Bio/Biochem Flashcards

1
Q

Prokaryotes vs. Eukaryotes

A

Prokaryotes do NOT have membrane-bound organelles (such as ER, nucleus, etc). However, both Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes have a cell membrane and for some, a cell wall.

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2
Q

Describe the steps of reverse transcription

A

In reverse transcription: 1) single stranded RNA is used as a template to generate a complementary DNA strand. This step requires a RNA-dependent DNA Polymerase. 2) There is temporarily an RNA-DNA double helix, but the RNA strand is degraded, and the DNA strand is used as a template to generate a complementary DNA strand to form a DNA double helix. This step requires a DNA-dependent DNA Polymerase.

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3
Q

Megakaryocytes

A

Large bone marrow cells with a large nucleus that are responsible for the production of platelets necessary for normal blood clotting.

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4
Q

What is a key difference between viral genetics and eukaryotic genetics?

A

Viruses are NOT diploid, meaning they have ONE copy of a gene/allele.

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5
Q

What is the “fluid mosaic” model referring to

A

The fluid mosaic model is referring to two specific properties of the plasma membrane: 1) “Fluid” is the ability of certain molecules to travel laterally within the bilayer. 2) “Mosaic” refers to the presence of proteins and lipids/ other molecules scattered in its structure.

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6
Q

How do double bonds impact fluidity of plasma membrane?

A

More double bonds, more fluid a membrane is due to kinks.

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7
Q

Lytic vs. Lysogenic cycle

A

In the lytic cycle, the bacteriophage actively copies its genetic material, resulting in the lysing of the host cell. While, lysogenic cycle is a dormant stage, where the bacteriophage incorporates its DNA in the host genome to be activated later.

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8
Q

What is the impact of a stimulant, like cocaine, on glucose metabolism?

A

Since a stimulant such as cocaine, stimulates the CNS, it increases glucose metabolism in the brain. This effect is similar to the effect of stress!

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9
Q

Sympatric speciation

A

When reproductive isolation occurs without physical barriers

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10
Q

Allopatric speciation

A

When physical barriers cause reproductive isolation

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11
Q

Genetic bottleneck

A

When a reduction in the gene pool diversity occurs due a REDUCTION in population SIZE

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12
Q

Non-sense vs. missense mutation

A

Non-sense mutation occurs due to a premature STOP codon (UAG, UGA, UAA). Missense mutation is when one amino acid replaces another.

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13
Q

Adaptive radiation

A

When distinct species that play distinct ecological roles arise from a single ancestor

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14
Q

Five conditions of Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium

A
  1. Large breeding population
  2. Random mating
  3. No immigration
  4. No mutations that change overall allele frequencies
  5. No natural selection
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15
Q

What direction does water move towards in osmosis?

A

Water moves towards greater osmotic pressure

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16
Q

Function of the Loop of Henle

A

Loop of Henle is a structure of nephrons (filtering cells in the kidney) that rely on Sodium pump to reabsorb sodium ions and make concentrated urine.

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17
Q

What Histone proteins are present in human nucleosomes?

A

H1, H2A, H3, and H4 are histones present in human nucleosomes. However, H1 is outside the bead structure of histones, because their role is to hold the DNA in place & provide stability for the structure.

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18
Q

What is the difference between Chromatin and nucleosomes?

A

Nucleosomes refers to the DNA-Histone subunits, while Chromatin is fully-packaged DNA.

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19
Q

How are euchromatin and heterochromatin viewed under a light microscope?

A

The lightly-packaged euchromatin is viewed lighter under a light microscope, while the more condensed heterochromatin is viewed darker.

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20
Q

What is the shape of a rate vs. pH graph for enzymes?

A

Parabolic- indicated that enzyme activity is optimal at a certain pH, but once the optimal pH is surpassed, the enzyme declines in function.

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21
Q

How is urea formed?

A

Urea is formed through amino acid metabolism. An enzyme called aminotransferase, replaces the amine group with a carboxyl or carbonyl group, and the free amine group becomes ammonia (NH3). Ammonia is a toxic metabolite that the liver and kidneys transfer to urea (CH4N2O) through combining it with CO2.

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22
Q

What direction do charged AAs travel in an isoelectric gel?

A

Positively charged AAs move towards cathode, while negatively charged AAs move towards anode.

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23
Q

Homologous Structures

A

Evolved from a common ancestor but now serve a different function (Ex: forelimbs of mammals such as humans, walruses, bats)

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24
Q

Analogous structure

A

Evolved individually but serve similar functions (Ex: wings of insects and bats)

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25
Q

What is the function of many plasma proteins in blood buffering?

A

Proteins with acidic or basic side chains can serve as Bronsted-Lowry bases and acids, absorbing or releasing protons, reducing shifts in pH.

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26
Q

What does Cholesterol do to plasma membrane at physiological temperature?

A

Similar to at high temperatures, increasing cholesterol at physiological temperature increases membrane rigidity.

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27
Q

How does glycolysis in cancerous cells differ than normal cells?

A

Cancer cells have a higher rate of glycolysis in comparison to normal cells because they require more energy to proliferate uncontrollably.

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28
Q

Why does a decrease in the number of alveoli in the lungs lead to respiratory distress?

A

The reduction in surface area in the lungs due to the reduction of alveoli reduces the rate at which O2 and CO2 can diffuse through lunch epithelium.

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29
Q

What biological processes process quicker due to surface area?

A
  1. Large number of alveolar sacs in the lungs.
  2. Presence of microvilli in the small intestine.
  3. Folding of the inner mitochondrial membrane.
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30
Q

When given a single-stranded DNA, how will the percent composition of the complementary bases differ from double stranded DNA?

A

In a single-stranded DNA, the complementary bases would not have equal % composition.

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31
Q

What happens when there is a deficiency in fatty acid catabolism (break down)?

A

There will be an abundance of fatty acids in our system, and less fatty acids can be broken down for energy production, so glucose is relied on for energy production –> less glucose in the blood because more is broken down. At a systematic level, since fatty acids are not broken down, they are stored in the liver and adipose tissue, likely leading to fatty liver disease.

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32
Q

What happens when Insulin is administered or injected into the bloodstream?

A

Think of insulin as causing the body to build up large molecules (glycogen and lipids) to store energy. Therefore, if there is enough blood sugar, then insulin would promote glycogen storage, or storage of energy in the form of lipids.

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33
Q

What is the function of Troponin?

A

Troponin is a complex of three proteins (Troponin I, C, and T) and is required for contraction of skeletal and cardiac muscles.

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34
Q

What travels towards the anode and cathode in electrophoresis?

A

The anode is positive, so negatively charged residues would migrate towards it. The cathode is negative, so positively charged residues would migrate towards it.

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35
Q

Difference between single & double-crossover events

A

In a double-crossover event, the arms of homologous chromosomes cross twice, so it involves the middle section of chromosomal arms. While single-crossover only occurs once, so it only involves the ends of chromosomal arms.

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36
Q

Why are mitochondrial diseases only inherited maternally?

A

Mitochondrial diseases are always a result of the child inheriting mitochondria from the ova (female gamete). In a fertilized egg, the mitochondria of ova predominate due to their much larger numbers compared to the mitochondria of sperm. Sperm mitochondria are also associated with ubiquitin protein which causes them to be targeted for destruction post-fertilization.

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37
Q

What is the function of aldosterone?

A

Aldosterone, released by the adrenal cortex, is released in response to low blood pressure. Its primary function is to increase sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule and collecting duct

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38
Q

What is internalization in the context of biological systems?

A

Internalization implies that it is NOT expressed on the cell membrane.

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39
Q

Which amino acids are most susceptible to phosphorylation?

A

The amino acids most prone to phsophorylation are Serine (S), Tyrosine (Y), Threonine (T) due to the presence of an OH group.

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40
Q

What does phosphomimetic mean?

A

Mimics a phosphate group, so think negatively charged at physiological pH.

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41
Q

Difference between innate and adaptive immunity

A

The innate immune system is characterized by inflammation that serves as a general response to injection or injury. Adaptive immune system protects against specific pathogens that the body has been exposed to prior.

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42
Q

Totipotent stem cells

A

Stem cells that are capable of differentiating into all embryonic and adult lineages. (Ex: Zygote)

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43
Q

Pluripotent stem cells

A

Able to differentiate into all three of the basic embryonic body layers (ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm) (Ex: Embryonic stem cells)

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44
Q

Multipotent stem cells

A

Stem cells able to differentiate into multiple specialized cell types in a specific tissue or organ. (Ex: Mesenchymal stem cells)

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45
Q

What results can be inferred from a cross-sectional study?

A

Cross-sectional studies are observational studies at a single point in time. Only causal relationships can be concluded.

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46
Q

What results can be inferred from an experimental study?

A

Causal relationships can be inferred if experimental study is well controlled.

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47
Q

What happens in paralyzed patients?

A

The pathway is not intact and efferent signaling is interrupted. This occurs if spinal cord transection occurred (cutting and nerve damage)

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48
Q

What happens in spinal cord injuries?

A

The motor cortex is still intact so muscles can still move

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49
Q

What is the pathway from Central Nervous to peripheral?

A

Cerebral cortex –> spinal cord –> motor neurons (efferent neurons) –> skeletal muscle cells

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50
Q

Guanine Structure

A

Purine = 2 rings

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51
Q

Adenine Structure

A

Purine = 2 rings

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52
Q

Cytosine Structure

A

Pyrimidine = 1 ring

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53
Q

Thymine Structure

A

Pyrimidine = 1 ring

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54
Q

Uracil Structure

A

Pyrimidine = 1 ring

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55
Q

Apoenzyme

A

An enzyme that is devoid of its necessary cofactors and is catalytically inactive

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56
Q

Enzyme responsible for the last step of Glycolysis

A

Converting PEP to pyruvate is done by Pyruvate Kinase

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57
Q

What step of Citric Acid produces GTP

A

Conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinate

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58
Q

How do you determine a reversible step when given Gibbs Free Energy?

A

The reaction with an absolute value closest to 0 is considered reversible

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59
Q

Complex II in ETC

A

Only complex that does NOT contribute to proton gradient. Primary function is to oxidize FADH2 and reduce ubiquinone. Hypothesized to reduce production of reactive oxygen species

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60
Q

Ubiquinone or Coenzyme Q (CoQ)

A

Serves as mobile electron carrier, facilitating the transfer of electrons to Complex III & helps facilitate proton pumping, contributing to the gradient by pumping 4 protons into inter- membrane space

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61
Q

Why are diseases associated with splicing so rare?

A

Splicing is critical for survival, so mutations in core splicing machinery do not allow development of an organism

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62
Q

Relationship between Prokaryotic RNA polymerases and human DNA

A

Prokaryotic RNA Polymerases can transcribe human DNA

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63
Q

Acidosis

A

When blood pH is below a 7.35

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64
Q

Alkalosis or Alkaline

A

When blood pH is above a 7.45

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65
Q

What happens when people hyperventilate?

A

Respiratory rate increases, so more CO2 is blown off, making the blood more alkaline. Breathing into a bag and re-breathing the air helps some of that CO2 return in your system

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66
Q

Adrenal Medulla

A

Located on top of each kidney. Produces amino-acid derived hormones, norepinephrine and epinephrine

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67
Q

Adrenal Cortex

A

Located on the outer parts of the adrenal medulla. Produces corticosteroids, which are involved in stress response and circadian Rhythm,

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68
Q

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

A

Regulates fluid homeostasis

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69
Q

Which part of the endocrine system releases Oxytocin?

A

Posterior pituitary gland

70
Q

Posterior Pituitary Gland

A

Secretes oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

71
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin

A

Regulates water balance by increasing water retention when blood osmolarity is too high or blood volume is low. Reduces blood osmolarity & increases blood pressure

72
Q

High osmolarity

A

High salt concentration

73
Q

Which organelles are involved in peptide hormone synthesis?

A

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum & Golgi apparatus (for modifications)

74
Q

Aldosterone function

A

When blood pressure drop is detected, special cells in Juxtaglomerular apparatus of the distal tubule secretes renin –> Renin triggers angiotensin I, II, and III –> Causes adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone –> increase membrane proteins absorbing sodium and secreting potassium

75
Q

Uvula

A

Works with the soft palate to prevent backflow of food and liquid into nasal cavity

76
Q

Epiglottis

A

A cartilage flap that shields the larynx from entrance of food and liquid when someone swallows

77
Q

Residual Volume in Respiration

A

The minimum volume of lungs under maximum intrapleural pressure

78
Q

Find the difference between the minimum and maximum lung volume for an individual with a given weight

A

subtract the given minimum volume in mL/kg from the maximum volume (mL/kg) and multiply that by the weight to get an answer in volume (mL)

79
Q

Interphase

A

Includes G0, G1, S, and G2 phase prior to Mitosis/ Meiosis (M Phase)

80
Q

Directionality of peptide

A

N terminus to C terminus. If a residue is labeled in chronological order, the smaller number is closer to the N terminus or the “beginning” of a peptide

81
Q

Characteristic of anomers

A

Anomers are a form of epimers which are diastereomers because they differ at one stereocenter only

82
Q

What component of the ETC is reduced and never oxidized?

A

Oxygen is reduced to H2O at the end of the ETC. Remember, O2 is an oxidizing agent so it is unlikely for it to be oxidized itself

83
Q

Suicide Inhibitor

A

When an inhibitor binds irreversibly to an enzyme via covalent bonding

84
Q

Competitive Enzyme Inhibitor

A

Decreases reaction rate by binding to the active site and preventing the substrate to bind

85
Q

Noncompetitive Enzyme Inhibitor

A

Decreases reaction rate by binding to enzyme and altering the structure of its active site

86
Q

Homotropic Regulation

A

A type of allosteric regulation when the binding of one molecule affects enzyme activity and binding of other substrate binding

87
Q

Eicosanoids

A

A large family of lipids derived from arachidonic acid. Examples of Eicosanoids include prostaglandins, which is a signaling molecule that plays a role in inflammation & thromboxanes involved in clotting cascade

88
Q

Vmax in Michaelis-Menten Curve

A

The maximum rate of the reaction when the enzyme is saturated with a substrate. Remember: an answer cannot exceed the Vmax!

89
Q

Do bacterial cells contain introns?

A

Majority of bacterial cells DO NOT contain introns

90
Q

A structure within the cell membrane that is similar to gap junctions

A

Transmembrane proteins (usually glycoproteins) since they pass through the membrane and facilitate transport

91
Q

Allosteric Inhibition

A

When an inhibitor binds to an enzyme covalently but NOT at the active site. Usually if the inhibitor and substrate have very different structures they may be an allosteric inhibitor

92
Q

End product of Meiosis I

A

2 haploid cells with 23 chromosomes that go on to produce gametes

93
Q

Competitive Inhibitors effect on Vmax and Km

A

Competitive inhibitors increase Km while Vmax remains unchanged. In a Line-Weaver Burk plot, the X-axis is -1/Km, so as Km increases it will get closer to 0

94
Q

Which embryonic layer is the nervous system derived from?

A

Ectoderm

95
Q

What is the difference between fetal hemoglobin and adult hemoglobin?

A

Fetal hemoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin. For that reason, it is used as a potential treatment for sickle-cell disease

96
Q

Follicular Phase in Ovarian Cycle

A

Overlaps with the menses and proliferative phase in uterine cycle. This phase is when the follicle matures to an ova

97
Q

When are LH and FSH levels increased during female reproductive cycle

A

FSH and LH are increased in the middle of the ovarian cycle

98
Q

Broca’s Area

A

Area of the brain responsible for speech formation

99
Q

Wernicke’s Area

A

Area of the brain responsible for speech comprehension

100
Q

Result of damage to the arcuate fasciculus area of the brain

A

Inability to repeat words heard but spontaneous word production is intact

101
Q

Superior Temporal Gyrus

A

Area of the brain where Wernicke’s Area is located

102
Q

Hinge Joints

A

Allows for movement in only one plane (Ex: joints in the elbow)

103
Q

Gliding Joints

A

Common at the junction between flat bones and allow the bones to slide past one another (Ex: synovial joints between vertebrae in spinal column)

104
Q

Ball and Socket Joint

A

Permits the greatest range of motion and allows for 360 degrees of rotation sometimes (Ex: Hips and shoulders)

105
Q

Saddle Joint

A

Formed between reciprocal concave and convex bones (Ex: Joints in the Thumb)

106
Q

Which lipoprotein has the highest lipid to protein content?

A

“Very low density lipoprotein” (VLDL) and Chylomicron

107
Q

Journey of newly synthesized Chylomicron

A

intestinal epithelium –> lacteals –> lymphatic vessels –> adipose tissue –> liver where their remains are recycled

108
Q

Lacteals

A

Blood vessels that drain into the lymphatic system. When chylomicrons are newly synthesized in the small intestine, they enter lacteals

109
Q

What reaction cleaves disulfide bonds?

A

Reduction reactions

110
Q

Functions of lipids

A

1) Store energy
2) Serve as precursor for hormones (cholesterol)
3) Insulate
4) Generate heat

111
Q

Where is sperm produced?

A

Seminiferous tubules

112
Q

Epididymis

A

After it’s produced in the seminiferous tubules, sperm is developed and gains motility in the epididymis.

113
Q

Pathway of sperm through male reproductive system

A

seminiferous tubules –> epididymis –> vas deferens –> ejaculatory duct –> urethra –> penis.

114
Q

What type of cells are ovarian cells?

A

Epithelial cells

115
Q

Dissociation constant (Kd)

A

A measurement of affinity between two biomolecules. Lower Kd corresponds to higher affinity

116
Q

Phosphodiester bonds

A

Link adjacent nucleotides in DNA

117
Q

Uncompetitive inhibitors

A

Reduce BOTH Km and Vmax. Uncompetitive inhibitors only bind target enzymes when the substrate binds to the enzyme first

118
Q

How are Lactones formed?

A

Via intramolecular nucleophilic attack

119
Q

Functions of NADPH

A

1) Involved in biosynthesis of lipids & cholesterol
2) Production of bactericidal bleach in lysosomes of some white blood cells
3) Maintenance of supply of reduced Glutathione for protection against free radical damage

120
Q

What is unique about the inner mitochondrial membrane?

A

It lacks cholesterol

121
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Specialized cells that form new bones & add growth to existing bones by absorbing excess calcium in the bloodstream

122
Q

Osteoclasts

A

Specialized cells that dissolve damaged bones so osteoblasts can make new bones. INCREASE Calcium levels in bloodstream

123
Q

What is the role of Calcitonin?

A

“Tones down” blood calcium levels by activating osteoblasts

124
Q

What is derived from the neural tube during neurulation?

A

The brain, spinal cord, and neural crest cells (which become neurons, pigment cells, etc)

125
Q

Where are MOTILE cilia found?

A

In the uterine lining (helps egg move through fallopian tube) and trachea

126
Q

Where is the 5’ and 3’ located on a single nucleotide?

A

The 5’ end is the 5th carbon of the pentose sugar that is linked to phosphate group via phosphodiester bonds. 3’ end is the 3rd carbon bound to hydroxyl group which would participate in a phosphodiester bond when linked to another nucleotide

127
Q

How do phosphatases remove phosphate groups?

A

Via hydrolysis, so they are a subset of hydrolases

128
Q

Characteristic of Cytochrome C in ETC

A

Highly water-soluble (polar) protein

129
Q

What other hormones, beside, glucagon, increase blood glucose levels?

A

Cortisol & Epinephrine

130
Q

Effects of Aldosterone secretion

A

When Aldoesterone is released from adrenal cortex, it triggers the reabsorption of Na+ ions and H2O into the bloodstream. To stabilize K+/Na+, as Na+ is reabsorbed into the bloodstream, K+ decreases.

131
Q

Post-translational modifications

A

Ubiquitination, glycosylation, phosphorylation and methylation

132
Q

Post-transcriptional modifications

A

Capping, polyadenylation (Poly-A tail), splicing

133
Q

What interactions are responsible for secondary structures of proteins?

A

Hydrogen bonding between amino acid back bones. Side chain interactions are responsible for tertiary and quaternary structures

134
Q

Passive immunity

A

The transfer of humoral immunity in the form of ready-made antibodies from one individual to another (Ex: mother to fetus)

135
Q

Microtubule depolymerization

A

Responsible for separating chromosomes during Anaphase in mitosis and Meiosis I and II

136
Q

How do you determine the efficiency of an enzyme?

A

Kcat/Km, where Vmax = kcat[Enzyme]

137
Q

Which enzyme breaks down glycogen to glucose?

A

Glycogen Phosphorylase

138
Q

What are the glycosidic bonds between glucose monosaccharides in glycogen?

A

alpha (1-4) linearly and alpha (1,6) branched

139
Q

How is Tm or melting temperature defined for nucleotides specifically?

A

Melting temperature for nucleotides is the temperature at which 50% of the DNA is unfolded into a single strand

140
Q

Degeneracy or Degenerate Codon

A

Refers to more than one codon coding for the same amino acid

141
Q

What metabolic pathways can happen in the presence and absence of oxygen?

A

Glycolysis & Gluconeogenesis

142
Q

Characteristics of Skeletal muscle cells

A

Multi-nucleated, striated, and voluntary (bones and cartilage, also include the upper third of the esophagus and the pharynx)

143
Q

Characteristic of cardiac muscle cells

A

Mono-nucleated, striated, and involuntary

144
Q

Characteristic of smooth muscle cells

A

Mono-nucleated, unstriated and involuntary (Visceral organs like stomach)

145
Q

Why is the fetal circulation designed the way it is?

A

To bypass the fetal lungs

146
Q

Adult vs. fetal circulation

A

The right side of the fetal heart is more pressurized than the left side during prenatal development, allowing oxygenated blood to shunt from pulmonary circulation to systematic circulation through foramen ovale & ductus arteriosus

147
Q

What direction is the template strand read in by DNA Polymerase?

A

3’ to 5’

148
Q

What is the “sense” strand?

A

The coding strand, so the mRNA sequence would be identical in direction and bases, with the exception of Uracil instead of Thymine. Antisense is the opposite in direction

149
Q

DNA Polymerase Exonuclease Activity

A

Proofreading mechanism done by DNA polymerase, where it can replace mismatched bases in the 3’ to 5’ direction

150
Q

Polygenic

A

A gene whose individual effect is too small to be observed, but can act together with others to produce an observable variation (Ex: Group of 5 ADH enzymes)

151
Q

Polycistronic

A

When a single mRNA can encode more than one polypeptide separately within same RNA (Characteristic of bacterial genome)

152
Q

How does test-crossing in genotyping work?

A

To determine the organism with a dominant phenotype, you cross it with an organism that is homozygous recessive for allele of interest

153
Q

Facultative aerobe

A

Can use oxygen as final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration & can survive in anaerobic environment

154
Q

Obligate aerobe

A

Requires oxygen to survive

155
Q

Obligate anaerobe

A

Cannot survive in the presence of oxygen

156
Q

Facultative anaerobe

A

Can survive in the presence of oxygen but cannot undergo aerobic respiration

157
Q

What ion channels are responsible for maintaining resting membrane potential?

A

Ungated or leakage ion channels

158
Q

How do Chylomicrons and VLDLs differ?

A

Both transport triacylglycerol & contain apolipoproteins but Chylomicrons originated in the intestine, while VLDLs originate in liver

159
Q

Role of peptidyl transferase in protein synthesis

A

Catalyzes peptide bonds between amino acids

160
Q

Chaperone proteins

A

Hold together proteins into their tertiary structures

161
Q

Exocrine Glands

A

Glands that secrete molecules (non-hormones) onto the exterior surface of the skin or lungs, stomach, etc (Ex: tears, bile, digestive enzymes)

162
Q

Transamination

A

An amino group is transferred from from an amino acid to a-ketoglutarate to synthesize glutamate

163
Q

Characteristics of Prokaryotes (Bacteria vs. Archaea)

A

Both domains are unicellular, have circular chromosome, reproduce via binary fission, but Archaea does NOT contain cell wall with peptidoglycan

164
Q

Digestive Tract Pathway

A

Mouth –> Esophagus –> Stomach –> Small intestine (duodenum –> jejunam –> ileum) –> Large intestine (cecum –> colon –> rectum)

165
Q

Terpenes

A

Precursors in cholesterol and steroid hormone synthesis

166
Q

Prostaglandins

A

Nonhydrolyzable lipids & a type of eicosanoids involved in localized inflammatory response

167
Q

What happens when inspiratory muscles contract?

A

Inspiratory (inspiration/inhalation) muscle contractions result in negative intrathoracic pressure that results in lung expansion

168
Q

What happens when expiratory muscles contract?

A

Expiratory (exhalation) muscle contractions result in positive intrathoracic pressure

169
Q

Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy

A

Attempts to change negative beliefs/thoughts & maladaptive behaviors

170
Q

Humanistic Therapy

A

An optimistic approach to empower the individual with self-actualization and personal growth

171
Q

Psychoanalytic Therapy

A

Attempts to uncover unconscious conflicts rooted in childhood that impacts behavior