Bio/Biochem Flashcards
1
Q
ethnographic studyThe catabolism of which fuel yields the highest ATP output :
sugar, fatty acids, proteins
A
Fatty acids, because the longer the fatty acid chain, the more ATP
2
Q
What is the product of beta-oxidation
A
NADH
3
Q
Sodium-potassium pump result a higher or lower concentration of sodium outside the cell
A
higher
4
Q
What is the purpose of pentose phosphate pathway
A
to produce NADPH
5
Q
What mutation results in only one incorrect amino acid
A
missense mutation
6
Q
phagocytosis
A
7
Q
endocytosis
A
8
Q
how does glucagon influence our body
A
it increases blood glucose level (hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia)
9
Q
Kinesin vs dyneins
A
Kinesins go toward +, dyneins go towards -
Kinesins go cell interior to cortex
Dyneins go cell periphery to cell interior
10
Q
What is morula in cell divisions
A
a spherical collection of sixteen cells that is the same in sas as the original zygote
11
Q
human flagella vs prokaryotic flagella (is there a difference?)
A
Yes
Human flagella are not composed of flagellin
12
Q
what is the function of regulators in cell cycle?
A
promote cell cycle
13
Q
what is the purpose of digestive enzymes in the acrosomes
A
to dissolve the protective coating on the ovum
14
Q
the renin-angiotensin system regulates blood pressure by stimulating which two mechanisms
A
sodium reabsorption and vasoconstriction
15
Q
operant conditioning
A
humans and animals learn to behave in such a way as to obtain rewards and avoid punishments
16
Q
three stop codons
A
UAA, UAG, UGA
17
Q
what is the function of poly-a tail
A
it regulates the degradation of the transcripts
18
Q
to have a efficient enzyme, you want _ Km and _ Kcat
A
low Km and High Kcat
19
Q
how does enzyme decrease activation energy for biological reactions
A
- Modify the local charge environment
2.Form transient covalent bond - Act as electron donors or receptors
20
Q
transformation vs transduction vs conjugation
A
Transformation is the genetic alteration of bacteria by direct uptake and incorporation of exogenous DNA from their surroundings. On the other hand, transduction is the process by which a virus transfers genetic material from one bacterium to another. Conjugation occur when bacteria transfer between them
21
Q
seminal vesicle dysfunction result in what?
A
reduced fertility
22
Q
order the stages of development from fertilization to organogenesis
A
zygote, morula, blastula, gastrula, neurula
23
Q
tumor suppressor gene function
A
keeps rampant cell proliferation in check
24
Q
silent mutation is most likely found in which base of a codon
A
third base
25
what does downregulation of acetylcholinesterase do?
increase acetylcholine level, which lead to cramps, increased salivation, lacrimation, muscular weakness, paralysis, muscular fasciculation, diarrhea, and blurry vision
Unbalanced acetylcholine level cause Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson's disease
Elevated acetylcholine decrease heart rate, cause hypotension (low blood pressure)
26
Osteoblasts functions
bone formation
27
anterior pituitary gland secretes 7 hormones
follicle -stimulating hormone, luteinizing horomone, adrenocorticotropic horomone, thyroid -stimulating horomone, prolactin, endorphins, and growth hormone
28
Hardy-Weinberg equation
note: the letter represents the frequency
29
what is the function of vasopressin
to regulate blood pressure, blood osmolality, and blood volume. It increases water reabsorption in collecting ducts of nephrons in kidneys
30
ectoderm vs mesoderm vs endoderm
note: mouth is ectoderm
31
antidiuretic hormone function
helps the kidneys control the amount of water and salt in the body
32
Red blood cells are called Erythrocytes. White Blood Cells are called Leucocytes or Leukocytes (T or F)
True
33
metacentric vs telocentric vs acrocentric vs submetacentric
34
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) function
a chemical produced in the brain that causes the kidneys to release less water, decreasing the amount of urine produced
35
what is the function of yellow bone marrow
energy / fat storage
36
more saturated fatty acids make a more fluid solution ( T OR F)
False
37
cholesterol increases/ decreases membrane fluidity depending on various temperature ( T OR F)
T
38
eukaryotic cilla and flagella are composed of what
Microtubules.
Note that prokaryotic flagella are formed from protein flagellin
39
which process would be most affected if an organism lost its ability to synthesize snRNAs?
Post-transcriptional modification
40
Vitamin C is vital for what?
synthesis of collagen.
Low collagen will result in bleeding
41
Sperm and oocyte meet (fertilization) occurs in
Fallopian tube
42
What does parathyroid glands do
Secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH)
A low PTH results in decrease blood calcium level
43
endocrine (one of the four type of cell signaling)'s function
cell communication whereby the signals involve secreted hormones travel through bloodstream
44
senescence meaning in biology
aging
45
aneuploid meaning in fertilization
meaning zyote will have abnormal number of chromosome
46
nondisjunction meaning in cell division
homologous chromosomes improperly separate
47
what's the tip in memorizing afferent vs efferent in neurons
SAME DAVE:
sensory afferent
motor efferent
Dorsal afferent
Ventral efferent
48
ribosomal subunits size comparison bacteria vs eukaryotes
bacteria have 50s and 30s (70s overall), eukaryotes have 60s and 40s (80s overall)
49
action potential graph
50
function of hypothalamus
controlling temperature, hunger, thirst, fatigue
51
amygdala function
fear and stress responses
52
posterior pituitary function
secrete oxytocin (a hormone that's important in child birth) and antidiuretic hormone (which increases reabsorption of water in kidney)
53
poly-a tail added to _ end ; cap added to _ end (before mRNA leaves the nucleus)
poly-a tail added to 3' end ; cap added to 5' end. Cap is added because so it can be recognized by ribosome during translation, and poly-a tail is added to prevent degradation and facilitate the export of mature
54
what is vasodilation
55
the adrenal cortex releases what
aldosterone and cortisol (both steroids)
Note: Aldosterone helps control the balance of water and salts in the kidney by keeping sodium in and releasing potassium from the body. Too much aldosterone can cause high blood pressure and a build-up of fluid in body tissues.
56
gram-negative bacteria vs gram positive bacteria
gram-negative have thinner wall (double membrane tho)
both positive and negative have cell wall
57
ligament connect bone to bone (T OR F)
True
58
ketone function in our body (during starvation)
after starvation, body is producing a large amount of ketones to provide fuel (can promote acidosis)
59
what does increased parathyroid gland activity do ?
increased PTH increases the calcium level in blood, resulting in bone thinning and kidney stone
60
what is the path of sperm from production to ejaculation
seminiferous tubules -- epididymis -- vas deferens -- ejaculatory duct -- urethra -- penis
61
salivary amylase, pepsin, carboxypeptidase (release where?)
salivary amylase released in the oral cavity, while pepsin is released in the stomach, carboxypeptidase made in pancreas and delivered to small intestine
62
Macrophages must undergo rapid actin reorganization during the process of phagocytosis
True
63
What does a protein with low PI value mean in SDS-PAGE
A low PI indicates that it contains many charged residues, making it more likely to be soluble
64
FOr skeletal muscle to relax, the conformation of myosin must change as ATP binds to the myosin head, decreasing its affinity for actin and breaking the cross-bridge between thick and thin filament. Additionally, the Ca2+ concentration in the sarcomere must decrease, returning tropomyosin and troponin to their resting positions
True
65
Sickle-cell anemia vs Normal red blood cell
Sickle cell is jagged, normal red blood cell is smooth.
Sickle cell increases viscosity, which contributes to increase blood pressure (hypertension)
66
Trisomy X vs Monosomy X
Trisomy: xxx
Monosomy: x
67
insulin is an inhibitor of lipolysis
True
68
what does the "induced fit" explained
stabilization of transition state
69
at (-) end of microtubule, depolymerization is prevented by
anchoring of that end to an MTOC (microtubule-organizing center)
70
Dopamine is not a nonpolar steroi or a small gas molecule, therefore, it requires vesicular transport
True
71
Fetal hemoglobin is comprised of two alpha and gamma hemoglobin subunits, whereas adult contain two alpha and beta subunits
True
72
Paracrine - release to neighboring cells
True
73
Autocrine-release to same cell
True
74
Exocrine-through ducts
True
75
More unsaturated=more fluid membrane
True
76
Which pump does not pump protons into the intermembrane space
Complex II
77
during endocytosis, lysosome present in which stage of endosome
late endosome
Note: endosome can transport via endocytosis or golgi to lysosome eventually
78
proton pumping
intermembrane space becomes positive due to protons being pumped into it
79
Which area of renal interstitium has the highest solute concentration
Inner medulla
80
which type of molecules is most likely to be reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule
small, vital biomolecule
81
the binding affinity of hemoglobin for CO is _ than its affinity for O2
Significantly greater
It competes with oxygen by competitive binding
82
fatty acids enter citric acid cycle as
acetyl-CoA
83
Second law of thermodynamic
a spontaneous reaction or cyclic process must yield a net entropy increase
84
TSH is released by what
anterior pituitary
85
Gram positive bacterial characteristic
thick cell wall, no outer membrane
86
increase concentration of glucagon means _ blood sugar levels?
High
87
which molecules regulate blood calcium
1. Dihydroxycholecalciferol
2.calcitonin
3. parathyroid hormone
All
1. Dihydroxycholecalciferol-increase Ca reabsorption
2. calcitonin (respond to high blood calcium) -decrease serum Ca level
3. parathyroid hormone-increase serum calcium level
88
Aldosterone function in kidney
increases sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct
89
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH or vasopressin) function in kidney
increasing water reabsorption for collecting duct
90
Sympatric speciation
when there are no physical barriers preventing any members of a species from mating with another
91
Genetic bottleneck
reduction in the size of a population due to environmental events such as famines, earthquakes
92
Allopathic speciation
speciation that occurs when biological populations become geographically isolated
93
Somatic cells (non reproductive cells) are diploid
True
94
What does 60 % penetrated mean in genetic
Out of those that carry genotype, 60% express it
95
Epinephrine hormone function
fight or flight hormone
96
triglycerides are nonpolar
True
97
Sympathetic system vs parasympathetic system
The sympathetic system controls “fight-or-flight” responses
The parasympathetic system regulates “rest and digest” functions.
98
Epinephrine and Norepinephrine are neurotransmitters used in sympathetic system
True
99
Acetylcholine is used in both CNS and PNS
PNS: it help with "rest and digest" and release Ca+ for muscle movement
CNS: low acetylcholine cause Alzheimers
100
Cortisol, the primary stress hormone, increases sugars (glucose) in the bloodstream
True
101
Respiration system
102
Nearly all post-transcriptional modifications are made in nucleus
True, but modifications to amino acids and proteins are not
103
activation of nociceptors do what?
feel the pain
104
bacteria lack introns
True
105
arrhythmia definition
irregular heartbeat
106
Formaldehyde
107
western plot tell us what
amount of protein expressed
108
RT-PCR tell us what
amount of RNA expressed
109
both tRNA and ribosome are made of RNA
True
110
conjugation (bacteria)
bacterium transfer genetic information to another
111
acetylation promotes gene expression, whereas methylation reduces it
True
112
function of keratin
protein that gives toughness and flexibility to the skin
(it's an intermediate filament)
(callus is formed due to keratin )
113
aminopeptidase which works in the duodenum is slightly basic
True
114
boyle's law in physcis
P and V are inversely related
115
atmospheric pressure at standard
1 atm or 760mmHg
116
Solubility of gas equation
H=c/P
117
enhancer is a section of DNA
True
118
cartilage relies on diffusive rather than direct vascular delivery of nutrients
True
119
chondrocytes
are cells involved in maintaining connective tissues. they grow in teens
120
mRNA and hnRNA (pre-mRNA) are coding moleculs,
whereas microRNAm snoRNA and tRNA are not
True
121
ATP, citrate and NADH inhibit TCA cycle,
whereas AMP, ADP and NAD+ stimulate it
True
122
overstimulate of citric acid cycle result in an increase in CO2 and decreased plasma pH
True
123
during menstruation, estrogen and progesterone levels are low
True
124
prefix "staphylo" mean what
clustered organization
125
endfix "coccus" mean what
circular shape
126
Restrictions endonucleases function
cut DNA at specific sites
(early step of Southern blot)
127
1. somatic nervous system is responsible for voluntary actions
2. autonomic nervous system is responsible for all involuntary actions
True
Both somatic and autonomic fall under peripheral nervous system
128
hybrid vigor, or heterosis
hybrids of domestic dog grow stronger and bigger than their parents
129
three irreversible steps in glycolysis
phosphofructosekinase, hexokinase, pyruvate kinase
130
Amphetamine function
release dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin while simultaneously inhibit their reabsorption.
increasing heart rate and blood pressure, anxiety
131
cortisol function
Cortisol, the primary stress hormone, increases sugars (glucose) in the bloodstream, enhances your brain's use of glucose and increases the availability of substances that repair tissues
132
tight junction vs gap junction vs desmosome
133
autoimmune disease
defense system can't tell the difference between your own cells and foreign cells
134
macrophages must undergo rapid actin reorganization during phagocytosis
True
135
which of the following molecules do not require a channel to pass through:
Testosterone, dopamine, serotonin, glucose
Testosterone
136
sigma factors
initiation factors
137
exhaling/eliminating CO2 result in high blood pH
True
138
What product is produced when 2-hexanol successfully reacts with chromium(III) oxide?
Note: it would be hexanoic acid if it's primary alcohol
139
Although some water is lost through sweat glands at the skin surface, the skin is relatively impermeable to water loss largely due to the cells of
epidermis
(stratum corneum)
140
141
role strain, role conflict, role exit
142
rank the size of four DNA dioxyribonucleotides
G>A>T>C
143
Km is independent from enzyme concentration
True
144
lewis acid vs bronsted acid
Lewis said that acid must not contain a hydrogen ion (H+) or hydroxide ion (OH–) to be classified as an acid. Bronsted said the acid must contain a hydrogen ion (H+) or hydroxide ion (OH–) to be classified as an acid.
145
kinesin vs dynein
kinesin away from nucleus,
dynein towards the nucleus
note: Microtubules are made of alternating α- and β-tubulin subunits
146
waxes have ester groups
True
COOR
147
chaperone protein
Facilities proper protein folding
148
in kidney, collecting duct is the last portion where reabsorption of water and salt can occur
True
149
hydrophobic molecules travel through membrane via simple diffusion
True
150
Blood cells have no DNA
True
151
glucose is a carbohydrate
True
152
The sympathetic nervous system directly inhibits what
The sympathetic nervous system directly inhibits peristalsis (A) and secretion of digestive enzymes (B). It also increases the blood glucose concentration and causes dilation of the blood vessels that supply the deep muscles and internal organs, which aids nutrient delivery (D) to these tissues.
153
The parasympathetic nervous system restores the body to a calm and composed state and prevents it from overworking. The sympathetic nervous system, on the other hand, prepares the body for fight and flight response.
True
154
guanine=purine
uracil=purimidine
TRue
155
epinephrine increwase glycogenolysis and glycolysis
True
156
the anaerobic process that replenishes NAD+ occurs in cytosol
True
157
hormones consist of three 6-ring and one 5 ring does not need second passenger in cell signaling
True
158
fatty acids oxidation
159
Fatty acid oxidation and synthesis occur in which subcellular compartments, respectively
Mitochondrial and cytosol
160
gluconeogenesis vs glycogenolysis
161
heart
162
triacylglycerol is a energy storage lipids
True
163
phosphatase vs phosphorylase
phosphorylase enzymes catalyze the reaction involving the transfer of phosphate groups between compounds, whereas phosphatase enzymes catalyze the reactions involving the removal of a phosphate
164
what muscles are striated
cardiac and skeletal muscles
165
hormone responsible for ovulation
Luteinizing Hormones
166
adrenal cortex vs adrenal medulla
167
Phosphorolysis
Glycogen is cleaved into glucose-1-phosphate subunits by glycogen phosphorylase in a reaction called phosphorolysis.
168
henry's law
169
There are three amino acids that are phosphorylated in eukaryotes
serine (S), threonine (T), and tyrosine (Y)
170
SNOW DROP
171
osmolarity
172
steroid hormones must be transported through the blood bound to specific carrier proteins, but regular hormones don't
True
173
glycosylation
some proteins do not fold correctly unless they are glycosylated
174
A sodium ionophore would collapse the sodium gradient
True
175
lactase is produced in small intestine
True
176
inactive caspase is found in healthy cells
True
177
cytochrome c release or proteolysis release, or caspase release lead to cell death
True
178
excess acetyl coA converted to ketone bodies
True
179
hydroluzable lipids contain ester bonds (such as phospholipids, spingolipids, triacylglycerols)
True
180
Acetyl-CoA, NADPH, and ATP are the reactants needed to generate fatty acid chains during lipid synthesis (occur in cytosol)
True
181
transport / activation of fatty acid
182
potent
ability to infect
(shorter bacteria have higher potent)
183
cartilaginous area in long bones determine if a child is still growing
True
184
peptidoglycan is a major component of bacterial cell wall
True
185
adaptive radiation
one species diverge into different species in one environment overtime
186
glycoysis occur in cytoplasm
True
187
DNA replication occur in S phase
True
188
arteries, veins, capillary all have endothelial cells
True
189
pancreas produces several proteolytic enzymes, such as trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase
True
190
Bile is a fluid that is made and released by the liver and stored in the gallbladder. Bile helps with digestion. It breaks down fats into fatty acids, which can be taken into the body by the digestive tract.
True
191
myelin sheath function
increase rate of conduction for action potential
192
glycolysis vs gluconeogensis
193
which compounds can be used as precursors to sustain the blood glucose level?
Lactate
Oxaloacetate
α-Ketoglutarate
194
pentose phosphate pathway
195
increased inspiration = increase pH
True
196
spleen is part of the lymphatic system and its purpose is to filter blood (kill bacteria) and blood storage
TRue
197
oligondendrocytes myelinate multiple nerves
198
conjugation
is the transfer of genetic information from one bacterial cell to another via direct contact
199
Insulin is a product of pancreatic beta cells (not the liver)
True
200
Bile is produced by liver to help aid in digestion of lipids
True
201
cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum
True
202
bacterial species in large intestine are called?
gut flora
203
prion protein
Misfolded proteins
204
protease will not separate disulfide bond, because it only separate amino acids bonds
True (also known as peptide bond)
205
Epididymis function
Sperm Maturation
206
Bulbourethral (Cowper's) gland
Mucus secretion
207
norepinephrine and epinephrine are released by
released by adrenal medulla, and modulate the metabolism of glycogen, the storage form of glucose.
208
Glucocorticoids are released by what
released by the adrenal cortex act on the liver to stimulate the synthesis of glucose from other molecules (gluconeogenesis) and the breakdown of fats (lipolysis)
209
main function of collecting duct
reabsorption of water
210
skeletal muscles are electrically isolated, whereas cardiac and smooth muscle can transfer action potentials directly to adjacent cells
True
211
The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) is a specialized endoplasmic reticulum in muscle fibers that is responsible for tightly regulating intracellular calcium concentration by sequestering calcium ions during periods of relaxation and releasing them into the cytosol during periods of contraction (in response to action potentials)
True
212
sebaceous glands
a small gland in the skin which secretes a lubricating oily matter (sebum) into the hair follicles to lubricate the skin and hair.
213
Glycolysis and Kreb cycle produce ATP and NADH; fatty acids oxidation produce NADH but not ATP; ETC produce ATP but consume NADH
True
214
coordination of cell differentiation during development is extremely sensitive to the timing of mRNA turnover
True
215
hydrolysis reactions release the gluconeogenic precursors glycerol (from triglycerides) and amino acids (from proteins)
True
216
Glucose to lactate
217
which hormone trigger ovulation
luteinizing hormone
218
Ribosome contain rRNA and protein
True
219
chromosome contain DNA and protein
True
220
The main organ that excretes nitrogenous waste in this system is the kidney
True
221
increased activity of smooth muscle cause vasoconstriction
True
222
Aliphatic amino acids are
nonaromatic, nonpolar, and hydrophobic
223
Ghrelin is a hormone released by cells in the stomach (ie, part of the gut). In a healthy individual, ghrelin is transported via the bloodstream to the brain, where it acts on the hypothalamus to stimulate appetite.
True
(Ghrelin feel hungry, adipocyte feel full)
224
water around hydrophobic = ordered
water around hydrophilic = disoredered
True
so delta S is more positive when disoredered
225
penetrated the walls of the intestine would allow the contents to enter the peritoneal cavity
True
226
ovum is the female gamete that has completed meiosis and contains the haploid number of maternally derived chromosomes
True
This is most analogous to spermatozoa
227
transcription occur in cytoplasm in prokaryotic cell
True
228
glycolysis occur in the cytoplasm
True
229
suppose that CH4 reacts completely with o2 to form CO2 and H2O with a total pressure of 1.2 torr. What is the partial pressure of H2O
0.8
230
ileum is the final section of the small intestine, which is precedes the cecum
True
231
calcitonin is produced by the thyroid gland
True
232
calcitriol is the most active form of vitamin D and stimulates intestinal calcium absorption
Calcitriol enhances calcium absorption into bloodstream
True
233
in response to depolarization, Ca+ is released from sarcoplasmic reticulum
True
234
True
IIa to IIx generally have a greater mitochondrial density
235
telomeres function
protract genome from nucleolytic degradation
236
non reducing gel vs reducing gel
non reducing doesn't split
237
if genes are close together, they have a lower probability of being separated by recombination
True
238
peroxisome is not part of the secretory pathyway, instead, it play important roles in metabolism, reactive oxygen species detoxification, and signaling
True
Whereas lysosome (acidic) is part of the secretory pathway.
239
NADH enters at complex I and FADH2 enters at complex II,
True
So more oxygen consumption for NADH
240
adpative vs innate immune system
Adaptive are specific: consists of B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes
Note: helper t lymphocyte produce signaling molecules called cytokines that activate other cells for immune system
241
the dermis is associated with skin strength and flexibility
True
242
totipotent vs pluripotent vs multipotent
totipotent: give rise to the entire organism
pluripotent: any but placental structure
multipotent: committed to specific lineage
243
glucagon, epinephrine and norepinephrine all can restore glucose concentration
True
244
peripheral nervous system (all neural outside CNS)
True
245
retrovirus use reverse transcriptase: RNA-cDNA-DNA
True
Therefore, same sequence always
246
phosphodiester bonds link adjacent nucleotides in DNA
True
The OH on 3' attacks the phosphate on 5', as DNA is synthesized from 5' to 3'
247
cytochrome functions in the mitochondria inner membrane (electron transport chain)
True
248
Glucagon triggers your liver to convert stored glucose (glycogen) into a usable form and then release it into your bloodstream
True
Know as glycogenolysis (uses Glycogen phosphorylase)
249
During Follicular phase, FSH and LH peaks. During Ovulation phase, Estrogen and progesterone peaks
True
250
glands whose secretions are released onto an exterior body surface are called exocrine glands
True
Tears and bile are both exocrine
251
Proximal convoluted tubule occur before distal (distal tubule happens right before collecting duct);
Cortical of collecting duct occur before medullary of collecting duct (final)
True
252
Na+/K+ ATPase
restoration of the resting potential
three Na+ out and two K+ into
(require atp DUHHHH)
253
hydrophobic molecules pass through the membrane via diffussion
True
254
protein kinase needs phosphorylation to activate
True
255
enzyme functions to change the pH of the environment and alter shape of the substrate so that reaction occurs
True
256
Pericytes
they are important for blood vessel formation, maintenance of the blood–brain barrier, regulation of immune cell entry to the central nervous system (CNS) and control of brain blood flow.
257
Fibroblasts
a type of cell that contributes to the formation of connective tissue. Fibroblasts secrete collagen proteins that help maintain the structural framework of tissues.
258
ACTH, CRGm, cortisol (negative feedback) pathway
CRH is released from the hypothalamus. CRH stimulates the anterior pituitary to release ACTH. ACTH acts on the adrenal cortex to release cortisol and androgens. The increase in cortisol provides a negative feedback system to decrease the amount of CRH released from the hypothalamus.
259
epididymis function
main function of the epididymis is to store the sperms for maturation and transport it to vas deferens.
260
Golgi apparatus
functions as a factory in which proteins received from the ER are further processed and sorted for transport to their eventual destinations: lysosomes, the plasma membrane, or secretion
261
what are the steroid hormones
calcitriol, cortisol, estrogen, and anything that ends of _one
262
adrenal medulla release what
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
263
anterior pituitary release what
FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
Prolactin
Endorphins
Growth
Hormones
264
posterior pituitary release what
Vasopressin and oxytocin
265
posterior pituitary release what
Vasopressin and oxytocin
266
serotonin function
Neurotransmitter for regulation of mood, appetite, and sleep
267
the mineral component of human bone
Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2
so it contains calcium, phosphate, and hydroxyl group
268
slope for the lineweaver plot
Km/Vmax
269
specific activity is a measure of
the enzyme units per milligram of total protein in a solution
270
peptidoglycan is found in cell walls of bacteria
True
271
cardiac muscle cells, nerve cells don't divide. intestinal epithelial cells do proliferate
True
272
ubiquitination
a biological process that requires ATP and serving to rapidly remove unwanted or damaged proteins (targets a protein for degradation by proteasome)
273
schwann cells
myelin-forming cells in the peripheral nervous system
274
in spine, grey matter is composed of unmyelinated cell bodies and dendrites, white matter is composed of myelinated and unmyelinated axons that allow for long distance communication
True
275
astrocytes
maintaining chemical homeostasis of the interstitial space, include regulation of fluid, ion, pH, and neurotransmitters concentration.
barrier for bbb
276
microglia/neuroglia
act as macrophages
277
pathway of communication between presynaptic neuron and postsynaptic neuron
278
lymphatic system function
redistribute fluid in the body
279
parietal cells (in stomach)
produce hydrochloric acid in stomach
280
G cells (in stomach)
produce gastrin, a hormone that regulate secretion of hydrochloric acid by parietal cells
281
chief cells (in stomach)
Produce pepsinogen, activated by low pH. It breaks down polypeptides into smaller peptides
282
ATP synthase function
Facilitate proton flow into the mitochondrial matrix through ATP synthase
283
kinase adds phosphate group
True
Usually involve atp
284
RT-PCR
RTPCR= reverse transcribe already-produced RNA to figure out how much DNA there is;
285
only maternal mitochondria are transmitted to the fetus
True
286
SDS or Urea are often used as denaturing agents in page analysis
True
Note: this is different than reducing gel, where reducing gel only separates disulfide bond
SDS provides a negative charge for all proteins
287
variable expressivity: ability of a single genotype to give rise to multiple phenotype
True
288
Penetrance: proportion of individuals with a genotype who express the corresponding phenotype
True
289
oxygen binding induces a change from T state to the R state
True
290
2,3 BPG (2,3 bisphosphoglycerate) increase oxygen release/ reduce oxygen binding
True
291
hyperventilation=excessive breathing
True
292
Viroid
Unlike virus, it does not have protein coats. Consists of circular single strand of RNA
293
mutase change location of a functional group
True
294
thyroid function
The thyroid gland is responsible for helping to regulate basal metabolism and calcium levels. The thyroid gland secretes calcitonin, synthesized from C-cells, to reduce free calcium levels in the blood.
295
gluconeogenesis vs glycolysis
296
basal body is where flagellum spins(for movement)
True
297
cortical reaction
harden zona pellucida (egg) and prevent polyspermy
298
between complex II and III, ubiquinone is converted to ubiquinol (electron carrier). The ubiquinol will convert back to ubiquinone once electrons are transfered to complex III
True
299
lipase secreted from pancreas which facillitates chemical digestion of fats
True
300
liver synthesizes bile, which is stored in gallbladder, and released into small intestine to aid mechanical digestions of lipids
True
301
stomach secretions chart
302
ribosomal proteins synthesized in the cytoplasm are transported into the nucleolus, where they combine with rRNA to form 40S and 60S ribosomal subunit precursors, which are exported back to cytoplasm
True
303
substances filtered via glomerular capillaries will be found in urine
True
304
internal urethral spincter vs external urethral sphincter
internal urethral sphincter (involuntary) vs external urethral sphincter (voluntary; skeletal muscle))
305
alpha vs beta vs delta cells in endocrine pancreas
alpha: produce glucagon
beta: produce insulin
delta: somatostatin (a hormone that suppress insulin and glucagon release)
306
insulin and glucagon are what hormone
peptide hormone
307
leptin is release by white adipose tissue after appetite to feel full
True
308
all the enzyme classes
309
R-cysteine and S form of other amino acids are L configurations
True
310
specific rotation equation
specific rotation= (observed)/ [(length)x(concentration)]
311
Lytic and Lysogenic Cycle
In the lytic cycle (lytic means death) the bacteriophage will basically inject itself in there and destroy the virus spilling its contents.
In the lysogenic cycle, the bacteriophage will incorporate its genome into the virus.
312
cilia function in respiratory system
create mucus to accumulate - therefore remove inhaled particulates
313
cell cycle
314
increase renin-angiogram tensin system; aldosterone, vasopressin (ADH) all increase blood pressure
True
315
osmotic pressure is the opposite of hydrostatic pressure.
True,
Osmotic pressure increases when solute concentration increases
316
female reproductive system
317
acetylation neutralizes the positive charge on the amino acid
True
318
woman's developing eggs (oocytes) are produced during fetal development. At birth, their maturation is arrested in prohpase I (known as primary oocytes). At puberty, the menstrual cycle begins, and each month a single primary oocyte develops into a secondary oocyte by meiosis up to metaphase II
True
fallopian cillia push fertilized oocyte to uterus
319
B lymphocytes binds foreign antigens, become activated, and divide into many identical cells. Some are short term and some are long term
True
Short term secrete antibodies for immediate immune response. Long term form future rapid
B cells produce antibodies, whereas T cells dont
320
thiol group
321
Proteases are a type of enzyme that catalyze the hydrolysis of peptide bonds in polypeptide chains
True
322
synapsis
ran se ti rong he
(it's required for crossing over to occur)
323
acetylcholine
At the neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine is released via exocytosis from presynaptic motor neurons. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the motor end plate, triggering muscle contraction. Disruption of this process causes skeletal muscle paralysis.
Ach does a lot, for example by binding to nicotinic receptors on muscles cell causes depolarization of the membrane and release of calcium ions from SR. It causes muscles to contract.
324
Both NADH and FADH2 donate two electrons to the electron transport chain,
True
325
Fru-2,6-P2 strongly activates glucose breakdown in glycolysis through allosteric modulation (activation) of phosphofructokinase 1 (PFK-1)
True
326
Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate allosterically activates phosphofructokinase-1 and inhibits fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, which stimulates glycolysis and reduces gluconeogenesis.
True
327
This process is regulated by antidiuretic hormone, which increases the insertion of aquaporins into the plasma membranes of collecting duct epithelial cells
True
328
Inbreeding results in decreased heterozygosity.
True
329
Movement along actin microfilaments occur via myosin motors (not kinesin or dynein)
True
Microtubules are for neurons
330
Irreversible inhibitors form covalent bonds with enzymes and become more potent given sufficient time to react (ie, with preincubation). Reversible inhibitors quickly form noncovalent bonds with target enzymes and do not require much time to achieve their full effect.
True
331
Bacteriophages are viruses that exclusively infect bacterial cells
True
332
Digestive proteolytic enzymes, which hydrolyze polypeptides, are synthesized and secreted from the pancreas, stomach, and small intestine. Cirrhosis of the liver is not expected to affect the secretion of digestive proteolytic enzymes because they are secreted by other tissues.
True
333
Digestive proteolytic enzymes, which hydrolyze polypeptides, are synthesized and secreted from the pancreas, stomach, and small intestine. Cirrhosis of the liver is not expected to affect the secretion of digestive proteolytic enzymes because they are secreted by other tissues.
True
334
CPT1 is an essential enzyme in the carnitine shuttle, transporting fatty acids into the mitochondria for oxidization
True
335
The carboxylases allow the production of new carbon-carbon bonds by introducing HCO3- or CO2 into target molecules.
True
336
riginally bound at the A (amino acid) site to the P (peptide) site and later to the E (exit) site
True
337
liquids and solids never appear in equilibrium expressions
Tue
338
Microglia are phagocytotic innate immune cells specific to the brain
True
339
An amber codon is a stop codon
True
340
osteocytes (bone cells)
True
341
Cell fate is influenced by inductive signaling between cells in the early embryo
True
342
Alzheimer's disease is a progressive neurodegenerative brain disease characterized by the presence of plaques composed largely of amyloid beta proteins and neurofibrillary tangles composed of tau proteins.
True
343
acetylation = break salt bridge = more gene expression
True
344
Only uncompetitive inhibitors bind exclusively to the protein-substrate complex
True
345
Kinetic stable = slow rate (no protease )
Thermodynamic unstable = requires ATP or GTP hydrolysis (nonspontanouse)
True
346
Cofactors are non–amino acid chemical compounds that must bind to certain proteins before those proteins can function. Cofactors can be inorganic (eg, metal ions) or organic (eg, lipoic acid);
True
347
Type 1, type 2a, type 2x muscles
348
During fasting, decreasing blood glucose concentrations cause the pancreas to release glucagon. Glucagon stimulates the breakdown of liver glycogen into glucose
True
349
glycolysis and fermentation reactions occur in the cytoplasm
TRue (cytosol)
350
substrate level phosphorylation
True
351
When the error is at either end of the DNA strand, the DNA backbone is cleaved by exonucleases, whereas endonucleases cleave phosphodiester bondswithin a strand.
True
352
Which series depicts the order in which the precursors of steroid hormones are synthesized?
A. Isoprene → monoterpene → squalene → cholesterol
True
353
Astrocytes, Oligodendrocytes, and ependymal cells are all types of glial cells.
True
354
noncompetitive inhibitors is that they bind the enzyme and the enzyme–substrate complex with the same affinity
True
355
Volumetric flow rate (Q) is the product of cross-sectional area A and flow velocity v:
Q= Av
True
356
Interesting
357
Therefore, the bond angles smaller than 109.5° (ie, ring strain) found in β-lactams cause the carbonyl carbon to be more reactive than it would be in a noncyclic amide.
True
358
Interesting
359
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Phospholipids, like most lipids, are synthesized at the surface of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) before being packaged into vesicles and delivered to the plasma membrane or stored in the cell for future use.
True
360
liposome
361
atp binds at (+) and adp bind at (-) ends of actin
True
362
anything that enters bloodstream from small intestine will make a first pass through portal vein and liver
True
363
type i diabeties are insulin dependent and are autoimmune
True
364
Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells: coat axons in CNS and PNS with mylien. Note that oligodendrocytes secrete myelin, so they myelinate many neurons at once. Schwann cells physically wrap around axons, so a Schwann cell can only wrap around one PNS axon.
True
365
renin production occurs when
lower blood pressure
366
bacteria have no introns
True
367
The question stem asks about attenuation, which is a weakening of the U/S signal.
368
Operators are structures in operons, which are involved in prokaryotic gene expression.
True
369
Heterochromatin is formed from compactly coiled regions, while euchromatin is loosely coiled. Thus, II is less compact than I.
True
370
Heterochromatin is formed from compactly coiled regions, while euchromatin is loosely coiled. Thus, II is less compact than I.
True
371
hepatic
relates to liver
372
skeletal muscle are multinucleated. innervated by the somatic nervous system therefore voluntary stimulated. they appear striated, control skeletal movement, they also contract to propel low pressure venous blood to the heart. smooth muscle, autonomic, uninucleated, can be found in GI, bladder,uterus, respiratory lining, some have myogenic activity meaning they can generate electrical activity without nervous input, they dont appear striated. cardiac (heart lol) its only myogenic but can be modulated by the nervous and endocrine system when needs arrive.
True
373
arteries > arterioles > capillaries > venules > vein
True
374
acetyl CoA is NOT a gluconeogenic precursor
True
375
chondrocyte
cells responsible for cartilage formation. Produce collagen, which is a structural protein that is the most common protein by mass in the human body, and is found in the extrace
376
lactose
glucose + galactose
377
come let's get sun burn
Stratum corneum
stratum lucidum
stratum granulosum
stratum spinosuma
stratum basale
378
MHC I vs MHC II
MHC 1: all nucleoted cells
MHC 2: immune cells
379
True
380
zymogen
an inactive substance which is converted into an enzyme when activated by another enzyme. (usually cleaved the bond to be activated)
381
carcinogenesis definition
cancer formation
382
carcinogenesis definition
cancer formation
383
albumin
transport steroid hormone (hydrophobic) in blood
384
Co2 transport in the blood how
bind to hemoglobin, carried as bicarbonate ion, or dissolute in blood
385
polymorphism
386
thyroid hormone
t3 and t4 regulate (increase) metabolism
387
stearic acid
saturated fatty acid in animals
It is converted into acetyl Co-A (beta oxidation) during long-term fasting,
388
stearic acid
saturated fatty acid in animals
It is converted into acetyl Co-A (beta oxidation) during long-term fasting,
389
cell-mediated adaptive immunity vs humoral adaptive immunity
cell-mediated: by t-cell
humoral: B-lymphocytes
390
uncompetitive inhibitor binds ES complex only
True
391
renin-angiotension system
392
follicles
structures on the ovaries that contain mature eggs
393
luteal phase of mensuration cycle begins with
corpus luteum
394
a spike in the amount of FSH and LH trigger ovulation (between follicular phase and luteal phase)
True
395
induction in biology
The production of an enzyme in response to the presence of a particular compound
396
The interactionist theory proposes that language acquisition is the result of both biological (eg, normal brain development) and environmental/social factors
True
Nativist: would suggest that language is predetermined and can be only learned during critical period
397
cortisol functions as a negative feedback signal by inhibiting the secretion of CRH and ACTH.
True
398
Prostaglandins are nonhydrolyzable, 20-carbon (eicosanoid) lipids involved in autocrine and paracrine signaling. They are derived from arachidonic acid and often help mediate localized inflammatory responses.
True
399
potential and signals in Sarcoplasmic reticulum
ACh binds and opens ligand-gated ion channels in the sarcolemma (the plasma membrane of the muscle cell)
Na+ flows down its electrochemical gradient and into the cell through the channel, resulting in depolarization of the sarcolemma and generation of an action potential that propagates along the muscle fiber in all directions.
At certain locations along the muscle fiber, the sarcolemma burrows deep into the cells, forming a channel known as the transverse (T) tubule, which brings depolarizing current close to the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). The SR is a specialized smooth endoplasmic reticulum responsible for regulating cytosolic Ca2+ levels within the muscle cell.
Action potential propagation through the T tubule ultimately leads to the opening of Ca2+ channels in the SR membrane. Because Ca2+ is more highly concentrated inside the SR than in the cytosol, the opening of these channels results in Ca2+ flowing down its concentration gradient and into the cytosol.
Cytosolic Ca2+ ions then bind to troponin, which allows the actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere to slide across one another. The sliding of the filaments results in shortening of the sarcomere and overall muscle contraction (Choice C).
The Ca2+ channels in the SR membrane close when the depolarizing stimulus ceases. Active transport Ca2+ pumps sequester the Ca2+ back into the SR, which allows the muscle to return to its relaxed state as cytosolic Ca2+ concentration falls (Choice D).
400
types of tissues
401
A glycosidic bond is a bond between the anomeric carbon (ie, the hemiacetal or hemiketal) of a carbohydrate and any other biological molecule
true
402
how does lymphatic system allow to reenter blood?
Lipid droplets are released from the epithelial cells into the interstitial fluid.
Lymph capillaries collect lipid droplets from the interstitial fluid.
Lymph containing the lipid droplets then flows from the capillaries into increasingly larger lymph vessels.
Lymph is then transported into a large tubule structure called a lymph duct, which drains into a large vein near the heart. As a result, the lipid droplets within the lymph enter the bloodstream and circulate throughout the body (Choices A, B, and D).
403
The Tollens test (silver mirror test) is a qualitative test that detects reducing sugars.
True
404
The activity of the chondrocytes producing the cartilage of the growth plate stops when linear growth of long bones is complete
True
405
Neutrophils are important components of the innate (nonspecific) immune system. Neutrophils perform many functions, including the destruction of pathogens via phagocytosis, the release of granules containing antimicrobial compounds, and the release of neutrophil extracellular traps containing DNA. Neutrophils also release cytokines (chemical signals) that regulate different immune responses.
True
406
translation and transcription occur at the same time in prokaryotes
True
407
uncompetitive bind ES,
noncompetitive bind both ES and S
True
408
anterior pituitary contains glandular endocrine, posterior pituitary is from ectodermal neural tissue
True
409
Direct hormones work directly on their target, while tropic hormone work by stimulating/inhibiting some other structure that will have its own endocrine fxn
True
410
The endocrine pancreas secretes hormones involved in regulation of blood glucose into the bloodstream, while the exocrine pancreas secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate into the small intestine to assist in digestive processes and to neutralize the acidity of chyme.
True
411
which amino acid can produce urea
amino acid that has amide group
412
alkaline environment meaning
more basic environment
413
cardiac sphincter vs pyloric sphincter
Cardiac sphincter prevents the backflow of stomach acids and content into the esophagus, while pyloric sphincter controls the release of chyme from the stomach into the duodenum.
414
A protein without its prosthetic group is called an apoprotein, while a protein combined with its prosthetic group is called a holoprotein
TRUE
415
name these structures
FMN, FADH2, Vitamine B12, Heme
416
A negative ∆G° always indicates an equilibrium constant greater than 1, and a positive ∆G° always indicates an equilibrium constant between 0 and 1.
True
417
Because osteocytes are confined to lacunae within a firm matrix in compact bone, signaling molecules released from osteocytes that regulate bone remodeling must travel to their target cells via canaliculi.
True
418
Apoenzymes and holoenzymes are two forms of the same enzyme. In the apo form, the enzyme is not bound to a cofactor and is inactive, whereas the holo form is bound to its cofactor (eg, a metal ion) and is active
True
419
PAGE gel denature proteins
True
Except native gel
420
nephron is where pee is accumulated
True
421
which amino acid can be converted to glucose via gluconeogenesis
All except leucine and lysine
422
phosphorylation is covalent bond
True
423
two types of rna that reduce expression
siRNA and miRNA
siRNA: - Functions in RNA interference (post transcriptional control)
-Binds complementary mRNA and signals for its degradation
miRNA: - Functions in RNA interference
-Binds target complementary sequence on mRNA molecule to silence gene expression
424
hybrid offspring successfully mate with members of either parental species, genetic leakage may occur
true
Genetic leakage is the transfer of genes between different species
425
mitochondria matrix
the very inside of membrane
426
turn-over number in enzyme
kcat
427
Michaelis constant in enzyme
Km
428
how are protein and triglycerides converted to glucose
note: in contrast, fatty acid cannot make glucose
note: lysine and leucine can't not make glucose
note: deamination converts amino acids into pyruvate
429
phosphodiester bond
430
G and C (hydrogen bond doner vs receiver)
G donates 2, accept 1
C donates 1, accept 2
431
5′-3′ exonuclease repair which end
5'
432
ADH increase blood volume and pressure
True
433
The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDHC) catalyzes the decarboxylation of pyruvate to form acetyl-CoA,
True
434
adenylate cyclase
it's in the G protein signaling pathway
435
Glycogen is a branched molecule composed of several linked glucose units. Each incoming unit is linked to the growing chain by a bond between carbon 1 of the incoming glucose and either carbon 4 or carbon 6 of a glucose unit in the growing glycogen chain. α(1→4) linkages are facilitated by glycogen synthase whereas α(1→6) linkages are facilitated by the glycogen branching enzyme.
True
436
glycogenolysis
437
steroids pass blood brain barrier
True
438
boiling point require vapor pressure = atmosphere pressure
True
439
sulfate vs sulfite
SO4(2-) is sulfate
SO3(2-) is sulfite
440
Hybridization is the double-strand formation (or annealing) between two different single strands of DNA or RNA due to base-pairing of complementary regions.
True
441
troponin responsible for muscle contraction in cardiac and skeletal muscle
True
442
beta oxidation (how to count down)
443
pleural pressure decreases during inspiration
True
444
thyroid promotes osteoblast
parathyroid promotes osteoclast
True
445
glycogenolysis
446
glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase is the first step in PPP
True
447
types of muscles
448
Spermatogenesis is a process that occurs in the seminiferous tubules of the testes in which male gametes (sperm) are produced. Spermatogonia undergo meiotic division and become spermatocytes, which then become spermatids when meiosis is completed. Spermatids then mature into spermatozoa (mature sperm) through a series of morphological changes.
True
449
PPP function
produce NADPH and play a role in ribonucleotide synthesis. NADPH (along with ATP) is also used in fatty acid synthesis
450
interphase of cell cycle
consists of G1, S, G2
451
hydrolyzable lipids
triacylglycerols, phospholipids, sphingolipids, and waxes (the ones that contain ester group)
452
Emulsification
Lipid processing begins in the small intestine (duodenum), where bile salts break down lipid globules into smaller droplets in a process called emulsification
note: bile salt is both hydrophilic and hydrophobic
453
thyroid gland produces thyroid hormones which increase metabolism
454
Amino acids are converted to α-keto acids (amino acid carbon skeletons) through transamination reactions.
True
455
Transamination: Occurs when an amino group on an amino acid is "transferred" to a ketoacid. The product of this reaction is nearly always glutamate or aspartate.
True
456
Fragments of DNA that can move between different areas of the genome are called transposons.
True
457
esterification of cholesterol make the molecule go from amphiphathic to hydrophobic
True
458
Oxaloacetate is an α-keto acid, which can serve as a substrate for transamination reactions (transamination converts oxaloacetate into aspartate)
True
459
Helper T-lymphocytes produce signaling molecules called cytokines that activate other cells of the immune system and enhance immune cell activity.
Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes cause apoptosis to occur in pathogen-infected cells.
True
460
cortical bones is the exterior, cancellous bone is the interior
True
461
synovial fluid
the fluid between joins
462
retina
back of the eye, convert light to neural signals
463
both exocrine and endocrine are epithelial cells
True
464
quaternary structure, exists only for multimeric proteins.
True
465
histone is positive, dna is negative
True
466
ribosome production
Ribosomal proteins are synthesized in the cytoplasm from mRNA and transported into the nucleolus, where they combine with the newly transcribed rRNA to form precursors to the 40S and 60S subunits. These subunits are then shuttled out of the nucleus via nuclear pores and fully mature in the cytoplasm.
467
enzyme can't function without cofactor or coenzyme
True
468
Identity diffusion (low commitment, low exploration): People at this level lack direction, have not explored options, and have not committed to a particular career path or future.
Identity foreclosure (high commitment, low exploration): People at this level have accepted an identity that they have been assigned (typically by a parent or authority figure) without contemplation or exploration.
Identity moratorium (low commitment, high exploration): People at this level are still trying new activities and thinking about a career path, but have not yet arrived at a decision.
Identity achievement (high commitment, high exploration): People at this level have explored their options and typically feel confident about who they are and what they want to do in the future.
True
469
True
470
ELISA technique
uses antibody to detect protein
471
RER vs SER
RER -> Continuous with nucleus, has ribosomes, involved in protein synthesis (exocytosed proteins mostly).
SER -> Not continuous, involved in lipid synthesis and sequestration of Ca2+. Also involve in detoxification of drugs
472
G protein signal pathway
473
kreb cycle
474
ADEK vitamin
ADEK is fat soluble. These dissolve directly into chylomicrons to enter lymphatic circulation like fats. BC are water soluble
475
rough ER vs smooth ER
rough ER (has ribosome) for protein systhesis and transport
smooth ER for lipid systhesis
476
trypomyosin blocks myosin head
that's why you need Ca+ to unblock it
477
Th vs Tc vs B cell
Tc target bad cells (bind MHCI), B cells produce antigen, Th is activated when bind to MHCII
478
bile is not enzyme
so liver does not secrete digestive enzyme
479
post-translational modification
Phosphorylation, Acetylation, Glycosylation, methylation, ubiquination, hydroxylation, Disulfide-Bond Formation
480
pancreatic enzymes memonic
pan PAL
PAL = peptidase, amylase, lipase
peptidase include trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidases A and B
481
hnRNA vs snRNA vs mRNA
hnRNA is the original RNA, snRNA is the slicesome that cuts the hnRNA, which produces mRNA (with introns removed)
482
activator, repressor, silencer, promotor, and more !
483
striated muscles have or not have sarcomere
they have sarcomere
484
what is the product of fatty acid synthesis
Palmitic acid is 16 carbons long
485
once the AP is initiated via ligand gated channels, what propagates it are the voltage gated Na+ channels on the axon membrane
true
486
hormones from the anterior pituitary are synthesized in the anterior pit (it is made of glandular tissue) whereas hormones from the posterior pit are made in the hypothalamus (the posterior pit is comprised of literally the axons of the hypothalamic neurons) and then sent down to the posterior pit to be stored before release!
True
487
proline is found where
Notably, β-turns, which commonly contain proline, are highly structured and inflexible
488
long bone structure
489
bone structure
canaliculi, osteoid, lamellae, lacunae
490
antibodies bind covalently or noncovalently
Noncovalently
491
lipids rafts
These domains tend to be rich in cholesterol and relatively poor in phospholipids.
Note: highly ordered (low entropy)
492
pyruvate structure
493
thymus
where T cells mature
Note: T cell synthesis began in bone marrow tho
thymus is part of lymphatic system
494
reactive oxygen species
reactive oxygen species (ROS), can lead to permeabilization of the mitochondrial membranes, allowing for the escape of cytochrome c from the intermembrane space
495
synaptic transmission ligand-gated ion channel
496
electrons are transferred from species with lower reduction potentials (ie, less affinity for electrons) to species with higher reduction potentials (ie, more affinity for electrons) throughout the chain
True
497
liver produce way more glucose than muscle via glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
True
498
Electrical synapses vs chemical synapses
Electrical synapses transfer information from one cell to another via passive ionic current flow through gap junctions. In contrast, chemical synapses use neurotransmitters to transfer information, which is a slower process.
499
GABA
(GABA) is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter of the central nervous system
500
PCR need high or low GC content
GC-rich DNA fragments tend to be more stable at high temperatures; therefore, primers must have a substantial amount of GC content (40%-60%) to avoid premature denaturation during PCR.
501
PCR
Amplify DNA
502
titration curve
half equivalence point is pKa
note: full equivalence point would be when titrant added is just enough to completely neutralize the analyte solution
503
High salt concentration of the solution increases double helix stability
As cations neutralizes negative charged phosphate
504
why are mitochondria considered semiautonomous
possessing their own genes and self-replicating via binary fission
505
what happen when repolarization occurs more slowly
hyperexcitability
506
mix inhibitors
can be competitive favored or uncompetitive favored
507
Do all prokaryotes and eukaryotes have ribosome?
Yes
Note: virus does not have ribosome
508
stacking interaction mostly occur between which type of amino acids?
aromatic amino acids
509
Secondary structure always includes hydrogen bonds between amide carbonyls and NH groups in the polypeptide backbone
True
510
Beta-sheets can be oriented in either a parallel or an antiparallel manner.
511
Water-soluble vitamins (B series, C) are excreted in the urine whereas fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K) are stored in adipose and other fatty tissues.
True
512
enzymes only recognize L amino acids
True
513
negative vs positive vs noncoorperativity
514
membrane potential ions flow chart
515
Morphogens
Morphogens are signaling molecules whose concentration patterns influence cell differentiation
516
blood composition
517
leydig cells vs Sertoli cells
Sperm production occurs in Sertoli cells, but the production of testosterone by Leydig cells is required for the production of sperm in Sertoli cells. So, both are important.
518
glycolysis enzymes
519
vivo vs vitro
In vitro means doing a test in a test tube/plate OUTSIDE of an organism. In vivo means doing a test on a living organism
520
ternary complex vs ping pong mechanism
Ping-pong mechanism, in which one substrate binds, reacts, and leaves before the other substrate binds.
Formation of a ternary complex, in which three molecules are bound togethe
521
during muscle contraction, which bands get shortened
522
muscle contraction in detail
523
division of nervous system
524
telomerase
add telomere to ends of chromosome, thus preventing senescene
525
prokaryotes vs eukaryoes
prokaryotes: circular, not telomere, no histone, no membrane bound organelles
eukaryotes: linear, with telomere, with histone, with membrane bound-organelles
Both have double stranded DNA
525
Most eukaryotic cells (except germ cells) undergo cell division via mitosis. In contrast, prokaryotic cells duplicate via binary fission, a simple form of reproduction that does not involve the separation of chromosomes by spindle fibers
True
526
Prokaryotic cells have no nucleus; therefore, transcription and translation occur simultaneously in the cytoplasm (ie, translation begins before the mRNA is fully transcribed). In contrast, in eukaryotic cells transcription and post-transcriptional modifications occur in the nucleus but translation occurs in the cytoplasm
True
527
one codon represents one amino acid
True
528
each complex on the ETC is coupled to one another
True
529
endosome
transporting stuff from extracellular or from golgi to lysozyme (late endosome)
530
kinetochore
where microtubules attach during cell division
531
three assumptions for Michaelis menten kinetics
532
ionophores
Ionophores are compounds that bind to ions and facilitate their movements across membranes
533
isoelectric focusing
Isoelectric focusing separates proteins based on their pIs. The technique uses an electric field and a pH gradient which causes proteins to stop moving at a pH equal to their pI.
534
delta G = -nRT lnK
535
alternative splicing increases protein diversity but not genetic diversity
True
536
miRNAs
miRNAs bind complementary sequences on target messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules, consequently inhibiting expression of the target mRNA by either blocking its translation or marking it for degradation.
537
epinephrine activate which two glucose pathway
glycolysis
glycogenolysis
538
terpene vs isoprene
terpene is when there are multiple isoprene
539
is carbon 4 R or S
S
540
direction of elastic force
towards equilibrium
541
SDS gel is polyacrylamide gel
polyacrylamide gel has smaller pore than agaros gel (this makes sense because protein is smaller than DNA)
542
proteins are generally small than DNA
true
543
transamination
544
kidney function
545
glycogen phosphorylase
546
Primary active transport uses the energy from ATP hydrolysis to move a substance against its concentration gradient. Secondary active transport uses the energy released by the passive transport of another molecule.
True
547
is hydrolysis of peptide bond spontaneous or nonspontaneous
spontaneous (thermodynamically)(-ΔG)
548
released phosphorylated glucose from glycogen is from reducing or nonreducing end of glycogen branches?
non reducing end
549
The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex requires lipoic acid for activity.
true
550
beta oxidation of fatty acids counting
551
citric acid cycle
552
posterior pituitary pathway
553
zygote
554
what amino acid are not found in alpha-helix
proline and glycine
555
example of non-reducing sugar
sucrose is non-reducing
Note: fructose is reducing
556
peritoneal cavity vs pleural cavity
557
male reproductive system
557
chyme is produced
chyme produced by stomach is highly acidic, but it's neutralized by pancreatic juice
558
f factor vs r factor
A type of F factor is an R factor which encodes for antibiotic resistance
Factor only occurs in conjugation (bacteria fucking)
559
polar bodies
polar bodies do not have less organelles or genetic material; it's just a smaller amount of cytoplasm that does not allow the cell (the polar body) to survive
560
vitamin C
promote bone formation
561
