BIO 2290 Flashcards

1
Q

What are biopharmaceutical applications of bacteria?

A

Bacteria are used to create proteins that are useful to us by transcribing and translating genes in plasmids.

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2
Q

How are bacteria used in transgenic organism creation?

A

Bacteria help in creating transgenic organisms by expressing foreign DNA.

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3
Q

What are cDNA libraries used for?

A

cDNA libraries are used for genotyping and phenotyping studies.

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4
Q

What is competent bacteria?

A

Bacteria that can take up exogenous DNA.

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5
Q

What features must an appropriate plasmid have?

A

It must be taken up and expressed in bacteria and allow for screening of bacteria with the plasmid and insert.

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6
Q

Why is the plasmid’s origin of replication (Ori) important?

A

It ensures multiple copies of the plasmid exist in each bacterial cell.

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7
Q

What is antibiotic resistance in plasmids used for?

A

It provides a selectable marker, ensuring only transformed bacteria survive on antibiotic plates.

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8
Q

Why identify restriction enzyme sites on a plasmid map?

A

To know where to insert DNA fragments.

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9
Q

What is the multiple cloning site (MCS)?

A

A region with a high density of restriction enzyme sites where DNA fragments can be ligated.

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10
Q

Where is the MCS located?

A

In the LacZ operon.

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11
Q

What does LacZ code for?

A

β-galactosidase, which creates a blue pigment when metabolizing its substrate.

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12
Q

How does the LacZ system indicate successful ligation?

A

White colonies indicate successful ligation, while blue colonies indicate no ligation.

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13
Q

What is the first step in plasmid insertion?

A

Digest both plasmid and DNA insert with the same enzyme.

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14
Q

How is recombinant plasmid introduced into bacteria?

A

By transforming competent E. coli and plating on antibiotic plates.

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15
Q

How are colonies prepared for plasmid isolation?

A

Pick colonies and incubate them in liquid LB overnight.

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16
Q

What technique is used to isolate plasmid DNA?

A

Mini prep

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17
Q

What is the role of restriction enzymes?

A

To cut DNA at specific sites.

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18
Q

What are sticky ends?

A

DNA ends cut in an offset manner, creating single-stranded overhangs.

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19
Q

What are blunt ends?

A

DNA ends cut straight across without overhangs.

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20
Q

Why are sticky ends more efficient for ligation?

A

They provide complementary base pair attraction.

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21
Q

What is the issue with single/blunt digests in ligation?

A

The insert can go in any orientation, which may disrupt proper expression.

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22
Q

How does a double digest address orientation?

A

It creates two different sticky ends, ensuring the insert can only go in one orientation.

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23
Q

Why is the insert-to-vector ratio important?

A

It affects ligation efficiency and must be optimized (e.g., starting at 3:1).

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24
Q

What is transformation in bacteria?

A

Transformation is the process of inserting a plasmid into a bacterial cell, where the plasmid remains exogenous and floats around in the cell.

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25
Q

What is the role of adhesion zones in bacterial membranes?

A

Adhesion zones are small gaps in the membrane used for communication but are too small for plasmids to pass through naturally.

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26
Q

Why does the plasmid face difficulty crossing the bacterial membrane?

A

The phosphate backbone of the plasmid and the bacterial membrane are both negatively charged, causing repulsion.

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27
Q

What barriers does the intracellular space present to plasmids?

A

The intracellular space is negatively charged, regulated by proton pumps, and repels the plasmid.

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28
Q

How does CaCl2 treatment help in transformation?

A

Ca2+ neutralizes the negative charges on the bacterial membrane and plasmid.

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29
Q

Why is cooling on ice important during transformation?

A

Cooling stabilizes negative charges and slows molecular movement, aiding Ca2+ in neutralizing charges.

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30
Q

How do heat pulses assist in plasmid uptake?

A

Heat pulses release lipids from the bacterial membrane, creating larger openings by fusing pores with adhesion zones, allowing plasmid entry.

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31
Q

What role does the osmotic gradient play in plasmid uptake?

A

Water flows down the osmotic gradient, helping draw the plasmid into the cell.

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32
Q

How does heat affect intracellular negative charge?

A

The heat pulse shuts down proton pumps, increasing positive hydrogen ions and reducing the negative charge.

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33
Q

Why is LB broth added after transformation?

A

LB broth provides nutrients and growth factors, maximizing bacterial metabolism.

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34
Q

What is the lag phase?

A

A phase at 37°C where the plasmid is transcribed, translated, and replicated in bacteria, ensuring antibiotic resistance and plasmid establishment.

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35
Q

Why is plasmid replication important?

A

To ensure multiple copies are available for daughter cells and for expressing the DNA insert.

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36
Q

What assumption is made when picking bacterial colonies?

A

Each colony originates from a single bacterium, meaning bacteria in the colony are genetically identical.

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37
Q

Why are colonies picked and grown in liquid culture?

A

To amplify identical bacteria containing a plasmid with the specific insert for plasmid isolation.

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38
Q

What is the purpose of a miniprep?

A

To isolate plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.

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39
Q

How are bacterial cells collected?

A

By centrifuging liquid culture to form a cell pellet and discarding the supernatant.

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40
Q

What does the lysis buffer do?

A

It contains SDS and chaotropic salts to destabilize proteins and aid nucleic acid binding to silica membranes.

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41
Q

Why is neutralization important?

A

It precipitates SDS and proteins, preventing DNA degradation and improving plasmid yield.

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42
Q

How is DNA bound to the silica membrane?

A

High salt concentration facilitates binding of RNA and DNA to the membrane during centrifugation.

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43
Q

Why are alcohol-based washes used?

A

To remove salts that can interfere with downstream enzymatic reactions.

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44
Q

How is plasmid DNA eluted from the membrane?

A

Using a low ionic strength solution like water or TE buffer, followed by centrifugation to collect plasmid DNA.

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45
Q

What is the difference between technical and experimental controls?

A

Technical controls ensure the technique is working, while experimental controls represent normal conditions for comparison.

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46
Q

What were the technical controls in the experiment?

A

Insert Plate: Looking for white colonies (contain insert).

H2O Plate: Control plate with water instead of insert; expects only blue colonies.

Uncut Plasmid Plate: Ensures E. coli can be transformed by the plasmid; expects blue colonies.

TE Buffer Plate: No plasmid; expects no colonies as no resistance gene is present.

TE Buffer on LB Plate: Ensures E. coli is alive; expects growth as no antibiotic is present.

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47
Q

What happens if controls show unexpected results?

A

The experiment’s data cannot be trusted, and no conclusions can be drawn.

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48
Q

What information should tables include when counting colonies?

A

Sample name, plate type, number of white colonies, and number of blue colonies

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49
Q

Why is ligation diluted?

A

To ensure individual colonies are visible and countable.

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50
Q

What determines the orientation of the insert in a plasmid?

A

Whether one or two restriction enzymes are used in the digestion process. Using one enzyme allows for two possible orientations; using two enzymes ensures a single orientation.

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51
Q

Why is the orientation of the insert important?

A

For correct expression of the insert, the orientation must align with the 5’-3’ direction.

52
Q

How can the orientation of an insert be determined?

A

By performing restriction digests and analyzing the resulting band patterns on an agarose gel.

53
Q

What enzymes are used in the plasmid mapping digest?

A

EcoRI, BamHI, and a combination of EcoRI + BamHI.

54
Q

Why is agarose gel electrophoresis used?

A

To separate DNA fragments by size and analyze band patterns to determine insert orientation

55
Q

What is the purpose of using a DNA ladder?

A

To compare and identify the sizes of DNA fragments.

56
Q

Why is Red Safe used in gel electrophoresis?

A

It intercalates between DNA base pairs and fluoresces under UV light, allowing visualization of DNA bands.

57
Q

What forms of uncut plasmid DNA can be seen on a gel?

A

Supercoiled (smallest band), nicked (single-strand cut, slowest), and linear (double-strand cut).

58
Q

How do single and double digests differ?

A

A single digest cuts the plasmid once, while a double digest cuts it twice, producing more distinct band patterns.

59
Q

How does gel percentage affect resolution?

A

Higher agarose concentration creates smaller pores, providing greater resolution for smaller fragments but requiring longer run times.

60
Q

What should be included in gel pictures?

A

Labeled lanes, identified band sizes, and the band patterns used to determine insert orientation.

61
Q

What is Kohler illumination?

A

A process for providing even illumination of the field of view, reducing artifacts by adjusting the field diaphragm under different objectives.

62
Q

Why is it necessary to calibrate a pH meter each time?

A

To ensure accuracy, using commercially available solutions of known pH for calibration.

63
Q

Why are buffers important in biological reactions?

A

Many biological reactions are pH-sensitive and require buffer solutions to maintain a stable pH

64
Q

What is Kohler illumination?

A

A process for providing even illumination of the field of view, reducing artifacts by adjusting the field diaphragm under different objectives.

65
Q

Why is it necessary to calibrate a pH meter each time?

A

To ensure accuracy, using commercially available solutions of known pH for calibration.

66
Q

Why are buffers important in biological reactions?

A

Many biological reactions are pH-sensitive and require buffer solutions to maintain a stable pH

67
Q

What does spectrophotometry measure?

A

The concentration of a sample by analyzing how it absorbs light.

68
Q

What is absorption spectroscopy?

A

The use of light to probe matter by measuring how a sample absorbs light at specific wavelengths.

69
Q

What is %T in spectrophotometry?

A

The percentage of light that gets through the sample, calculated as %T = (Pout / Pin) x 100.

70
Q

How is absorbance related to concentration?

A

Absorbance is linearly related to concentration and is calculated using the formula A = 2 - log(%T).

71
Q

Why is a maximum wavelength used in absorbance studies?

A

To measure absorbance at the wavelength where the molecule absorbs the most light, minimizing interference from other molecules.

72
Q

What are the modes of operation for a microplate reader?

A

Absorbance: Works like a spectrophotometer.

Fluorescence: Detects light emitted by fluorescent tags.

Luminescence: Measures natural light emission from samples.

73
Q

Why are triplicates used in spectrophotometry?

A

To measure precision of the instrument by averaging readings from the same sample.

74
Q

What is the difference between technical and biological replicates?

A

Technical replicates measure the same sample multiple times for precision, while biological replicates measure distinct samples for variability.

75
Q

What are colorimetric assays used for?

A

For relative quantification by comparing samples

76
Q

What are the advantages of lab studies?

A

More controlled environment, useful when variables of interest are identified.

77
Q

What are the limitations of lab studies?

A

May miss interacting variables present in nature.

78
Q

What are the advantages of field studies?

A

More realistic for examining environmental effects on variables of interest.

79
Q

What are the limitations of field studies?

A

Harder to control and may be difficult or impossible during certain times of the year.

80
Q

What is the purpose of statistical analysis?

A

It determines if the treatment affected the variable of interest.

81
Q

What is the Null Hypothesis in statistical hypothesis testing?

A

It states that the independent variable does not have an effect on the dependent variable.

82
Q

What is the Alternative Hypothesis in statistical hypothesis testing?

A

It states that the independent variable does have an effect on the dependent variable.

83
Q

What does the P-value represent in statistical analysis?

A

The probability that the null hypothesis is supported. A low p-value suggests the independent variable had an effect, and a high p-value suggests it did not.

84
Q

What is the critical value in statistical tests?

A

It is the threshold value, historically set at 0.05, used to compare against the probability statistic.

85
Q

When should a correlation test be used?

A

When both the dependent and independent variables are continuous.

86
Q

How should results from a correlation test be reported?

A

As (Pearson correlation coefficient =, n =, P =).

87
Q

What does “Multiple R” represent in regression analysis?

A

It is the Pearson correlation coefficient.

88
Q

How should results from regression analysis be presented?

A

As y range (dependent variable), x range (independent variable), with Multiple R, Observance (sample size), and Significance (p-value).

89
Q

What does a T-test compare?

A

It compares a continuous dependent variable with a categorical independent variable that has two different treatments.

90
Q

How should T-test results be reported?

A

As (t =, df =, p =).

91
Q

What is an ANOVA test used for?

A

To compare a continuous dependent variable with a categorical independent variable that has more than two treatments.

92
Q

How should results from an ANOVA test be reported?

A

As (F =, df = first df, second df, P =).

93
Q

What is a post-hoc test used for?

A

To determine which treatments are different from each other after an ANOVA.

94
Q

Why is a correction applied to p-values in post-hoc tests?

A

To account for the multiple tests being performed, which may lead to false positives. The critical value is found by dividing 0.05 by the number of pairwise comparisons.

95
Q

How are bar charts used in statistical tests like T-tests and ANOVA?

A

They display the data with axis labels, mean plots, error bars (standard deviation), and sometimes differentiate groups using letters.

96
Q

Why is it important to make a research paper attention-grabbing?

A

A good title and abstract increase visibility, leading to more readers and potential funding.

97
Q

What should not be included in the abstract of a research paper?

A

Results, statistics, or references.

98
Q

What does the “Acknowledgements” section of a research paper do?

A

It acknowledges contributions made by others to the research.

99
Q

What determines the structure of a research paper?

A

The structure varies depending on the journal.

100
Q

What are the typical sections of a research paper?

A

Title, Abstract, Introduction, Materials and Methods, Results, Discussion, Acknowledgements, References

101
Q

What sections are included in a poster presentation?

A

Title, Introduction, Materials and Methods, Results, Discussion, Acknowledgements, References.

102
Q

How should species be referred to in a research paper?

A

Use both the common and scientific name the first time, then just the common name.

103
Q

What is the C-C-C structure for paragraphs?

A

Context (topic sentence), Content (related information), Conclusion (summarizes main idea).

104
Q

What is a good approach for writing a title?

A

Keep it clear, interesting, and concise. Include the key result.

105
Q

What should an abstract include?

A

A short summary with context, research question, hypothesis, methods, results (no statistics), and findings in context.

106
Q

What should the introduction of a research paper contain?

A

References, context, objective, hypothesis, predictions, and a narrowing focus.

107
Q

What should be included in the Materials and Methods section?

A

A detailed explanation of what was done, how the experiment can be repeated, unique equipment used, and reasons for excluding data.

108
Q

What is the purpose of the Results section?

A

To discuss the findings, including statistical tests and results, sample size, and a narrative. Present results as tables or figures.

109
Q

What should be avoided in the Results section?

A

Interpreting biological mechanisms.

110
Q

What should the Discussion section address?

A

Interpretation of results, biological explanations, comparison with other studies, and the importance of the results.

111
Q

What should be included in the Acknowledgements section?

A

A list of people who supported the research.

112
Q

How should references be formatted in a research paper?

A

References should be in alphabetical order, and in-text citations should avoid repetition by citing once and referring back to it.

113
Q

What is important when writing the Materials and Methods section?

A

It should contain enough detail to allow the experiment to be repeated by others, including any necessary equipment and methods.

114
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary scientific sources?

A

Primary sources provide direct evidence about an event or object, usually including methods and results. Secondary sources describe, analyze, or comment on a primary source, often published in a book or journal.

115
Q

What is a meta-analysis?

A

A meta-analysis combines several empirical studies to identify an overall pattern in results. It includes methods describing how articles were selected and results with a graph showing effect size. Larger effect sizes indicate a bigger difference between treatments.

116
Q

What characterizes an experiment in scientific communication?

A

An experiment manipulates one or more variables to observe the effects of a treatment, usually following a full factorial design.

117
Q

What is an observation in scientific research?

A

An observation uses natural variation to study the effects of the environment on subjects, offering a way to test hypotheses.

118
Q

What is the purpose of a model in scientific research?

A

A model allows scientists to test their understanding of a system by manipulating important variables to predict how the system behaves.

119
Q

What is a review article?

A

A review summarizes existing knowledge on a topic, identifies gaps, and may propose new hypotheses for further testing.

120
Q

What role do blogs and news stories play in scientific communication?

A

Blogs and news stories provide a way to quickly comment on or disseminate research to the public.

121
Q

How do books differ when written for a scientific audience?

A

Books written for a scientific audience are more rigorous and correct, with higher standards of evidence and clarity.

122
Q

What is the typical sequence in a research method?

A

Observation, Question, Hypothesis, Prediction, Test, Report Results, Recommend Action.

123
Q

What is the peer review process in scientific publishing?

A

A scientist submits a paper, which is reviewed by editors and scientists. If revisions are suggested, the paper is returned to the author. If reviewers give positive feedback, the editor recommends publication.

124
Q

What happens if a paper is rejected during the peer review process?

A

The scientist addresses the reviewers’ suggestions and submits the revised paper to another journal.

125
Q

How do different journals affect reference styles?

A

Different journals have different reference styles. It’s important to pay attention to in-text citations and the format of references.