and H-zone

A

I → contains only thin filaments H → contains exclusively thick filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

A-band

A

contains thick filaments in their entirety including any overlap with thin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what happens to the zones, band and lines during contraction?

A

H-zone, I-band, and distance between z-lines all become smaller. A-band’s size remains constant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

functions of the skeletal system

A

protection and support movement (muscles use bones as levers) maintenance of calcium ion homeostasis - when calcium ion concentration in blood decreases, Ca is drawn in from the bones. formation of blood cells (in the bone marrow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is bone made out of

A

organic compounds: proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates. inorganic compounds: calcium, phosphate, hydroxide → form hydroxyapatite crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

osteon

A

Haversian canal plus surrounding lamellae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

red and yellow marrow

A

red - contains stem cells which form blood and immune cells. yellow - used to store fat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

parathyroid hormone

A

raises plasma calcium levels by stimulating calcium release from the bone. also regulate osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

calcitonin

A

lowers blood calcium levels by inhibiting calcium release form bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

osteoblasts

A

produce collagen, which forms bone when mineralized. osteoBlasts - Build bone osteoClasts - Crush bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

osteoclasts

A

involved in bone resorption. activity regulated by osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

types of joints

A

immovable - ex. skull bones → don’t move. partly movable - limited flexibility, usually no cartilage. ex. joint between 2 vertebrae synovial - wide range of movement, lubricated by synovial fluid. ex. hip bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

antagonistic pairs of muscles

A

one muscle in pair contracts, the other relaxes. muscles can only contract, so extension takes place passively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

function of immune system

A

protects the body against foreign cells and foreign substances. also protects against abnormal cells that could turn cancerous.

77
Q

bone marrow and immune system

A

produces cells such as lymphocytes, monocytes, leukocytes, B cells, and T cells

78
Q

what does thymus secrete?

A

secretes thymosin - a hormone that stimulates pre-T cells to mature

79
Q

spleen and immune system

A

storage area for blood. filters blood and lymph.

80
Q

complement immune system

A

series of proteins secreted in the blood that defend against infection in a general manner. complement proteins bind to the surface of many pathogens and attract white blood cells to destroy the infecting cells.

81
Q

neutrophils and macrophages

A

white blood cells that see out and ingest infections agents via phagocytosis

82
Q

interferons

A

released in response to viral infection. stimulate the production of proteins that interfere with viral replication

83
Q

inflammatory response

A

initiated in response to cell damage. injured cells release histamine which causes blood vessels to dilate and increased blood flow to area. often accompanied by a fever which retards bacterial growth.

84
Q

2nd level of immune defense

A

directed against specific pathogens. B and T cells are types of white blood cells that recognize and remove foreign materials

85
Q

B-cell response

A

production of antibodies (humoral response - antibodies circulate through “humors” (fluids) of the body.

86
Q

T-cell response

A

cellular response - involves direct action of T cells.

87
Q

cytotoxic t-cells

A

kill cells that are infected by a pathogen that the T cell recognizes.

88
Q

helper T cells

A

coordinate immune response of other cells against specific antigens through the secretion of lymphokines (signaling molecules)

89
Q

suppressor T cells

A

regulate other T and B cells to decrease their activity

90
Q

where do T and B cells mature?

A

T cells mature in the Thymus. B cells mature in the Bone marrow

91
Q

what do immune cells recognize?

A

specific parts of pathogen (not whole). antigens are foreign substances and they are defended against.

92
Q

antibodies

A

aka immunoglobulins - proteins that recognize and bind to antigens. can attract other cells to phagocytize antigens or cause the antigens to clump together to form big, insoluble complexes that can be removed by phagocytic cells.

93
Q

T-cell receptors

A

antigen recognition proteins found in the membrane of T cells. only recognize antigens that are on the surface of other cells in a specific context. to stimulate a T cell receptor, antigen must be part of MHC found in plasma membrane of cells.

94
Q

MHC (major histocompatibility complex)

A

complex of proteins found in the plasma membrane of cells. class I - proteins are present on the surface of all cells class II - proteins are only present on immune cells including macrophages, B cells, and T cells.

95
Q

what happens o the fragments of a pathogen phagocytized by a macrophage?

A

the pathogen proteins are broken down into short polypeptide fragments that are displayed on the surface of the macrophage via MHC class II proteins

96
Q

interleukins

A

activate cytotoxic T cells to kill infected cells and stimulate B cells to secrete antibodies.

97
Q

plasma cells

A

specialized B cells that produce and secrete antibodies

98
Q

structure of antibodies

A

2heavy chains joined by disulfide bridges to light chains. one end is called the constant region and the other is called the variable region. they bind to antibodies at the variable region sequence of variable regions determines antibody specificity - fold into complex structure that forms the binding site for antigens. variable region contains large number of amino acid sequences, provides vast repertoire of antigen specificity. broad range of variable regions is created during b cell differentiation

99
Q

epitope

A

specific part of the antigen that is recognized by the immune system (ex. bact. cell wall or viral protein coat)

100
Q

immunological memory

A

ability of body to recognize an antigen to which it has previously been exposed. based on memory cells produced during primary immune response

101
Q

memory cells

A

produced during primary immune response. survive for long periods and quickly proliferate if exposed to antigen that caused their creation.

102
Q

active immunity

A

development of antibodies in response to exposure to an antigen

103
Q

vaccination

A

injection of a killed or weakened antigen; immune system mounts an immune response against the antigen and produces memory cells. example of artificially acquired immunity.

104
Q

passive immunity

A

transfer of pre-formed antibodies - happens from mom to fetus. example of naturally acquired immunity. only lasts as long as antibodies remain in the bloodstream.

105
Q

primary function of activated B cells

A

produce antibodies to be secreted. contain a lot of endoplasmic reticulum because they have to produce a lot of secretory proteins.

106
Q

troponin

A

protein making up sarcomeres.

107
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

the endoplasmic reticulum of a muscle cell; envelops microfibrils

108
Q

osteocytes

A

mature osteoblasts that eventually become surrounded by their matrix and whose primary role is bone maintenance

109
Q

chondrocytes

A

cells that secrete chondrin, an elastic matrix that makes up cartilage

110
Q

frequency summation in muscle

A

when a muscle fiber is subjected to very frequent stimuli, the muscle cannot fully relax. the contractions begin to combine, becoming stronger and more prolonged.

111
Q

what is the ossification process that occurs in the skull?

A

intramembranous ossification. mesenchymal cells directly create bone matrix. fills in where the fontanelles were.

112
Q

what is the part of the muscle attached to the stationary bone and the bone that moves during contraction?

A

the origin is attached to the stationary bone. in limbs, this corresponds to the proximal end. the part of the muscle connected to the bone that moves during contraction is call the insertion (distal end in limbs)

113
Q

what is the only type of muscle that is always multinucleated?

A

skeletal muscle.

114
Q

chief cells

A

“chiefs of digestion” in the stomach. secrete pepsinogen which is the zymogen of the protein-hydrolyzing enzyme pepsin.

115
Q

zymogen

A

an inactive enzyme precursor that is converted into an active enzyme

116
Q

parietal cells

A

in stomach. secrete HCl. HCl activates pepsin which is most active in pH 2

117
Q

pyloric glands

A

secrete gastrin in stomach. gastrin is a hormone that induces stomach to secrete more HCl and mix it with the contents of the stomach. This produces chyme which has an increased surface area and makes it easier to the nutrients to be absorbed in the small intestine

118
Q

gastric glands

A

respond to signals from brain activated by sight, taste, and smell of food. composed of mucous cells, chief cells, and parietal cells

119
Q

what is stomach’s primary function?

A

digestion, not absorption.

120
Q

pyloric sphincter

A

food leaves stomach through here o enter the duodenum of the small intestine

121
Q

pancreatic peptidases

A

responsible for protein digestion. includes trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, elastinogen, and carboxypeptidase

122
Q

enterokinase

A

produced by the small intestine → is the master switch. it activates trypsinogen to trypsin which activates other zymogens.

123
Q

lipase

A

hydrolyzes lipids.

124
Q

sucrase

A

secreted by the intestinal glands. hydrolyzes sucrose to glucose and fructose.

125
Q

pH of stomach and small intestine

A

stomach = low pH - acidic small intestine = high pH - basic

126
Q

chylomicrons

A

protein coated droplets of large fatty acids and glycerol combined to form triglycerides, with phosphoglycerides and cholesterol. these are absorbed into tiny lymph vessels within villi called lacteals which lead to the lymphatic system.

127
Q

where do the intestinal capillaries transport nutrients?

A

from the intestines to the liver where they get processed, repackaged, and distributed.

128
Q

erythrocytes

A

red blood cells. produced in red bone marrow, circulate in blood for about 120 days and are then phagocytized by the spleen and liver. disk shaped, lose their membranous organelles during maturation. can’t multiply on their own. anaerobic main role is transport of oxygen to the tissues. use hemoglobin to do this

129
Q

path of cardiac impulse

A

SA node → atria (both contract simultaneously) → AV node (slows conduction to allow for completion of atrial contraction and ventricular filling)→ bundle of His → Purkinje fibers (in the walls of both ventricles)→ ventricles (contract)

130
Q

Bohr effect

A

decreasing the pH in blood decreases hemoglobin’s affinity for O2 . decrease in pH generally happens during heavy exercise when a lot of lactic acid is produced. the decreased affinity for O2 facilitates unloading of O to tissues in need.

131
Q

Circulatory pathway

A

superior vena cava → right atrium→ tricuspid valve → right ventricle → pulmonary valve → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → mitral valve → left ventricle → aortic valve → aorta → body

132
Q

hydrostatic pressure in capillaries

A

osmotic pressure of surrounding tissues remains constant, hydrostatic pressure at the arterial end is greater than the hydrostatic pressure at the venous end of the capillaries. results in fluid moving out of the capillaries at the arterial end and back in at the venous end.

133
Q

cardiac output

A

heart rate*stroke volume

134
Q

pressure in aorta vs. superior vena cava

A

usually 120-80 mmHG in aorta. very low in superior vena cava.

135
Q

how do arteries vs. veins transport blood

A

arteries use the pumping of the heart and the snapping back of their elastic walls to transport blood. venous blood is pumped by skeletal muscle contractions.

136
Q

what is the blood’s most important buffer

A

carbon dioxide produced from metabolism. CO2 combines with water to form bicarbonate.

137
Q

primary function of lymphatic system

A

collect excess interstitial fluid and return it to the circulatory system, maintaining the balance of body fluids. Also absorbs chylomicrons from the small intestine and delivers them to the cardiovascular circulation.

138
Q

how are antibodies produced?

A

by plasma cells derived from B lymphocytes. antibodies recognize and bind to specific antigens, marking them so they can be recognized by phagocytes. They may also cause antigens to agglutinate to facilitate their removal.

139
Q

what does resting membrane potential depend on?

A

the polarization of the neutron at rest is the result of an uneven distribution of ions between the inside and outside of cell. This difference happens by active pumping ot ions in and out of the neuron and the selective permeability of the membrane.

140
Q

myelin in the nervous system

A

white, lipid containing material surrounding axons of many neurons in the central and peripheral nervous systems. produced by glial cells and arranged discontinuously on the axon. gaps between segments of myelin are called nodes of Ranvier. myelin increases conduction velocity by insulation segments of the axon, so membrane only permeable to ions at nodes of Ranvier action potential jumps from node to node

141
Q

saltatory conduction

A

when the action potential jumps from node to node in a neuron.

142
Q

all or none law of action potential

A

whenever the threshold membrane potential is reached, an action potential with a consistent size and duration is produced. neuronal information is coded by the frequency and number of action potentials and not their size

143
Q

functions of the cerebellum

A

helps modulate motor impulses important in maintaining balance, hand-eye coordination, and timing of rapid movements. alcohol affects the cerebellum - person will transiently show signs of cerebellar lesion.

144
Q

how is neuronal information coded?

A

by the frequency and number of action potentials., not the size of the potential. increasing the intensity of the stimulus will increase the action potential. nervous system distinguishes by the frequency of the action potential.

145
Q

sensory neurons

A

bring info from the outside to the nervous system. aka afferent neurons. synapse in the dorsal spine.

146
Q

motor neurons

A

take info from nervous system to effector organs — aka efferent

147
Q

rods in the retina

A

detect low intensity illumination; important in night vision. rhodopsin absorbs one wavelength.

148
Q

rhodopsin

A

rod pigment

149
Q

hyperpolarization in nervous system

A

when the potential across the axon membrane is more negative than the normal resting potential , the neuron is referred to as hyperpolarized. occurs right after an action potential and is caused by too much potassium exiting the neuron.

150
Q

cochlea

A

in the ear. includes the organ of Corti, with specialized sensory cells called hair cells. vibration of the ossicles exerts pressure on the fluid in the cochlea and stimulates the hair cells to transduce pressure into action potentials. action potentials travel via the auditory nerve to the brain for processing.

151
Q

smooth muscle

A

responsible for involuntary action. found in digestive tract, bladder, uterus, blood vessel walls, etc. capable of longer more sustained contractions. can contract without nervous system input

152
Q

skeletal vs. cardiac vs. smooth muscle

A

skeletal: striated, voluntary, somatic innervation, many nuclei per cell, Ca2+ required for contraction cardiac: striated, involuntary, autonomic innervation, 1-2 nuclei per cell, Ca2+ required for contraction smooth: nonstriated, involuntary, autonomic innervation, one nucleus per cell, Ca2+ required for contraction

153
Q

what 6 products does the stomach secrete?

A

H+ - kills microbes, denatures proteins, converts pepsinogen to pepsin. pepsinogen - pepsin partially digests proteins. Mucus - protects mucosa. bicarbonate - protects mucosa. water - dissolves and dilutes digested material. intrinsic factor - required for normal absorption of vitamin B12

154
Q

how are nutrients absorbed

A

absorptive process mostly happens in jejunum and ileum. dimple sugars and amino acids are absorbed by active transport and facilitated diffusion into the epithelial cells lining the gut and move into intestinal capillaries. concentration gradient between capillaries and blood cause nutrients to pass into blood. then they go to the liver. fats also pass through membrane into capillaries. reform into larger fat molecules after they are in the intestinal cells. triglycerides are packed into chylomicrons and enter lymphatic circulation through lacteals. chylomicrons processed directly into low density lipoprotein and processed by liver into good HDL cholesterol

155
Q

vitamin absorption

A

all are either fat or water soluble vitamins A,D,E, and K are fat soluble they are absorbed with fat water soluble vitamins are absorbed across endothelial cells and go directly into blood plasma.

156
Q

parts of the large intestine

A

cecum- connects large and small intestine, has appendix attached colon - absorbs water and salts - pulls out last bits of nutrients from food rectum- stores poop

157
Q

what are the valves between the atria and ventricles

A

LAB RAT left atrium bicuspid right atrium tricuspid

158
Q

parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems

A

parasympathetic - rest and digest. - slow the heart via the vagus nerve sympathetic - fight or flight. - speed up the heart part of the autonomic nervous system. control the heart

159
Q

components of blood

A

plasma - liquid portion of blood erythrocytes - red blood cells leukocytes- white blood cells platelets - blood clotting

160
Q

B-cells

A

type of lymphocyte that matures in the spleen or lymph nodes. responsible for antibody generation . exposure to an antigen stimulates the B cells to produce many antibodies

161
Q

T-cells

A

type of lymphocyte that matures in the thymus. kill virally infected cells and activate other immune cells

162
Q

ABO system genotypes

A

blood type system - based on 3 alleles for blood type A and B are codominant O is recessive to both genotype for A: IAIA or IAi genotype for B: IBIB or IBi genotype for O: ii

163
Q

universal recipients and donors

A

AB - universal recipients O - universal donors - have no ABO antigens on the surface

164
Q

ABO blood types

A

blood type → antigen in RBC → Antibodies Produced A → A → anti-B B → B → anti-A AB → A and B → none O → none → anti-A and anti-B

165
Q

Rh factor

A

surface protein expressed on red blood cells. Rh+ means individual has the protein on their RBC, Rh- means they don’t. Presence is dominant

166
Q

hemoglobin

A

composed of 4 subunits interaction of subunits changes binding affinity for oxygen quaternary structure.

167
Q

myoglobin

A

globular protein responsible for transferring oxygen from hemoglobin to the muscle cells only one subunit lacks quaternary structure.

168
Q

mast cell

A

releases histamine and other chemicals that promote inflammation

169
Q

granulocyte

A

three cell types with tiny granules in their interior. neutrophil, eosinophil, and basophil. participate in inflammatory response.

170
Q

dendritic cell

A

resents antigen - fragments of protein or other molecules from pathogens or cancer cells to adaptive immune cells which induces cells to attach bearers of the displayed antigens.

171
Q

natural killer cell

A

destroys body’s own cells that have become infected with pathogens. it also goes after cancer cells.

172
Q

anatomy of neuron

A

cell body - soma. include nucleus, ER, and ribosomes. dendrites - structures to receive info. axon hillock - enlargement at beginning of axon - important in action potential. axon - nerve fiber that carries electrical message. insulated by myelin. nodes of Ranvier - breaks in myelin sheath - help signal conduction. synaptic bouton - transmits to next neuron. synaptic cleft - synapse - space between neurons.

173
Q

action potentials

A

to relay info to and from central and peripheral nervous systems. cause the release of neurotransmitters into synaptic cleft. resting membrane potential is maintained between inside and outside cell by Na+/K+ ATPase neuron can receive inhibitory or excitatory input to inhibit or cause an action potential voltage gated-ion channels open when action potential is started. Na+ move first and the channels close when the membrane potential reaches +35 mV. then K+ moves down gradient and a negative gradient is created again. the impulse is propagated down the axon with NA+ channels opening and closing in relation to K+ channels signal hops from node to node

174
Q

neurotransmitters and synapses

A

neurotransmitters are stored at the nerve terminal in vesicles. when an action potential comes, the terminal membrane is depolarized and the neuron will fuse with the presynaptic terminal and release the neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft. the molecules diffuse across the cleft and bind to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. this passes a message from one neuron to the next

175
Q

afferent neurons

A

sensory neurons. carry info from the periphery to the brain or spinal cord

176
Q

efferent neurons

A

motor neurons. work in opposite direction of afferent. carry info from brain to periphery.

177
Q

nerves

A

bundles of axons. can be sensory, motor, or mixed.

178
Q

white and gray matter in brain

A

white - unmyelinated axons. gray- unmyelinated cell bodies and dendrites.

179
Q

forebrain

A

telencephalon- two hemispheres, each has frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal lobes. diencephalon - inside telencephalon

180
Q

cerebral cortex

A

in forebrain. responsible for highest level functioning including creative thought and future planning. integrates sensory movement info and controls movement

181
Q

diencephalon

A

contains thalamus and hypothalamus. all ascending sensory info is passed through the thalamus before being relayed to cortex

182
Q

midbrain

A

relay point between peripheral structures and forebrain.

183
Q

hindbrain

A

responsible for many involuntary functions (ex. respiration). made up of cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblongata (together = brain stem) makes sure motor signal matches sensory info from body.

184
Q

somatic nervous system

A

responsible for voluntary movement. provides us with reflexes. do not require input or integration from brain to function

185
Q

monosynaptic reflex

A

ex. knee-jerk reflex. helps protect patellar tendon. single synapse between sensory neuron that received info and motor neuron that responds.

186
Q

polysynaptic

A

at least one interneuron between sensory and motor neuron. ex. withdrawal reflex.

187
Q

autonomic nervous system

A

“automatic” requires no conscious control. 1st neuron - preganglionic neuron, 2nd - postganglionic neuron.

188
Q

photoreceptors in the eye

A

rods - responsible for transmission of black and white images - respond to low intensity light cones - manage color images. 3 types of cones, one absorbs red, green, or blue.