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BIO 181 > BIO 181 Exam 3 > Flashcards

BIO 181 Exam 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the similarities between Meiosis and Mitosis?

A
  1. Produces daughter cells after first division that are diploid
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2
Q

What are the differences between Meiosis and Mitosis?

A

Mitosis:

  1. DIvision of one cell into two identical cells
  2. Diploid cells produced
  3. One division cycle
  4. Occurs in all cells but sex cells

Meiosis:

  1. One cell divides into four different cells
  2. Haploid cells produced
  3. Two division cycles
  4. Occurs in sex cells
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3
Q

Where does crossover occur in Meiosis?

A

Crossover occurs during Prophase I

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4
Q

What are the major features of the haploid, diploid and alteration of generations life cycles? In each life cycle, where are there haploid cells, diploid cells, and when do Meiosis and Mitosis occur?

A

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5
Q

What is a karyotype?

A

A display of the chromosome pairs of a cell arranged by size and shape

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6
Q

Who was Mendel, what organism did he study, and what did he discover?

A

He was a geneticist who used the scientific approach to identify two laws of inheritance (Independent assortment and the law of segregation), and studied pea plants.

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7
Q

What is the law of independent assortment?

A

Mendel’s second law, stating that each pair of alleles segregates, or assorts, independently from each other pair during gamete formation.

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8
Q

What is the law of segregation?

A

Mendel’s first law, stating that the two alleles in a pair segregate into different gametes during gamete formation.

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9
Q

How do you use a Punnett Square to determine an expected phenotypic ratio of a cross?

A

Punnett Squares predict the allele coposition of offspring from a cross between individuals of a known genetic makeup.

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10
Q

What is a test cross and how is it used?

A

A test cross uses a Punnett Square to determine the genotype of an unknown organism. It is crossed with a recessive homozygote to determine it’s genotype.

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11
Q

What are dominant and recessive genes?

A

Dominant- An allele that is fully expressed in the phenotype of a heterozygote.
Recessive- An allele whose phenotype effect is not observed in a heterozygote.

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12
Q

What is pleiotrophy, epistasis, incomplete dominance, codominance, and polygenic inheritance?

A

Pleiotrophy- The ability of a single gene to have multiple effects. EX; The disease PKU can cause mental retardation, hair loss, and reduced hair and skin pigmentation, and can be caused by any mutation on a single gene.

Epistasis- A gene interaction in which the phenotypic expression of one gene alters that of another gene. EX; The gene for Albinism hides the gene controlling the color of a person’s hair.

Incomplete Dominance- For some genes, neither allele is completely dominant, and the F1 hybrids have a phenotype somewhere between those of the two parental varieties. EX; A white flower and a red flower are mated, and the offspring show codominance by having pink flowers; the gene for curly hair is dominant and the gene for straight hair is recessive, but an offspring of a person with curly hair and a person with straight hair would have wavy hair.

Codominance- The two alleles affect the phenotype in separate ways. EX; A white flower and a red flower are mated, and the offspring show traits of having a white base with red spots; In human blood, the blood types A and B are equally dominant. So a person with both types A and B would have AB blood.

Polygenic inheritance- An additive effect of two or more genes on a single phenotypic character. EX; Height, weight, skin color, and intelligence use two or more genes for inheritance.

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13
Q

How are human blood groups inherited?

A

If the mother has type A blood and her child has type O blood, can the father have type B blood?

Yes, technically the mother has type AO blood. So if the father has type B, he has BO blood. The child can inherit either the A and B to make AB blood, or he can inherit type O blood since it is present in both the parents.

If the mother has type O blood and her child has type O blood, can the father have type AB blood?

No, the father would either have to have type O, type A, or type B blood in order for the child to have inherited type O blood.

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14
Q

How can the environment influence gene expression?

A

The outcome of a genotype lies within its norm of reaction, a phenotypic range that depends on the environment in which the genotype is expressed. EX; Hydrangea flowers very in color depending on the acidity of the soil they are grown in; A siamese cat has black tipped ears, feet, and tail because the darker pigments grow on the coldest parts of the body to keep them warm.

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15
Q

How do you test a fetus for genetic disorders?

A

Amniocentesis- This procedure can determine whether the developing fetus has Tay-Sachs disease by inserting a needle through the abdomen into the uterus.
Chorionie Villus Sampling- A narrow tube is inserted through the cervix into the uterus and suctions out a tiny sample of tissue from the placenta.

Today, blood tests from the mother and the father can test for genetic disorders.

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16
Q

What is a chromosome?

A

A cellular structure carrying genetic material, found in the nucleus. Each chromosome consists of one DNA molecule and associated proteins.

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17
Q

How are gender and sex linked traits inherited?

A

Through the X and Y system. The sex of an offspring depends on whether the sperm cell contains an X or Y chromosome.

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18
Q

How are genes on the same chromosome inherited?

A

Through the process of crossing over.

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19
Q

How do you map and determine how far apart two genes are on a chromosome using fruit flies?

A

You

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20
Q

How are chromosomes altered?

A

The are altered during crossover, by deletion, duplication, inversion, and translocation.

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21
Q

What is deletion, duplication, inversion, and translocation?

A

Deletion- A segment of DNA separates and is deleted.
Duplication- A segment of DNA occurs more than once in one chromosome.
Inversion- A segment of DNA separates and rejoins the chromosome in an inverted position.
Translocation- A segment of a chromosome breaks off and joins a nonhomologous chromosome.

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22
Q

What is genomic imprinting?

A

The inheritance of mRNA from the mother affects your phenotype.

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23
Q

What is DNA, its bases, and how do they pair?

A

DNA is Deoxyribonucleic acid, and its bases are Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and Thymine. Adenine and Thymine pair, and Guanine and Cytosine pair.

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24
Q

What is RNA, its bases, and how do they pair?

A

RNA is Ribonucleic acid, and its bases are Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and Uracil. Adenine and Uracil pair, and Guanine and Cytosine pair.

25
Q

What is the Griffith transformation experiment, and how did Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty add to it?

A

The experiment suggested the bacteria are capable of transforming genetic information through transformation.

26
Q

What did Rosalind Franklin do to help illustrate the structure of DNA?

A

She conducted critical experiments resulting in the photograph that allowed Watson and Crick to deduce the double-helical structure of DNA.

27
Q

What was the Hershey and Chase experiment?

A

That experiment demonstrated that DNA was the genetic material in 1952.

28
Q

What are Chargaff’s Rules?

A
  1. DNA has complex variability that was different in different species
  2. The amount of Adenine is always equal to the amount of Thymine
  3. The amount of Guanine is always equal to the amount of Cytosine
29
Q

Who were Watson and Crick and what did they discover?

A

They were scientists who discovered the double helix shape of DNA.

30
Q

What is the Meselson and Stahl experiment?

A

The experiment supported the hypothesis that DNA replication was semi-conservative.

31
Q

What are the differences in replication origins between eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes- DNA is linear, so there are many replication origins and multiple replication bubbles.
Prokaryotes- DNA is arranged in a circular shape, and there is only one replication origin when replication starts.

32
Q

What are the leading and lagging strands?

A

Leading strand- The new complementary DNA strand that is synthesized continuously along the template strand towards the replication fork.
Lagging strand- A discontinuously synthesized DNA strand that elongates by means of Okazaki fragments.

33
Q

What are Okazaki fragments?

A

A short segment of DNA synthesized away from the replication fork on a template strand during DNA replication.

34
Q

What are thymine dimers and how are they repaired?

A

Sometimes in DNA replication, two Thymines bind to each other. Nuclease pulls these Thymines apart, polymerase comes in and repairs the spot, and DNA ligase binds it all back together.

35
Q

What are telomeres and what is their function?

A

Telomeres are special nucleotide sequences at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomal DNA that acts as a kind of buffer zone that protects the organism’s genes.

36
Q

What are the structural features of chromosomes?

A

Centrosomes and telomeres.

37
Q

How are proteins synthesized?

A

Proteins are transcribed to RNA, RNA is processed in the nucleus, it meets with the ribosome,

38
Q

What is the Beadle and Tatum experiment?

A

It determined that mutations cause changes in certain enzymes, which in turn affected specific metabolic pathways.
One gene, one enzyme hypothesis (Link between genes and enzymatic reactions)

39
Q

Where do transcription and translation occur?

A

In Prokaryotes- Both occur in the cell
In Eukaryotes- Transcription occurs inside the nucleus; Translation occurs outside the nucleus in the cytoplasm OR the Rough ER.

40
Q

What is Transfer RNA?

A

tRNA- an RNA molecule that functions as a translator between nucleic acid and protein languages by carrying specific amino acids to the ribosomes, where they recognize the appropriate codons in the mRNA.

41
Q

What is Messenger RNA?

A

mRNA- A type of RNA, synthesized using a DNA template, that attaches to ribosomes in the cytoplasm and specifies the primary structure of a protein.

42
Q

Why is the genetic code called redundant?

A

Because there are multiple amino acids used for each base.

43
Q

What are exons and introns?

A

Exons- A sequence within a primary transcript that remains in the RNA after RNA processing.
Introns- RNA sequences between exons that are removed by splicing.

44
Q

What is the TATA box?

A

A crucial promoter in the DNA sequence that forms the initiation complex at a eukaryotic promotor.

45
Q

What are the post transcriptional modifications of mRNA?

A

A 5’ methyl G cap and a 3’ poly A tail.

46
Q

What are snRNPs and the spliceosome?

A

Spliceosome- Several different snRNPs join with additional proteins to form an even longer assembly line called splicosomes (essential in eukaryotes)
snRNPs- Small Nuclear Ribosomal RNA

47
Q

How is gene expression regulated?

A

.

48
Q

How do repressible and inducible operons function?

A

Inducible- Controls the expression of one or more genes involved in the metabolism of that substance.
Repressible- The presence of a substance (co-repressor) in the environment turns off the expression of those genes in the metabolism of that substance.

49
Q

What are the lac and tryp operons and how do they function?

A

Tryp-Operons- With a co-repressor present, the repressor is active and binds to the operator, resulting in repression of transcription of the structural genes.
Lac-Operons- The repressor binds to a specific region of DNA. In the presence of the inducer, the repressor is inactive and does not bind to the operator, resulting in transcription of the structural genes.

50
Q

What are histone modifications and how do they affect protein synthesis?

A

They

51
Q

What are distal and proximal control elements?

A

Distal- Enhancers that are some distance away from a gene or even located in an intron.
Proximal- Transcription factors close to the promoter.

52
Q

What are enhancers, repressors, and activators?

A

Enhancers- A regulatory DNA sequence to which transcription regulators bind, influencing the rate of transcription of a structural gene that can be many, thousands of base pairs away.
Repressors- A protein that binds to a specific regulatory region of DNA to prevent transcription of an adjacent gene.
Activators- A protein that binds to a specific regulatory region of DNA to permit transcription of an adjacent gene.

53
Q

What is ubiquitin and how does it relate to protein degradation?

A

It is a chemical tag inside of the cells, which makes it recognizable for the protein to be destroyed. (Marks the cell)

54
Q

What is the enzyme dicer, and how does it help regulate gene expression?

A

Chops up micro RNAs.

55
Q

What are Micro RNAs (miRNA), small interfering RNAs (siRNA), and piwi-associated RNAs (piRNA)?

A

miRNA- Small, single-stranded RNA molecules capable of binding to complementary sequences in mRNA molecules. Made from longer RNA precursors that fold back on themselves, forming one or more short, double-strnded hairpin structures.

siRNA- Similar in size and function to miRNAs, but multiple siRNAs are formed from a much longer, linear, double-stranded RNA molecule.

piRNA- Induce formation of heterochromatin, blocking expression of some parasitic DNA elements in the genome, known as transposons. Usually 24-31 nucleotides in length, processed from single-stranded RNA precursors.

56
Q

What is determination and differentiation?

A

Determination refers to the events that lead to the observable differentiation of a cell.
Differentiation is when cells become specialized in structure and function.

57
Q

What is the function of the bicoid protein?

A

Effects genes that are most important for patterning of anterior parts of the embryo.

58
Q

What are proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?

A

Proto-oncogenes- A normal cellular gene that has the potential to become a oncogene.
Tumor-suppressor gene- A gene whose protein produce inhibits cell division, thereby preventing the uncontrolled cell growth that contributes to cancer.

59
Q

What is the multi-step model of cancer development?

A

Cancer occurs by a series of breaking by the tumor suppressor genes and pro to-oncogenes.

BIO 181 (2 decks)

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