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Henry's MCAT Flashcards > Bio/Biochem > Flashcards

Bio/Biochem Flashcards

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1
Q

ethnographic studyThe catabolism of which fuel yields the highest ATP output :
sugar, fatty acids, proteins

A

Fatty acids, because the longer the fatty acid chain, the more ATP

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2
Q

What is the product of beta-oxidation

A

NADH

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3
Q

Sodium-potassium pump result a higher or lower concentration of sodium outside the cell

A

higher

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4
Q

What is the purpose of pentose phosphate pathway

A

to produce NADPH

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5
Q

What mutation results in only one incorrect amino acid

A

missense mutation

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6
Q

phagocytosis

A
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7
Q

endocytosis

A
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8
Q

how does glucagon influence our body

A

it increases blood glucose level (hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia)

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9
Q

Kinesin vs dyneins

A

Kinesins go toward +, dyneins go towards -
Kinesins go cell interior to cortex
Dyneins go cell periphery to cell interior

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10
Q

What is morula in cell divisions

A

a spherical collection of sixteen cells that is the same in sas as the original zygote

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11
Q

human flagella vs prokaryotic flagella (is there a difference?)

A

Yes
Human flagella are not composed of flagellin

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12
Q

what is the function of regulators in cell cycle?

A

promote cell cycle

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13
Q

what is the purpose of digestive enzymes in the acrosomes

A

to dissolve the protective coating on the ovum

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14
Q

the renin-angiotensin system regulates blood pressure by stimulating which two mechanisms

A

sodium reabsorption and vasoconstriction

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15
Q

operant conditioning

A

humans and animals learn to behave in such a way as to obtain rewards and avoid punishments

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16
Q

three stop codons

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

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17
Q

what is the function of poly-a tail

A

it regulates the degradation of the transcripts

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18
Q

to have a efficient enzyme, you want _ Km and _ Kcat

A

low Km and High Kcat

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19
Q

how does enzyme decrease activation energy for biological reactions

A
  1. Modify the local charge environment
    2.Form transient covalent bond
  2. Act as electron donors or receptors
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20
Q

transformation vs transduction vs conjugation

A

Transformation is the genetic alteration of bacteria by direct uptake and incorporation of exogenous DNA from their surroundings. On the other hand, transduction is the process by which a virus transfers genetic material from one bacterium to another. Conjugation occur when bacteria transfer between them

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21
Q

seminal vesicle dysfunction result in what?

A

reduced fertility

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22
Q

order the stages of development from fertilization to organogenesis

A

zygote, morula, blastula, gastrula, neurula

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23
Q

tumor suppressor gene function

A

keeps rampant cell proliferation in check

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24
Q

silent mutation is most likely found in which base of a codon

A

third base

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25
Q

what does downregulation of acetylcholinesterase do?

A

increase acetylcholine level, which lead to cramps, increased salivation, lacrimation, muscular weakness, paralysis, muscular fasciculation, diarrhea, and blurry vision

Unbalanced acetylcholine level cause Alzheimer’s disease and Parkinson’s disease

Elevated acetylcholine decrease heart rate, cause hypotension (low blood pressure)

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26
Q

Osteoblasts functions

A

bone formation

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27
Q

anterior pituitary gland secretes 7 hormones

A

follicle -stimulating hormone, luteinizing horomone, adrenocorticotropic horomone, thyroid -stimulating horomone, prolactin, endorphins, and growth hormone

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28
Q

Hardy-Weinberg equation

A

note: the letter represents the frequency

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29
Q

what is the function of vasopressin

A

to regulate blood pressure, blood osmolality, and blood volume. It increases water reabsorption in collecting ducts of nephrons in kidneys

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30
Q

ectoderm vs mesoderm vs endoderm

A

note: mouth is ectoderm

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31
Q

antidiuretic hormone function

A

helps the kidneys control the amount of water and salt in the body

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32
Q

Red blood cells are called Erythrocytes. White Blood Cells are called Leucocytes or Leukocytes (T or F)

A

True

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33
Q

metacentric vs telocentric vs acrocentric vs submetacentric

A
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34
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) function

A

a chemical produced in the brain that causes the kidneys to release less water, decreasing the amount of urine produced

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35
Q

what is the function of yellow bone marrow

A

energy / fat storage

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36
Q

more saturated fatty acids make a more fluid solution ( T OR F)

A

False

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37
Q

cholesterol increases/ decreases membrane fluidity depending on various temperature ( T OR F)

A

T

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38
Q

eukaryotic cilla and flagella are composed of what

A

Microtubules.
Note that prokaryotic flagella are formed from protein flagellin

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39
Q

which process would be most affected if an organism lost its ability to synthesize snRNAs?

A

Post-transcriptional modification

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40
Q

Vitamin C is vital for what?

A

synthesis of collagen.
Low collagen will result in bleeding

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41
Q

Sperm and oocyte meet (fertilization) occurs in

A

Fallopian tube

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42
Q

What does parathyroid glands do

A

Secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH)
A low PTH results in decrease blood calcium level

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43
Q

endocrine (one of the four type of cell signaling)’s function

A

cell communication whereby the signals involve secreted hormones travel through bloodstream

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44
Q

senescence meaning in biology

A

aging

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45
Q

aneuploid meaning in fertilization

A

meaning zyote will have abnormal number of chromosome

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46
Q

nondisjunction meaning in cell division

A

homologous chromosomes improperly separate

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47
Q

what’s the tip in memorizing afferent vs efferent in neurons

A

SAME DAVE:
sensory afferent
motor efferent
Dorsal afferent
Ventral efferent

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48
Q

ribosomal subunits size comparison bacteria vs eukaryotes

A

bacteria have 50s and 30s (70s overall), eukaryotes have 60s and 40s (80s overall)

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49
Q

action potential graph

A
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50
Q

function of hypothalamus

A

controlling temperature, hunger, thirst, fatigue

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51
Q

amygdala function

A

fear and stress responses

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52
Q

posterior pituitary function

A

secrete oxytocin (a hormone that’s important in child birth) and antidiuretic hormone (which increases reabsorption of water in kidney)

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53
Q

poly-a tail added to _ end ; cap added to _ end (before mRNA leaves the nucleus)

A

poly-a tail added to 3’ end ; cap added to 5’ end. Cap is added because so it can be recognized by ribosome during translation, and poly-a tail is added to prevent degradation and facilitate the export of mature

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54
Q

what is vasodilation

A
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55
Q

the adrenal cortex releases what

A

aldosterone and cortisol (both steroids)

Note: Aldosterone helps control the balance of water and salts in the kidney by keeping sodium in and releasing potassium from the body. Too much aldosterone can cause high blood pressure and a build-up of fluid in body tissues.

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56
Q

gram-negative bacteria vs gram positive bacteria

A

gram-negative have thinner wall (double membrane tho)
both positive and negative have cell wall

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57
Q

ligament connect bone to bone (T OR F)

A

True

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58
Q

ketone function in our body (during starvation)

A

after starvation, body is producing a large amount of ketones to provide fuel (can promote acidosis)

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59
Q

what does increased parathyroid gland activity do ?

A

increased PTH increases the calcium level in blood, resulting in bone thinning and kidney stone

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60
Q

what is the path of sperm from production to ejaculation

A

seminiferous tubules – epididymis – vas deferens – ejaculatory duct – urethra – penis

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61
Q

salivary amylase, pepsin, carboxypeptidase (release where?)

A

salivary amylase released in the oral cavity, while pepsin is released in the stomach, carboxypeptidase made in pancreas and delivered to small intestine

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62
Q

Macrophages must undergo rapid actin reorganization during the process of phagocytosis

A

True

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63
Q

What does a protein with low PI value mean in SDS-PAGE

A

A low PI indicates that it contains many charged residues, making it more likely to be soluble

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64
Q

FOr skeletal muscle to relax, the conformation of myosin must change as ATP binds to the myosin head, decreasing its affinity for actin and breaking the cross-bridge between thick and thin filament. Additionally, the Ca2+ concentration in the sarcomere must decrease, returning tropomyosin and troponin to their resting positions

A

True

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65
Q

Sickle-cell anemia vs Normal red blood cell

A

Sickle cell is jagged, normal red blood cell is smooth.
Sickle cell increases viscosity, which contributes to increase blood pressure (hypertension)

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66
Q

Trisomy X vs Monosomy X

A

Trisomy: xxx
Monosomy: x

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67
Q

insulin is an inhibitor of lipolysis

A

True

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68
Q

what does the “induced fit” explained

A

stabilization of transition state

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69
Q

at (-) end of microtubule, depolymerization is prevented by

A

anchoring of that end to an MTOC (microtubule-organizing center)

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70
Q

Dopamine is not a nonpolar steroi or a small gas molecule, therefore, it requires vesicular transport

A

True

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71
Q

Fetal hemoglobin is comprised of two alpha and gamma hemoglobin subunits, whereas adult contain two alpha and beta subunits

A

True

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72
Q

Paracrine - release to neighboring cells

A

True

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73
Q

Autocrine-release to same cell

A

True

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74
Q

Exocrine-through ducts

A

True

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75
Q

More unsaturated=more fluid membrane

A

True

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76
Q

Which pump does not pump protons into the intermembrane space

A

Complex II

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77
Q

during endocytosis, lysosome present in which stage of endosome

A

late endosome

Note: endosome can transport via endocytosis or golgi to lysosome eventually

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78
Q

proton pumping

A

intermembrane space becomes positive due to protons being pumped into it

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79
Q

Which area of renal interstitium has the highest solute concentration

A

Inner medulla

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80
Q

which type of molecules is most likely to be reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule

A

small, vital biomolecule

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81
Q

the binding affinity of hemoglobin for CO is _ than its affinity for O2

A

Significantly greater
It competes with oxygen by competitive binding

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82
Q

fatty acids enter citric acid cycle as

A

acetyl-CoA

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83
Q

Second law of thermodynamic

A

a spontaneous reaction or cyclic process must yield a net entropy increase

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84
Q

TSH is released by what

A

anterior pituitary

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85
Q

Gram positive bacterial characteristic

A

thick cell wall, no outer membrane

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86
Q

increase concentration of glucagon means _ blood sugar levels?

A

High

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87
Q

which molecules regulate blood calcium
1. Dihydroxycholecalciferol
2.calcitonin
3. parathyroid hormone

A

All
1. Dihydroxycholecalciferol-increase Ca reabsorption
2. calcitonin (respond to high blood calcium) -decrease serum Ca level
3. parathyroid hormone-increase serum calcium level

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88
Q

Aldosterone function in kidney

A

increases sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct

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89
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH or vasopressin) function in kidney

A

increasing water reabsorption for collecting duct

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90
Q

Sympatric speciation

A

when there are no physical barriers preventing any members of a species from mating with another

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91
Q

Genetic bottleneck

A

reduction in the size of a population due to environmental events such as famines, earthquakes

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92
Q

Allopathic speciation

A

speciation that occurs when biological populations become geographically isolated

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93
Q

Somatic cells (non reproductive cells) are diploid

A

True

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94
Q

What does 60 % penetrated mean in genetic

A

Out of those that carry genotype, 60% express it

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95
Q

Epinephrine hormone function

A

fight or flight hormone

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96
Q

triglycerides are nonpolar

A

True

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97
Q

Sympathetic system vs parasympathetic system

A

The sympathetic system controls “fight-or-flight” responses
The parasympathetic system regulates “rest and digest” functions.

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98
Q

Epinephrine and Norepinephrine are neurotransmitters used in sympathetic system

A

True

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99
Q

Acetylcholine is used in both CNS and PNS

A

PNS: it help with “rest and digest” and release Ca+ for muscle movement
CNS: low acetylcholine cause Alzheimers

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100
Q

Cortisol, the primary stress hormone, increases sugars (glucose) in the bloodstream

A

True

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101
Q

Respiration system

A
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102
Q

Nearly all post-transcriptional modifications are made in nucleus

A

True, but modifications to amino acids and proteins are not

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103
Q

activation of nociceptors do what?

A

feel the pain

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104
Q

bacteria lack introns

A

True

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105
Q

arrhythmia definition

A

irregular heartbeat

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106
Q

Formaldehyde

A
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107
Q

western plot tell us what

A

amount of protein expressed

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108
Q

RT-PCR tell us what

A

amount of RNA expressed

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109
Q

both tRNA and ribosome are made of RNA

A

True

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110
Q

conjugation (bacteria)

A

bacterium transfer genetic information to another

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111
Q

acetylation promotes gene expression, whereas methylation reduces it

A

True

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112
Q

function of keratin

A

protein that gives toughness and flexibility to the skin
(it’s an intermediate filament)
(callus is formed due to keratin )

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113
Q

aminopeptidase which works in the duodenum is slightly basic

A

True

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114
Q

boyle’s law in physcis

A

P and V are inversely related

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115
Q

atmospheric pressure at standard

A

1 atm or 760mmHg

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116
Q

Solubility of gas equation

A

H=c/P

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117
Q

enhancer is a section of DNA

A

True

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118
Q

cartilage relies on diffusive rather than direct vascular delivery of nutrients

A

True

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119
Q

chondrocytes

A

are cells involved in maintaining connective tissues. they grow in teens

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120
Q

mRNA and hnRNA (pre-mRNA) are coding moleculs,
whereas microRNAm snoRNA and tRNA are not

A

True

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121
Q

ATP, citrate and NADH inhibit TCA cycle,
whereas AMP, ADP and NAD+ stimulate it

A

True

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122
Q

overstimulate of citric acid cycle result in an increase in CO2 and decreased plasma pH

A

True

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123
Q

during menstruation, estrogen and progesterone levels are low

A

True

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124
Q

prefix “staphylo” mean what

A

clustered organization

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125
Q

endfix “coccus” mean what

A

circular shape

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126
Q

Restrictions endonucleases function

A

cut DNA at specific sites
(early step of Southern blot)

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127
Q
  1. somatic nervous system is responsible for voluntary actions
  2. autonomic nervous system is responsible for all involuntary actions
A

True
Both somatic and autonomic fall under peripheral nervous system

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128
Q

hybrid vigor, or heterosis

A

hybrids of domestic dog grow stronger and bigger than their parents

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129
Q

three irreversible steps in glycolysis

A

phosphofructosekinase, hexokinase, pyruvate kinase

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130
Q

Amphetamine function

A

release dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin while simultaneously inhibit their reabsorption.
increasing heart rate and blood pressure, anxiety

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131
Q

cortisol function

A

Cortisol, the primary stress hormone, increases sugars (glucose) in the bloodstream, enhances your brain’s use of glucose and increases the availability of substances that repair tissues

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132
Q

tight junction vs gap junction vs desmosome

A
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133
Q

autoimmune disease

A

defense system can’t tell the difference between your own cells and foreign cells

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134
Q

macrophages must undergo rapid actin reorganization during phagocytosis

A

True

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135
Q

which of the following molecules do not require a channel to pass through:
Testosterone, dopamine, serotonin, glucose

A

Testosterone

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136
Q

sigma factors

A

initiation factors

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137
Q

exhaling/eliminating CO2 result in high blood pH

A

True

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138
Q

What product is produced when 2-hexanol successfully reacts with chromium(III) oxide?

A

Note: it would be hexanoic acid if it’s primary alcohol

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139
Q

Although some water is lost through sweat glands at the skin surface, the skin is relatively impermeable to water loss largely due to the cells of

A

epidermis
(stratum corneum)

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140
Q
A
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141
Q

role strain, role conflict, role exit

A
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142
Q

rank the size of four DNA dioxyribonucleotides

A

G>A>T>C

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143
Q

Km is independent from enzyme concentration

A

True

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144
Q

lewis acid vs bronsted acid

A

Lewis said that acid must not contain a hydrogen ion (H+) or hydroxide ion (OH–) to be classified as an acid. Bronsted said the acid must contain a hydrogen ion (H+) or hydroxide ion (OH–) to be classified as an acid.

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145
Q

kinesin vs dynein

A

kinesin away from nucleus,
dynein towards the nucleus

note: Microtubules are made of alternating α- and β-tubulin subunits

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146
Q

waxes have ester groups

A

True
COOR

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147
Q

chaperone protein

A

Facilities proper protein folding

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148
Q

in kidney, collecting duct is the last portion where reabsorption of water and salt can occur

A

True

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149
Q

hydrophobic molecules travel through membrane via simple diffusion

A

True

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150
Q

Blood cells have no DNA

A

True

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151
Q

glucose is a carbohydrate

A

True

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152
Q

The sympathetic nervous system directly inhibits what

A

The sympathetic nervous system directly inhibits peristalsis (A) and secretion of digestive enzymes (B). It also increases the blood glucose concentration and causes dilation of the blood vessels that supply the deep muscles and internal organs, which aids nutrient delivery (D) to these tissues.

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153
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system restores the body to a calm and composed state and prevents it from overworking. The sympathetic nervous system, on the other hand, prepares the body for fight and flight response.

A

True

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154
Q

guanine=purine
uracil=purimidine

A

TRue

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155
Q

epinephrine increwase glycogenolysis and glycolysis

A

True

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156
Q

the anaerobic process that replenishes NAD+ occurs in cytosol

A

True

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157
Q

hormones consist of three 6-ring and one 5 ring does not need second passenger in cell signaling

A

True

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158
Q

fatty acids oxidation

A
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159
Q

Fatty acid oxidation and synthesis occur in which subcellular compartments, respectively

A

Mitochondrial and cytosol

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160
Q

gluconeogenesis vs glycogenolysis

A
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161
Q

heart

A
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162
Q

triacylglycerol is a energy storage lipids

A

True

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163
Q

phosphatase vs phosphorylase

A

phosphorylase enzymes catalyze the reaction involving the transfer of phosphate groups between compounds, whereas phosphatase enzymes catalyze the reactions involving the removal of a phosphate

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164
Q

what muscles are striated

A

cardiac and skeletal muscles

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165
Q

hormone responsible for ovulation

A

Luteinizing Hormones

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166
Q

adrenal cortex vs adrenal medulla

A
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167
Q

Phosphorolysis

A

Glycogen is cleaved into glucose-1-phosphate subunits by glycogen phosphorylase in a reaction called phosphorolysis.

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168
Q

henry’s law

A
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169
Q

There are three amino acids that are phosphorylated in eukaryotes

A

serine (S), threonine (T), and tyrosine (Y)

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170
Q

SNOW DROP

A
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171
Q

osmolarity

A
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172
Q

steroid hormones must be transported through the blood bound to specific carrier proteins, but regular hormones don’t

A

True

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173
Q

glycosylation

A

some proteins do not fold correctly unless they are glycosylated

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174
Q

A sodium ionophore would collapse the sodium gradient

A

True

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175
Q

lactase is produced in small intestine

A

True

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176
Q

inactive caspase is found in healthy cells

A

True

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177
Q

cytochrome c release or proteolysis release, or caspase release lead to cell death

A

True

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178
Q

excess acetyl coA converted to ketone bodies

A

True

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179
Q

hydroluzable lipids contain ester bonds (such as phospholipids, spingolipids, triacylglycerols)

A

True

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180
Q

Acetyl-CoA, NADPH, and ATP are the reactants needed to generate fatty acid chains during lipid synthesis (occur in cytosol)

A

True

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181
Q

transport / activation of fatty acid

A
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182
Q

potent

A

ability to infect
(shorter bacteria have higher potent)

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183
Q

cartilaginous area in long bones determine if a child is still growing

A

True

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184
Q

peptidoglycan is a major component of bacterial cell wall

A

True

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185
Q

adaptive radiation

A

one species diverge into different species in one environment overtime

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186
Q

glycoysis occur in cytoplasm

A

True

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187
Q

DNA replication occur in S phase

A

True

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188
Q

arteries, veins, capillary all have endothelial cells

A

True

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189
Q

pancreas produces several proteolytic enzymes, such as trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase

A

True

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190
Q

Bile is a fluid that is made and released by the liver and stored in the gallbladder. Bile helps with digestion. It breaks down fats into fatty acids, which can be taken into the body by the digestive tract.

A

True

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191
Q

myelin sheath function

A

increase rate of conduction for action potential

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192
Q

glycolysis vs gluconeogensis

A
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193
Q

which compounds can be used as precursors to sustain the blood glucose level?

A

Lactate
Oxaloacetate
α-Ketoglutarate

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194
Q

pentose phosphate pathway

A
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195
Q

increased inspiration = increase pH

A

True

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196
Q

spleen is part of the lymphatic system and its purpose is to filter blood (kill bacteria) and blood storage

A

TRue

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197
Q

oligondendrocytes myelinate multiple nerves

A
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198
Q

conjugation

A

is the transfer of genetic information from one bacterial cell to another via direct contact

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199
Q

Insulin is a product of pancreatic beta cells (not the liver)

A

True

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200
Q

Bile is produced by liver to help aid in digestion of lipids

A

True

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201
Q

cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum

A

True

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202
Q

bacterial species in large intestine are called?

A

gut flora

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203
Q

prion protein

A

Misfolded proteins

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204
Q

protease will not separate disulfide bond, because it only separate amino acids bonds

A

True (also known as peptide bond)

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205
Q

Epididymis function

A

Sperm Maturation

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206
Q

Bulbourethral (Cowper’s) gland

A

Mucus secretion

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207
Q

norepinephrine and epinephrine are released by

A

released by adrenal medulla, and modulate the metabolism of glycogen, the storage form of glucose.

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208
Q

Glucocorticoids are released by what

A

released by the adrenal cortex act on the liver to stimulate the synthesis of glucose from other molecules (gluconeogenesis) and the breakdown of fats (lipolysis)

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209
Q

main function of collecting duct

A

reabsorption of water

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210
Q

skeletal muscles are electrically isolated, whereas cardiac and smooth muscle can transfer action potentials directly to adjacent cells

A

True

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211
Q

The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) is a specialized endoplasmic reticulum in muscle fibers that is responsible for tightly regulating intracellular calcium concentration by sequestering calcium ions during periods of relaxation and releasing them into the cytosol during periods of contraction (in response to action potentials)

A

True

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212
Q

sebaceous glands

A

a small gland in the skin which secretes a lubricating oily matter (sebum) into the hair follicles to lubricate the skin and hair.

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213
Q

Glycolysis and Kreb cycle produce ATP and NADH; fatty acids oxidation produce NADH but not ATP; ETC produce ATP but consume NADH

A

True

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214
Q

coordination of cell differentiation during development is extremely sensitive to the timing of mRNA turnover

A

True

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215
Q

hydrolysis reactions release the gluconeogenic precursors glycerol (from triglycerides) and amino acids (from proteins)

A

True

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216
Q

Glucose to lactate

A
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217
Q

which hormone trigger ovulation

A

luteinizing hormone

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218
Q

Ribosome contain rRNA and protein

A

True

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219
Q

chromosome contain DNA and protein

A

True

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220
Q

The main organ that excretes nitrogenous waste in this system is the kidney

A

True

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221
Q

increased activity of smooth muscle cause vasoconstriction

A

True

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222
Q

Aliphatic amino acids are

A

nonaromatic, nonpolar, and hydrophobic

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223
Q

Ghrelin is a hormone released by cells in the stomach (ie, part of the gut). In a healthy individual, ghrelin is transported via the bloodstream to the brain, where it acts on the hypothalamus to stimulate appetite.

A

True
(Ghrelin feel hungry, adipocyte feel full)

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224
Q

water around hydrophobic = ordered
water around hydrophilic = disoredered

A

True
so delta S is more positive when disoredered

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225
Q

penetrated the walls of the intestine would allow the contents to enter the peritoneal cavity

A

True

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226
Q

ovum is the female gamete that has completed meiosis and contains the haploid number of maternally derived chromosomes

A

True
This is most analogous to spermatozoa

227
Q

transcription occur in cytoplasm in prokaryotic cell

A

True

228
Q

glycolysis occur in the cytoplasm

A

True

229
Q

suppose that CH4 reacts completely with o2 to form CO2 and H2O with a total pressure of 1.2 torr. What is the partial pressure of H2O

A

0.8

230
Q

ileum is the final section of the small intestine, which is precedes the cecum

A

True

231
Q

calcitonin is produced by the thyroid gland

A

True

232
Q

calcitriol is the most active form of vitamin D and stimulates intestinal calcium absorption

Calcitriol enhances calcium absorption into bloodstream

A

True

233
Q

in response to depolarization, Ca+ is released from sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

True

234
Q
A

True
IIa to IIx generally have a greater mitochondrial density

235
Q

telomeres function

A

protract genome from nucleolytic degradation

236
Q

non reducing gel vs reducing gel

A

non reducing doesn’t split

237
Q

if genes are close together, they have a lower probability of being separated by recombination

A

True

238
Q

peroxisome is not part of the secretory pathyway, instead, it play important roles in metabolism, reactive oxygen species detoxification, and signaling

A

True
Whereas lysosome (acidic) is part of the secretory pathway.

239
Q

NADH enters at complex I and FADH2 enters at complex II,

A

True
So more oxygen consumption for NADH

240
Q

adpative vs innate immune system

A

Adaptive are specific: consists of B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes
Note: helper t lymphocyte produce signaling molecules called cytokines that activate other cells for immune system

241
Q

the dermis is associated with skin strength and flexibility

A

True

242
Q

totipotent vs pluripotent vs multipotent

A

totipotent: give rise to the entire organism
pluripotent: any but placental structure
multipotent: committed to specific lineage

243
Q

glucagon, epinephrine and norepinephrine all can restore glucose concentration

A

True

244
Q

peripheral nervous system (all neural outside CNS)

A

True

245
Q

retrovirus use reverse transcriptase: RNA-cDNA-DNA

A

True
Therefore, same sequence always

246
Q

phosphodiester bonds link adjacent nucleotides in DNA

A

True
The OH on 3’ attacks the phosphate on 5’, as DNA is synthesized from 5’ to 3’

247
Q

cytochrome functions in the mitochondria inner membrane (electron transport chain)

A

True

248
Q

Glucagon triggers your liver to convert stored glucose (glycogen) into a usable form and then release it into your bloodstream

A

True
Know as glycogenolysis (uses Glycogen phosphorylase)

249
Q

During Follicular phase, FSH and LH peaks. During Ovulation phase, Estrogen and progesterone peaks

A

True

250
Q

glands whose secretions are released onto an exterior body surface are called exocrine glands

A

True
Tears and bile are both exocrine

251
Q

Proximal convoluted tubule occur before distal (distal tubule happens right before collecting duct);
Cortical of collecting duct occur before medullary of collecting duct (final)

A

True

252
Q

Na+/K+ ATPase

A

restoration of the resting potential
three Na+ out and two K+ into

(require atp DUHHHH)

253
Q

hydrophobic molecules pass through the membrane via diffussion

A

True

254
Q

protein kinase needs phosphorylation to activate

A

True

255
Q

enzyme functions to change the pH of the environment and alter shape of the substrate so that reaction occurs

A

True

256
Q

Pericytes

A

they are important for blood vessel formation, maintenance of the blood–brain barrier, regulation of immune cell entry to the central nervous system (CNS) and control of brain blood flow.

257
Q

Fibroblasts

A

a type of cell that contributes to the formation of connective tissue. Fibroblasts secrete collagen proteins that help maintain the structural framework of tissues.

258
Q

ACTH, CRGm, cortisol (negative feedback) pathway

A

CRH is released from the hypothalamus. CRH stimulates the anterior pituitary to release ACTH. ACTH acts on the adrenal cortex to release cortisol and androgens. The increase in cortisol provides a negative feedback system to decrease the amount of CRH released from the hypothalamus.

259
Q

epididymis function

A

main function of the epididymis is to store the sperms for maturation and transport it to vas deferens.

260
Q

Golgi apparatus

A

functions as a factory in which proteins received from the ER are further processed and sorted for transport to their eventual destinations: lysosomes, the plasma membrane, or secretion

261
Q

what are the steroid hormones

A

calcitriol, cortisol, estrogen, and anything that ends of _one

262
Q

adrenal medulla release what

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

263
Q

anterior pituitary release what

A

FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
Prolactin
Endorphins
Growth
Hormones

264
Q

posterior pituitary release what

A

Vasopressin and oxytocin

265
Q

posterior pituitary release what

A

Vasopressin and oxytocin

266
Q

serotonin function

A

Neurotransmitter for regulation of mood, appetite, and sleep

267
Q

the mineral component of human bone

A

Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2
so it contains calcium, phosphate, and hydroxyl group

268
Q

slope for the lineweaver plot

A

Km/Vmax

269
Q

specific activity is a measure of

A

the enzyme units per milligram of total protein in a solution

270
Q

peptidoglycan is found in cell walls of bacteria

A

True

271
Q

cardiac muscle cells, nerve cells don’t divide. intestinal epithelial cells do proliferate

A

True

272
Q

ubiquitination

A

a biological process that requires ATP and serving to rapidly remove unwanted or damaged proteins (targets a protein for degradation by proteasome)

273
Q

schwann cells

A

myelin-forming cells in the peripheral nervous system

274
Q

in spine, grey matter is composed of unmyelinated cell bodies and dendrites, white matter is composed of myelinated and unmyelinated axons that allow for long distance communication

A

True

275
Q

astrocytes

A

maintaining chemical homeostasis of the interstitial space, include regulation of fluid, ion, pH, and neurotransmitters concentration.
barrier for bbb

276
Q

microglia/neuroglia

A

act as macrophages

277
Q

pathway of communication between presynaptic neuron and postsynaptic neuron

A
278
Q

lymphatic system function

A

redistribute fluid in the body

279
Q

parietal cells (in stomach)

A

produce hydrochloric acid in stomach

280
Q

G cells (in stomach)

A

produce gastrin, a hormone that regulate secretion of hydrochloric acid by parietal cells

281
Q

chief cells (in stomach)

A

Produce pepsinogen, activated by low pH. It breaks down polypeptides into smaller peptides

282
Q

ATP synthase function

A

Facilitate proton flow into the mitochondrial matrix through ATP synthase

283
Q

kinase adds phosphate group

A

True
Usually involve atp

284
Q

RT-PCR

A

RTPCR= reverse transcribe already-produced RNA to figure out how much DNA there is;

285
Q

only maternal mitochondria are transmitted to the fetus

A

True

286
Q

SDS or Urea are often used as denaturing agents in page analysis

A

True
Note: this is different than reducing gel, where reducing gel only separates disulfide bond
SDS provides a negative charge for all proteins

287
Q

variable expressivity: ability of a single genotype to give rise to multiple phenotype

A

True

288
Q

Penetrance: proportion of individuals with a genotype who express the corresponding phenotype

A

True

289
Q

oxygen binding induces a change from T state to the R state

A

True

290
Q

2,3 BPG (2,3 bisphosphoglycerate) increase oxygen release/ reduce oxygen binding

A

True

291
Q

hyperventilation=excessive breathing

A

True

292
Q

Viroid

A

Unlike virus, it does not have protein coats. Consists of circular single strand of RNA

293
Q

mutase change location of a functional group

A

True

294
Q

thyroid function

A

The thyroid gland is responsible for helping to regulate basal metabolism and calcium levels. The thyroid gland secretes calcitonin, synthesized from C-cells, to reduce free calcium levels in the blood.

295
Q

gluconeogenesis vs glycolysis

A
296
Q

basal body is where flagellum spins(for movement)

A

True

297
Q

cortical reaction

A

harden zona pellucida (egg) and prevent polyspermy

298
Q

between complex II and III, ubiquinone is converted to ubiquinol (electron carrier). The ubiquinol will convert back to ubiquinone once electrons are transfered to complex III

A

True

299
Q

lipase secreted from pancreas which facillitates chemical digestion of fats

A

True

300
Q

liver synthesizes bile, which is stored in gallbladder, and released into small intestine to aid mechanical digestions of lipids

A

True

301
Q

stomach secretions chart

A
302
Q

ribosomal proteins synthesized in the cytoplasm are transported into the nucleolus, where they combine with rRNA to form 40S and 60S ribosomal subunit precursors, which are exported back to cytoplasm

A

True

303
Q

substances filtered via glomerular capillaries will be found in urine

A

True

304
Q

internal urethral spincter vs external urethral sphincter

A

internal urethral sphincter (involuntary) vs external urethral sphincter (voluntary; skeletal muscle))

305
Q

alpha vs beta vs delta cells in endocrine pancreas

A

alpha: produce glucagon
beta: produce insulin
delta: somatostatin (a hormone that suppress insulin and glucagon release)

306
Q

insulin and glucagon are what hormone

A

peptide hormone

307
Q

leptin is release by white adipose tissue after appetite to feel full

A

True

308
Q

all the enzyme classes

A
309
Q

R-cysteine and S form of other amino acids are L configurations

A

True

310
Q

specific rotation equation

A

specific rotation= (observed)/ [(length)x(concentration)]

311
Q

Lytic and Lysogenic Cycle

A

In the lytic cycle (lytic means death) the bacteriophage will basically inject itself in there and destroy the virus spilling its contents.
In the lysogenic cycle, the bacteriophage will incorporate its genome into the virus.

312
Q

cilia function in respiratory system

A

create mucus to accumulate - therefore remove inhaled particulates

313
Q

cell cycle

A
314
Q

increase renin-angiogram tensin system; aldosterone, vasopressin (ADH) all increase blood pressure

A

True

315
Q

osmotic pressure is the opposite of hydrostatic pressure.

A

True,
Osmotic pressure increases when solute concentration increases

316
Q

female reproductive system

A
317
Q

acetylation neutralizes the positive charge on the amino acid

A

True

318
Q

woman’s developing eggs (oocytes) are produced during fetal development. At birth, their maturation is arrested in prohpase I (known as primary oocytes). At puberty, the menstrual cycle begins, and each month a single primary oocyte develops into a secondary oocyte by meiosis up to metaphase II

A

True
fallopian cillia push fertilized oocyte to uterus

319
Q

B lymphocytes binds foreign antigens, become activated, and divide into many identical cells. Some are short term and some are long term

A

True
Short term secrete antibodies for immediate immune response. Long term form future rapid
B cells produce antibodies, whereas T cells dont

320
Q

thiol group

A
321
Q

Proteases are a type of enzyme that catalyze the hydrolysis of peptide bonds in polypeptide chains

A

True

322
Q

synapsis

A

ran se ti rong he
(it’s required for crossing over to occur)

323
Q

acetylcholine

A

At the neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine is released via exocytosis from presynaptic motor neurons. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the motor end plate, triggering muscle contraction. Disruption of this process causes skeletal muscle paralysis.

Ach does a lot, for example by binding to nicotinic receptors on muscles cell causes depolarization of the membrane and release of calcium ions from SR. It causes muscles to contract.

324
Q

Both NADH and FADH2 donate two electrons to the electron transport chain,

A

True

325
Q

Fru-2,6-P2 strongly activates glucose breakdown in glycolysis through allosteric modulation (activation) of phosphofructokinase 1 (PFK-1)

A

True

326
Q

Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate allosterically activates phosphofructokinase-1 and inhibits fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, which stimulates glycolysis and reduces gluconeogenesis.

A

True

327
Q

This process is regulated by antidiuretic hormone, which increases the insertion of aquaporins into the plasma membranes of collecting duct epithelial cells

A

True

328
Q

Inbreeding results in decreased heterozygosity.

A

True

329
Q

Movement along actin microfilaments occur via myosin motors (not kinesin or dynein)

A

True
Microtubules are for neurons

330
Q

Irreversible inhibitors form covalent bonds with enzymes and become more potent given sufficient time to react (ie, with preincubation). Reversible inhibitors quickly form noncovalent bonds with target enzymes and do not require much time to achieve their full effect.

A

True

331
Q

Bacteriophages are viruses that exclusively infect bacterial cells

A

True

332
Q

Digestive proteolytic enzymes, which hydrolyze polypeptides, are synthesized and secreted from the pancreas, stomach, and small intestine. Cirrhosis of the liver is not expected to affect the secretion of digestive proteolytic enzymes because they are secreted by other tissues.

A

True

333
Q

Digestive proteolytic enzymes, which hydrolyze polypeptides, are synthesized and secreted from the pancreas, stomach, and small intestine. Cirrhosis of the liver is not expected to affect the secretion of digestive proteolytic enzymes because they are secreted by other tissues.

A

True

334
Q

CPT1 is an essential enzyme in the carnitine shuttle, transporting fatty acids into the mitochondria for oxidization

A

True

335
Q

The carboxylases allow the production of new carbon-carbon bonds by introducing HCO3- or CO2 into target molecules.

A

True

336
Q

riginally bound at the A (amino acid) site to the P (peptide) site and later to the E (exit) site

A

True

337
Q

liquids and solids never appear in equilibrium expressions

A

Tue

338
Q

Microglia are phagocytotic innate immune cells specific to the brain

A

True

339
Q

An amber codon is a stop codon

A

True

340
Q

osteocytes (bone cells)

A

True

341
Q

Cell fate is influenced by inductive signaling between cells in the early embryo

A

True

342
Q

Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative brain disease characterized by the presence of plaques composed largely of amyloid beta proteins and neurofibrillary tangles composed of tau proteins.

A

True

343
Q

acetylation = break salt bridge = more gene expression

A

True

344
Q

Only uncompetitive inhibitors bind exclusively to the protein-substrate complex

A

True

345
Q

Kinetic stable = slow rate (no protease )
Thermodynamic unstable = requires ATP or GTP hydrolysis (nonspontanouse)

A

True

346
Q

Cofactors are non–amino acid chemical compounds that must bind to certain proteins before those proteins can function. Cofactors can be inorganic (eg, metal ions) or organic (eg, lipoic acid);

A

True

347
Q

Type 1, type 2a, type 2x muscles

A
348
Q

During fasting, decreasing blood glucose concentrations cause the pancreas to release glucagon. Glucagon stimulates the breakdown of liver glycogen into glucose

A

True

349
Q

glycolysis and fermentation reactions occur in the cytoplasm

A

TRue (cytosol)

350
Q

substrate level phosphorylation

A

True

351
Q

When the error is at either end of the DNA strand, the DNA backbone is cleaved by exonucleases, whereas endonucleases cleave phosphodiester bondswithin a strand.

A

True

352
Q

Which series depicts the order in which the precursors of steroid hormones are synthesized?

A. Isoprene → monoterpene → squalene → cholesterol

A

True

353
Q

Astrocytes, Oligodendrocytes, and ependymal cells are all types of glial cells.

A

True

354
Q

noncompetitive inhibitors is that they bind the enzyme and the enzyme–substrate complex with the same affinity

A

True

355
Q

Volumetric flow rate (Q) is the product of cross-sectional area A and flow velocity v:

Q= Av

A

True

356
Q
A

Interesting

357
Q

Therefore, the bond angles smaller than 109.5° (ie, ring strain) found in β-lactams cause the carbonyl carbon to be more reactive than it would be in a noncyclic amide.

A

True

358
Q
A

Interesting

359
Q

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Phospholipids, like most lipids, are synthesized at the surface of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) before being packaged into vesicles and delivered to the plasma membrane or stored in the cell for future use.

A

True

360
Q

liposome

A
361
Q

atp binds at (+) and adp bind at (-) ends of actin

A

True

362
Q

anything that enters bloodstream from small intestine will make a first pass through portal vein and liver

A

True

363
Q

type i diabeties are insulin dependent and are autoimmune

A

True

364
Q

Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells: coat axons in CNS and PNS with mylien. Note that oligodendrocytes secrete myelin, so they myelinate many neurons at once. Schwann cells physically wrap around axons, so a Schwann cell can only wrap around one PNS axon.

A

True

365
Q

renin production occurs when

A

lower blood pressure

366
Q

bacteria have no introns

A

True

367
Q

The question stem asks about attenuation, which is a weakening of the U/S signal.

A
368
Q

Operators are structures in operons, which are involved in prokaryotic gene expression.

A

True

369
Q

Heterochromatin is formed from compactly coiled regions, while euchromatin is loosely coiled. Thus, II is less compact than I.

A

True

370
Q

Heterochromatin is formed from compactly coiled regions, while euchromatin is loosely coiled. Thus, II is less compact than I.

A

True

371
Q

hepatic

A

relates to liver

372
Q

skeletal muscle are multinucleated. innervated by the somatic nervous system therefore voluntary stimulated. they appear striated, control skeletal movement, they also contract to propel low pressure venous blood to the heart. smooth muscle, autonomic, uninucleated, can be found in GI, bladder,uterus, respiratory lining, some have myogenic activity meaning they can generate electrical activity without nervous input, they dont appear striated. cardiac (heart lol) its only myogenic but can be modulated by the nervous and endocrine system when needs arrive.

A

True

373
Q

arteries > arterioles > capillaries > venules > vein

A

True

374
Q

acetyl CoA is NOT a gluconeogenic precursor

A

True

375
Q

chondrocyte

A

cells responsible for cartilage formation. Produce collagen, which is a structural protein that is the most common protein by mass in the human body, and is found in the extrace

376
Q

lactose

A

glucose + galactose

377
Q

come let’s get sun burn

A

Stratum corneum

stratum lucidum

stratum granulosum

stratum spinosuma

stratum basale

378
Q

MHC I vs MHC II

A

MHC 1: all nucleoted cells
MHC 2: immune cells

379
Q
A

True

380
Q

zymogen

A

an inactive substance which is converted into an enzyme when activated by another enzyme. (usually cleaved the bond to be activated)

381
Q

carcinogenesis definition

A

cancer formation

382
Q

carcinogenesis definition

A

cancer formation

383
Q

albumin

A

transport steroid hormone (hydrophobic) in blood

384
Q

Co2 transport in the blood how

A

bind to hemoglobin, carried as bicarbonate ion, or dissolute in blood

385
Q

polymorphism

A
386
Q

thyroid hormone

A

t3 and t4 regulate (increase) metabolism

387
Q

stearic acid

A

saturated fatty acid in animals
It is converted into acetyl Co-A (beta oxidation) during long-term fasting,

388
Q

stearic acid

A

saturated fatty acid in animals
It is converted into acetyl Co-A (beta oxidation) during long-term fasting,

389
Q

cell-mediated adaptive immunity vs humoral adaptive immunity

A

cell-mediated: by t-cell
humoral: B-lymphocytes

390
Q

uncompetitive inhibitor binds ES complex only

A

True

391
Q

renin-angiotension system

A
392
Q

follicles

A

structures on the ovaries that contain mature eggs

393
Q

luteal phase of mensuration cycle begins with

A

corpus luteum

394
Q

a spike in the amount of FSH and LH trigger ovulation (between follicular phase and luteal phase)

A

True

395
Q

induction in biology

A

The production of an enzyme in response to the presence of a particular compound

396
Q

The interactionist theory proposes that language acquisition is the result of both biological (eg, normal brain development) and environmental/social factors

A

True
Nativist: would suggest that language is predetermined and can be only learned during critical period

397
Q

cortisol functions as a negative feedback signal by inhibiting the secretion of CRH and ACTH.

A

True

398
Q

Prostaglandins are nonhydrolyzable, 20-carbon (eicosanoid) lipids involved in autocrine and paracrine signaling. They are derived from arachidonic acid and often help mediate localized inflammatory responses.

A

True

399
Q

potential and signals in Sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

ACh binds and opens ligand-gated ion channels in the sarcolemma (the plasma membrane of the muscle cell)

Na+ flows down its electrochemical gradient and into the cell through the channel, resulting in depolarization of the sarcolemma and generation of an action potential that propagates along the muscle fiber in all directions.

At certain locations along the muscle fiber, the sarcolemma burrows deep into the cells, forming a channel known as the transverse (T) tubule, which brings depolarizing current close to the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). The SR is a specialized smooth endoplasmic reticulum responsible for regulating cytosolic Ca2+ levels within the muscle cell.

Action potential propagation through the T tubule ultimately leads to the opening of Ca2+ channels in the SR membrane. Because Ca2+ is more highly concentrated inside the SR than in the cytosol, the opening of these channels results in Ca2+ flowing down its concentration gradient and into the cytosol.

Cytosolic Ca2+ ions then bind to troponin, which allows the actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere to slide across one another. The sliding of the filaments results in shortening of the sarcomere and overall muscle contraction (Choice C).

The Ca2+ channels in the SR membrane close when the depolarizing stimulus ceases. Active transport Ca2+ pumps sequester the Ca2+ back into the SR, which allows the muscle to return to its relaxed state as cytosolic Ca2+ concentration falls (Choice D).

400
Q

types of tissues

A
401
Q

A glycosidic bond is a bond between the anomeric carbon (ie, the hemiacetal or hemiketal) of a carbohydrate and any other biological molecule

A

true

402
Q

how does lymphatic system allow to reenter blood?

A

Lipid droplets are released from the epithelial cells into the interstitial fluid.

Lymph capillaries collect lipid droplets from the interstitial fluid.

Lymph containing the lipid droplets then flows from the capillaries into increasingly larger lymph vessels.

Lymph is then transported into a large tubule structure called a lymph duct, which drains into a large vein near the heart. As a result, the lipid droplets within the lymph enter the bloodstream and circulate throughout the body (Choices A, B, and D).

403
Q

The Tollens test (silver mirror test) is a qualitative test that detects reducing sugars.

A

True

404
Q

The activity of the chondrocytes producing the cartilage of the growth plate stops when linear growth of long bones is complete

A

True

405
Q

Neutrophils are important components of the innate (nonspecific) immune system. Neutrophils perform many functions, including the destruction of pathogens via phagocytosis, the release of granules containing antimicrobial compounds, and the release of neutrophil extracellular traps containing DNA. Neutrophils also release cytokines (chemical signals) that regulate different immune responses.

A

True

406
Q

translation and transcription occur at the same time in prokaryotes

A

True

407
Q

uncompetitive bind ES,
noncompetitive bind both ES and S

A

True

408
Q

anterior pituitary contains glandular endocrine, posterior pituitary is from ectodermal neural tissue

A

True

409
Q

Direct hormones work directly on their target, while tropic hormone work by stimulating/inhibiting some other structure that will have its own endocrine fxn

A

True

410
Q

The endocrine pancreas secretes hormones involved in regulation of blood glucose into the bloodstream, while the exocrine pancreas secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate into the small intestine to assist in digestive processes and to neutralize the acidity of chyme.

A

True

411
Q

which amino acid can produce urea

A

amino acid that has amide group

412
Q

alkaline environment meaning

A

more basic environment

413
Q

cardiac sphincter vs pyloric sphincter

A

Cardiac sphincter prevents the backflow of stomach acids and content into the esophagus, while pyloric sphincter controls the release of chyme from the stomach into the duodenum.

414
Q

A protein without its prosthetic group is called an apoprotein, while a protein combined with its prosthetic group is called a holoprotein

A

TRUE

415
Q

name these structures

A

FMN, FADH2, Vitamine B12, Heme

416
Q

A negative ∆G° always indicates an equilibrium constant greater than 1, and a positive ∆G° always indicates an equilibrium constant between 0 and 1.

A

True

417
Q

Because osteocytes are confined to lacunae within a firm matrix in compact bone, signaling molecules released from osteocytes that regulate bone remodeling must travel to their target cells via canaliculi.

A

True

418
Q

Apoenzymes and holoenzymes are two forms of the same enzyme. In the apo form, the enzyme is not bound to a cofactor and is inactive, whereas the holo form is bound to its cofactor (eg, a metal ion) and is active

A

True

419
Q

PAGE gel denature proteins

A

True
Except native gel

420
Q

nephron is where pee is accumulated

A

True

421
Q

which amino acid can be converted to glucose via gluconeogenesis

A

All except leucine and lysine

422
Q

phosphorylation is covalent bond

A

True

423
Q

two types of rna that reduce expression

A

siRNA and miRNA
siRNA: - Functions in RNA interference (post transcriptional control)
-Binds complementary mRNA and signals for its degradation

miRNA: - Functions in RNA interference
-Binds target complementary sequence on mRNA molecule to silence gene expression

424
Q

hybrid offspring successfully mate with members of either parental species, genetic leakage may occur

A

true
Genetic leakage is the transfer of genes between different species

425
Q

mitochondria matrix

A

the very inside of membrane

426
Q

turn-over number in enzyme

A

kcat

427
Q

Michaelis constant in enzyme

A

Km

428
Q

how are protein and triglycerides converted to glucose

A

note: in contrast, fatty acid cannot make glucose
note: lysine and leucine can’t not make glucose
note: deamination converts amino acids into pyruvate

429
Q

phosphodiester bond

A
430
Q

G and C (hydrogen bond doner vs receiver)

A

G donates 2, accept 1
C donates 1, accept 2

431
Q

5′-3′ exonuclease repair which end

A

5’

432
Q

ADH increase blood volume and pressure

A

True

433
Q

The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDHC) catalyzes the decarboxylation of pyruvate to form acetyl-CoA,

A

True

434
Q

adenylate cyclase

A

it’s in the G protein signaling pathway

435
Q

Glycogen is a branched molecule composed of several linked glucose units. Each incoming unit is linked to the growing chain by a bond between carbon 1 of the incoming glucose and either carbon 4 or carbon 6 of a glucose unit in the growing glycogen chain. α(1→4) linkages are facilitated by glycogen synthase whereas α(1→6) linkages are facilitated by the glycogen branching enzyme.

A

True

436
Q

glycogenolysis

A
437
Q

steroids pass blood brain barrier

A

True

438
Q

boiling point require vapor pressure = atmosphere pressure

A

True

439
Q

sulfate vs sulfite

A

SO4(2-) is sulfate
SO3(2-) is sulfite

440
Q

Hybridization is the double-strand formation (or annealing) between two different single strands of DNA or RNA due to base-pairing of complementary regions.

A

True

441
Q

troponin responsible for muscle contraction in cardiac and skeletal muscle

A

True

442
Q

beta oxidation (how to count down)

A
443
Q

pleural pressure decreases during inspiration

A

True

444
Q

thyroid promotes osteoblast
parathyroid promotes osteoclast

A

True

445
Q

glycogenolysis

A
446
Q

glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase is the first step in PPP

A

True

447
Q

types of muscles

A
448
Q

Spermatogenesis is a process that occurs in the seminiferous tubules of the testes in which male gametes (sperm) are produced. Spermatogonia undergo meiotic division and become spermatocytes, which then become spermatids when meiosis is completed. Spermatids then mature into spermatozoa (mature sperm) through a series of morphological changes.

A

True

449
Q

PPP function

A

produce NADPH and play a role in ribonucleotide synthesis. NADPH (along with ATP) is also used in fatty acid synthesis

450
Q

interphase of cell cycle

A

consists of G1, S, G2

451
Q

hydrolyzable lipids

A

triacylglycerols, phospholipids, sphingolipids, and waxes (the ones that contain ester group)

452
Q

Emulsification

A

Lipid processing begins in the small intestine (duodenum), where bile salts break down lipid globules into smaller droplets in a process called emulsification

note: bile salt is both hydrophilic and hydrophobic

453
Q

thyroid gland produces thyroid hormones which increase metabolism

A
454
Q

Amino acids are converted to α-keto acids (amino acid carbon skeletons) through transamination reactions.

A

True

455
Q

Transamination: Occurs when an amino group on an amino acid is “transferred” to a ketoacid. The product of this reaction is nearly always glutamate or aspartate.

A

True

456
Q

Fragments of DNA that can move between different areas of the genome are called transposons.

A

True

457
Q

esterification of cholesterol make the molecule go from amphiphathic to hydrophobic

A

True

458
Q

Oxaloacetate is an α-keto acid, which can serve as a substrate for transamination reactions (transamination converts oxaloacetate into aspartate)

A

True

459
Q

Helper T-lymphocytes produce signaling molecules called cytokines that activate other cells of the immune system and enhance immune cell activity.

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes cause apoptosis to occur in pathogen-infected cells.

A

True

460
Q

cortical bones is the exterior, cancellous bone is the interior

A

True

461
Q

synovial fluid

A

the fluid between joins

462
Q

retina

A

back of the eye, convert light to neural signals

463
Q

both exocrine and endocrine are epithelial cells

A

True

464
Q

quaternary structure, exists only for multimeric proteins.

A

True

465
Q

histone is positive, dna is negative

A

True

466
Q

ribosome production

A

Ribosomal proteins are synthesized in the cytoplasm from mRNA and transported into the nucleolus, where they combine with the newly transcribed rRNA to form precursors to the 40S and 60S subunits. These subunits are then shuttled out of the nucleus via nuclear pores and fully mature in the cytoplasm.

467
Q

enzyme can’t function without cofactor or coenzyme

A

True

468
Q

Identity diffusion (low commitment, low exploration): People at this level lack direction, have not explored options, and have not committed to a particular career path or future.

Identity foreclosure (high commitment, low exploration): People at this level have accepted an identity that they have been assigned (typically by a parent or authority figure) without contemplation or exploration.

Identity moratorium (low commitment, high exploration): People at this level are still trying new activities and thinking about a career path, but have not yet arrived at a decision.

Identity achievement (high commitment, high exploration): People at this level have explored their options and typically feel confident about who they are and what they want to do in the future.

A

True

469
Q
A

True

470
Q

ELISA technique

A

uses antibody to detect protein

471
Q

RER vs SER

A

RER -> Continuous with nucleus, has ribosomes, involved in protein synthesis (exocytosed proteins mostly).

SER -> Not continuous, involved in lipid synthesis and sequestration of Ca2+. Also involve in detoxification of drugs

472
Q

G protein signal pathway

A
473
Q

kreb cycle

A
474
Q

ADEK vitamin

A

ADEK is fat soluble. These dissolve directly into chylomicrons to enter lymphatic circulation like fats. BC are water soluble

475
Q

rough ER vs smooth ER

A

rough ER (has ribosome) for protein systhesis and transport
smooth ER for lipid systhesis

476
Q

trypomyosin blocks myosin head

A

that’s why you need Ca+ to unblock it

477
Q

Th vs Tc vs B cell

A

Tc target bad cells (bind MHCI), B cells produce antigen, Th is activated when bind to MHCII

478
Q

bile is not enzyme

A

so liver does not secrete digestive enzyme

479
Q

post-translational modification

A

Phosphorylation, Acetylation, Glycosylation, methylation, ubiquination, hydroxylation, Disulfide-Bond Formation

480
Q

pancreatic enzymes memonic

A

pan PAL
PAL = peptidase, amylase, lipase

peptidase include trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidases A and B

481
Q

hnRNA vs snRNA vs mRNA

A

hnRNA is the original RNA, snRNA is the slicesome that cuts the hnRNA, which produces mRNA (with introns removed)

482
Q

activator, repressor, silencer, promotor, and more !

A
483
Q

striated muscles have or not have sarcomere

A

they have sarcomere

484
Q

what is the product of fatty acid synthesis

A

Palmitic acid is 16 carbons long

485
Q

once the AP is initiated via ligand gated channels, what propagates it are the voltage gated Na+ channels on the axon membrane

A

true

486
Q

hormones from the anterior pituitary are synthesized in the anterior pit (it is made of glandular tissue) whereas hormones from the posterior pit are made in the hypothalamus (the posterior pit is comprised of literally the axons of the hypothalamic neurons) and then sent down to the posterior pit to be stored before release!

A

True

487
Q

proline is found where

A

Notably, β-turns, which commonly contain proline, are highly structured and inflexible

488
Q

long bone structure

A
489
Q

bone structure
canaliculi, osteoid, lamellae, lacunae

A
490
Q

antibodies bind covalently or noncovalently

A

Noncovalently

491
Q

lipids rafts

A

These domains tend to be rich in cholesterol and relatively poor in phospholipids.

Note: highly ordered (low entropy)

492
Q

pyruvate structure

A
493
Q

thymus

A

where T cells mature
Note: T cell synthesis began in bone marrow tho

thymus is part of lymphatic system

494
Q

reactive oxygen species

A

reactive oxygen species (ROS), can lead to permeabilization of the mitochondrial membranes, allowing for the escape of cytochrome c from the intermembrane space

495
Q

synaptic transmission ligand-gated ion channel

A
496
Q

electrons are transferred from species with lower reduction potentials (ie, less affinity for electrons) to species with higher reduction potentials (ie, more affinity for electrons) throughout the chain

A

True

497
Q

liver produce way more glucose than muscle via glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

A

True

498
Q

Electrical synapses vs chemical synapses

A

Electrical synapses transfer information from one cell to another via passive ionic current flow through gap junctions. In contrast, chemical synapses use neurotransmitters to transfer information, which is a slower process.

499
Q

GABA

A

(GABA) is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter of the central nervous system

500
Q

PCR need high or low GC content

A

GC-rich DNA fragments tend to be more stable at high temperatures; therefore, primers must have a substantial amount of GC content (40%-60%) to avoid premature denaturation during PCR.

501
Q

PCR

A

Amplify DNA

502
Q

titration curve

A

half equivalence point is pKa
note: full equivalence point would be when titrant added is just enough to completely neutralize the analyte solution

503
Q

High salt concentration of the solution increases double helix stability

A

As cations neutralizes negative charged phosphate

504
Q

why are mitochondria considered semiautonomous

A

possessing their own genes and self-replicating via binary fission

505
Q

what happen when repolarization occurs more slowly

A

hyperexcitability

506
Q

mix inhibitors

A

can be competitive favored or uncompetitive favored

507
Q

Do all prokaryotes and eukaryotes have ribosome?

A

Yes
Note: virus does not have ribosome

508
Q

stacking interaction mostly occur between which type of amino acids?

A

aromatic amino acids

509
Q

Secondary structure always includes hydrogen bonds between amide carbonyls and NH groups in the polypeptide backbone

A

True

510
Q

Beta-sheets can be oriented in either a parallel or an antiparallel manner.

A
511
Q

Water-soluble vitamins (B series, C) are excreted in the urine whereas fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K) are stored in adipose and other fatty tissues.

A

True

512
Q

enzymes only recognize L amino acids

A

True

513
Q

negative vs positive vs noncoorperativity

A
514
Q

membrane potential ions flow chart

A
515
Q

Morphogens

A

Morphogens are signaling molecules whose concentration patterns influence cell differentiation

516
Q

blood composition

A
517
Q

leydig cells vs Sertoli cells

A

Sperm production occurs in Sertoli cells, but the production of testosterone by Leydig cells is required for the production of sperm in Sertoli cells. So, both are important.

518
Q

glycolysis enzymes

A
519
Q

vivo vs vitro

A

In vitro means doing a test in a test tube/plate OUTSIDE of an organism. In vivo means doing a test on a living organism

520
Q

ternary complex vs ping pong mechanism

A

Ping-pong mechanism, in which one substrate binds, reacts, and leaves before the other substrate binds.

Formation of a ternary complex, in which three molecules are bound togethe

521
Q

during muscle contraction, which bands get shortened

A
522
Q

muscle contraction in detail

A
523
Q

division of nervous system

A
524
Q

telomerase

A

add telomere to ends of chromosome, thus preventing senescene

525
Q

prokaryotes vs eukaryoes

A

prokaryotes: circular, not telomere, no histone, no membrane bound organelles
eukaryotes: linear, with telomere, with histone, with membrane bound-organelles

Both have double stranded DNA

525
Q

Most eukaryotic cells (except germ cells) undergo cell division via mitosis. In contrast, prokaryotic cells duplicate via binary fission, a simple form of reproduction that does not involve the separation of chromosomes by spindle fibers

A

True

526
Q

Prokaryotic cells have no nucleus; therefore, transcription and translation occur simultaneously in the cytoplasm (ie, translation begins before the mRNA is fully transcribed). In contrast, in eukaryotic cells transcription and post-transcriptional modifications occur in the nucleus but translation occurs in the cytoplasm

A

True

527
Q

one codon represents one amino acid

A

True

528
Q

each complex on the ETC is coupled to one another

A

True

529
Q

endosome

A

transporting stuff from extracellular or from golgi to lysozyme (late endosome)

530
Q

kinetochore

A

where microtubules attach during cell division

531
Q

three assumptions for Michaelis menten kinetics

A
532
Q

ionophores

A

Ionophores are compounds that bind to ions and facilitate their movements across membranes

533
Q

isoelectric focusing

A

Isoelectric focusing separates proteins based on their pIs. The technique uses an electric field and a pH gradient which causes proteins to stop moving at a pH equal to their pI.

534
Q

delta G = -nRT lnK

A
535
Q

alternative splicing increases protein diversity but not genetic diversity

A

True

536
Q

miRNAs

A

miRNAs bind complementary sequences on target messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules, consequently inhibiting expression of the target mRNA by either blocking its translation or marking it for degradation.

537
Q

epinephrine activate which two glucose pathway

A

glycolysis
glycogenolysis

538
Q

terpene vs isoprene

A

terpene is when there are multiple isoprene

539
Q

is carbon 4 R or S

A

S

540
Q

direction of elastic force

A

towards equilibrium

541
Q

SDS gel is polyacrylamide gel

A

polyacrylamide gel has smaller pore than agaros gel (this makes sense because protein is smaller than DNA)

542
Q

proteins are generally small than DNA

A

true

543
Q

transamination

A
544
Q

kidney function

A
545
Q

glycogen phosphorylase

A
546
Q

Primary active transport uses the energy from ATP hydrolysis to move a substance against its concentration gradient. Secondary active transport uses the energy released by the passive transport of another molecule.

A

True

547
Q

is hydrolysis of peptide bond spontaneous or nonspontaneous

A

spontaneous (thermodynamically)(-ΔG)

548
Q

released phosphorylated glucose from glycogen is from reducing or nonreducing end of glycogen branches?

A

non reducing end

549
Q

The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex requires lipoic acid for activity.

A

true

550
Q

beta oxidation of fatty acids counting

A
551
Q

citric acid cycle

A
552
Q

posterior pituitary pathway

A
553
Q

zygote

A
554
Q

what amino acid are not found in alpha-helix

A

proline and glycine

555
Q

example of non-reducing sugar

A

sucrose is non-reducing
Note: fructose is reducing

556
Q

peritoneal cavity vs pleural cavity

A
557
Q

male reproductive system

A
557
Q

chyme is produced

A

chyme produced by stomach is highly acidic, but it’s neutralized by pancreatic juice

558
Q

f factor vs r factor

A

A type of F factor is an R factor which encodes for antibiotic resistance

Factor only occurs in conjugation (bacteria fucking)

559
Q

polar bodies

A

polar bodies do not have less organelles or genetic material; it’s just a smaller amount of cytoplasm that does not allow the cell (the polar body) to survive

560
Q

vitamin C

A

promote bone formation

561
Q
A

Henry's MCAT Flashcards (3 decks)

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