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Bio 110 > Bio 110 Final Exam > Flashcards

Bio 110 Final Exam Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What are Diploid Cells?

A

Somatic (nonreproductive) cells of adults that have 2 sets of chromosomes.

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2
Q

What are Haploid Cells?

A

Gametes (eggs and sperm) have only 1 set of chromosomes.

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3
Q

What is sexual reproduction?

A

Reproduction that involves an alternation of meiosis and fertilization

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4
Q

What is a zygote?

A

A fertilized egg that is diploid, resulting from the fusion of two haploid gametes, from a ‘male’ and a ‘female’

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5
Q

What are germ-line cells?

A

Diploid cells that undergo meiosis to produce haploid gametes

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6
Q

What is meiosis?

A

A special type of cell division of germ cells in sexually reproducing organisms that produces gametes (sperm and eggs).

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7
Q

How many rounds of division does Meiosis have?

A

2, Meiosis 1 and Meiosis 2. Each has prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase stages.

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8
Q

What is synapsis?

A

Happens during prophase 1. Homologous chromosomes become closely associated. Includes the formation of synaptonemal complexes.

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9
Q

What are synaptonemal complexes also called?

A

Tetrad and bivalents.

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10
Q

What are Chiasmata?

A

Points of contact/sites of crossing over between two non-sister chromatids belonging to homologous chromosomes.

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11
Q

What is reduction division?

A

The first meiotic division that results in two ‘daughter’ cells that contain one homologue from each chromosome pair; haploid cells with duplicated chromosomes.

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12
Q

What happens during second meiotic division?

A

Does not further reduce the number of chromosomes. This division separates the sister chromatids for each homologue. Results in four haploid cells with unduplicated chromosomes.

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13
Q

What is the process of Meiosis?

A

Interphase
-G1
-S
-G2

Meiosis 1
-Prophase 1
-Metaphase 1
-Anaphase 1
-Telophase 1

Meiosis 2
-Prophase 2
-Metaphase 2
-Anaphase 2
-Telophase 2

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14
Q

What happens during Prophase 1?

A

-Chromosomes coil tighter and become visible, nuclear envelope disappears, spindle forms.
–Each chromosome is composed of 2 sister chromatids.
-Each chromosome pairs its homologue during Synapsis.
-Crossing over (chiasmata) occurs.

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15
Q

What is crossing over?

A

An event where genetic recombination occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes from maternal and paternal parents. Contact is maintained until anaphase 1.

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16
Q

What happens during Metaphase 1?

A

-Paired homologues remain together following crossing over.
-Microtubules from opposite poles attach to each homologue.
-Different from mitosis in that it is not involving each sister chromatid.
-Homologues are aligned at the metaphase plate side by side.
-Orientation of each pair of homologues on the spindle is random.

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17
Q

What happens during Anaphase 1?

A

-Microtubules of the spindle shorten.
-Chiasmata break.
-Homologues are separated from each other and move to opposite poles.
-Sister chromatids remain attached at centromeres and move as one unit toward each pole.
-Each pole has a complete haploid set of chromosomes.
-Independent assortment of maternal and paternal chromosomes adds variability to gene distribution in reproductive cells.

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18
Q

Telophase 1

A

-Homologous chromosomes are separated.
-Nuclear envelope re-forms around each daughter nucleus.
-Each chromosome still consists of two sister chromatids, but are no longer identical due to crossing over.
-Cytokinesis usually occurs, overlapping with telophase 1, forming two haploid daughter cells.
-Meiosis 2 occurs after an interval of variable length.

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19
Q

Meiosis 2

A

-Resembles mitosis without chromosome replication.
-Prophase 2
-Metaphase 2
-Anaphase 2
-Telophase 2

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20
Q

Prophase 2

A

-A new spindle apparatus forms in each cell
-The nuclear envelope breaks down
-The chromosomes, each still composed of two chromatids, move toward the metaphase plate

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21
Q

Metaphase 2

A

-Chromosomes, consisting of sister chromatids joined at the centromere, align along the metaphase plate in each cell.
-Because of crossing over in Meiosis 1, the two sister chromatids of each chromosome are no longer genetically identical.
-Kinetochore microtubules from opposite poles attach to kinetochores of sister chromatids.

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22
Q

Anaphase 2

A

-Kinetochore microtubules shorten.
-Sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the cells.
-The sister chromatids of each chromosome now move as two newly individual chromosomes toward opposite poles.

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23
Q

Telophase 2

A

-The chromosomes arrive at opposite poles
-Nuclear membranes re-form around four different clusters of chromosomes.
-Chromosomes de-condense and are no longer coiled in appearance.
-After cytokinesis, four haploid daughter cells result, each with a haploid set of unreplicated chromosomes.
-Each daughter cell is genetically distinct from the other cells and from the parent cell.

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24
Q

What are the final results of Meiosis 1 and 2

A

-Four cells containing haploid sets of chromosomes.
-In animals, the cells develop directly into gametes (sperm and egg)
-In plants, fungi, and protists, the cells divide mitotically and produce a greater number of gametes

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25
Q

What are the Errors in Meiosis

A

-Nondisjunction: failure of chromosomes to move to opposite poles during either meiotic division.
-Aneuploid gametes: gametes with missing or extra chromosomes.
-The most common cause of spontaneous abortion in humans.

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26
Q

Differences between Mitosis and Meiosis

A

Mitosis:
-produces identical cells

Meiosis:
-produces cells that are not genetically identical
-reduces the number of chromosome sets from two (diploid) to one (haploid).
-Has Synapsis and Crossing over.
-Homologous chromosomes physically connect and exchange genetic information.
-Homologous pairs at the metaphase plate.
-Separation of homologues during anaphase 1.

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27
Q

What is True-Breeding?

A

Offspring are of the same variety when plants self pollinate.

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28
Q

What is a trait?

A

Refers to the variation of a feature/property/character (color, height, texture, etc)

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29
Q

What is cross-fertilization?

A

The fusion of ‘male’ and ‘female’ gametes from different individuals of the same species

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30
Q

What is Cross-Pollination?

A

The process of applying pollen from one flower to the pistils of another flower.

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31
Q

What is Self Pollination?

A

The pollination of a flower by pollen from the same flower or from another flower on the same plant.

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32
Q

Why did Mendel use Pea plants for his experiment?

A

-Pea plants can produce hybrids/
-Many varieties available.
-Small plants; easy to grow and produce large numbers of offspring.
-Can self-fertilize or be cross-fertilized; mating can be controlled.
-Have short generation time.

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33
Q

What is a Monohybrid Cross?

A

A hybrid of two individuals with homozygous genotypes which result in the opposite phenotype for a certain genetic trait.

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34
Q

What is a Dihybrid Cross?

A

A cross between two individuals with two observed traits that are controlled by two distinct genes.

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35
Q

What is the F1 Generation?

A

The first filial generation which represents the offspring produced by crossing two true-breeding strains.
-All F1 plants resemble only one parent.

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36
Q

What is the P generation?

A

The original parent plants.

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37
Q

What is the F2 Generation?

A

The second filial generation; represents the offspring resulting from the self-fertilization of F1 plants or Cross-fertilization with other F1 hybrids.
-the hidden recessive gene reappeared in some F2 individuals.

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38
Q

What is a phenotype?

A

Physical appearance

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39
Q

What is a genotype?

A

Description of alleles of genes of an individual (genetic composition)

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40
Q

What is an allele

A

Alternative forms of a gene.

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41
Q

What is Homozygous?

A

Two of the same allele

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42
Q

What is heterozygous?

A

Different alleles

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43
Q

What is a Dominant Allele?

A

An expressed allele.

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44
Q

What is a Recessive Allele?

A

An allele that is not expressed when there is a dominant allele.

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45
Q

What is the Law of Segregation?

A

When an organism makes gametes, each gamete receives just one gene copy, which is selected randomly.

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46
Q

What is a Punnett Square

A

A table in which all of the possible outcomes for a genetic cross between two individuals with known genotypes are given. (known genotype)

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47
Q

What is a test cross?

A

An experiment in which an organism showing dominance for a specific trait has to be tested for its genotype. (unknown genotype)
-Used to determine the genotype of an individual with a dominant phenotype.

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48
Q

Law of Independent Assortment

A

-States that the alleles of two (or more) different genes get sorted into gametes independently of each other.

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49
Q

Probability

A

Probability allows us to predict the likelihood of the outcome of random events.

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50
Q

Rule of Addition:

A

The probability that any one or two mutually exclusive events occurring is calculated as the sum of their individual probabilities

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51
Q

Polygenic Inheritance

A

Occurs when multiple genes are involved in controlling the phenotype.
-The phenotype is an accumulation of contributions by multiple genes.
-Example-human height

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52
Q

Complete Dominance

A

Occurs when phenotypes of the heterozygote and the dominant heterozygote are identical

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53
Q

Incomplete Dominance

A

The phenotype of F1 hybrids is somewhere between the parental phenotypes

54
Q

Codominance

A

Heterozygote shows some aspect of the phenotypes of both homozygotes. Two dominant alleles are expressed in separate, distinguishable ways (Blood type)

55
Q

What is Transcription?

A

DNA changing to RNA
-the template strand of DNA is used to transcribe the corresponding primary RNA transcript.
(DNA is transcribed to primary transcript of RNA)

56
Q

What is Translation?

A

RNA changing to protein

57
Q

What is DNA

A

Deoxyribonucleic Acid

58
Q

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

A

A type of ribonucleic acid that assists in the body’s synthesis of proteins

59
Q

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

A

Carries the genetic information needed to make proteins.

60
Q

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

A

bind to amino acids to transport them.

61
Q

Genetic Code

A

-represented by nucleotides, some of which code for amino acids and others not.
-read in increments of 3 nucleotides, and is read continuously without overlapping any nucleotides.

62
Q

What is a codon?

A

a triplet of nucleotides

63
Q

Genetic Mutations

A

-alter code
-can involve single nucleotide insertion or deletion or replacement
-can involve multiple nucleotide sequences that are deleted or inserted or duplicated
-clinical outcome may be apparent and sometimes severe

64
Q

How many Codons in Total?

A

64

65
Q

How many codons represent amino acids?

A

61

66
Q

How many codons are stop codons?

A

3

67
Q

What is a stop Codon?

A

3 codons that are used to terminate translation? (UAA, UGA, UAG)

68
Q

What is a Start codon?

A

A codon (AUG) used to signify the start of translation.

69
Q

What is redundant code?

A

More than one triplet codon can represent one amino acid.

70
Q

What is required for Transcription?

A

-RNA polymerase
-Promoter
-Start site
-Termination site (terminator)
-Transcription unit

71
Q

RNA Polymerase

A

the enzyme which pries apart the DNA strands, reads the DNA template strand and joins the RNA nucleotides together

72
Q

Promoter

A

serves as recognition and binding site for RNA polymerase
-the DNA sequence before the transcription unit where RNA polymerase attaches to initiate transcription
-includes sequence called TATA box

73
Q

Start Site

A

the actual site where RNA synthesis begins
-located just before the transcription unit
-involves AUG codon

74
Q

Termination site (terminator)

A

signals the end of transcription with a stop codon

75
Q

Transcription Unit

A

represents the stretch of DNA that is transcribed from promoter to terminator

76
Q

Stages of Transcription

A

-Initiation
-Elongation
-Termination

77
Q

transcription factors

A

-regulatory proteins that mediate the binding of RNA polymerase and the initiation of the transcription
-not part of DNA template

78
Q

Transcription initiation complex

A

the completed assembly of transcription factors and RNA polymerase II bound to a promotor

79
Q

TATAAT Box (tata box)

A

a promoter crucial in forming the initiation complex in eukaryotes

80
Q

Transcription Elongation

A

-RNA polymerase moves along the DNA template
-untwists the double helix 10 to 20 bases at a time
-RNA transcript generated by RNA polymerase is made in the 5’ to 3’ direction as ribonucleotides are added
-nucleotides are added to the 3’ end of the growing RNA transcript
-transcription bubble
-after the transcription bubble passes, the now transcribed DNA is rewound as it leaves the bubble

81
Q

Transcription bubble

A

contains RNA polymerase, DNA template and growing RNA transcript

82
Q

Termination

A

-occurs at specific sites
-Stop codons
-RNA/DNA hybrid within transcription bubble dissociates
-RNA polymerase releases the DNA
-DNA rewinds
-simplest terminator

83
Q

Simplest terminator

A

-forms ‘hairpin’, causes RNA polymerase to pause at the U bend
-weak bonds allow release of RNA

84
Q

5’ Cap

A

Protects from degradation
-involves in translation initiation

85
Q

3’ poly-A tail

A

-Created by poly-A polymerase
-protection from degradation

86
Q

Introns

A

non-coding intervening sequences between exons that will be translated

87
Q

Exons

A

nucleotide sequences that are expressed
-represent sequences that will be translated

88
Q

Small ribonucleoprotein particles

A

snRNPs
-recognize the intron-exon boundaries

89
Q

spliceosome

A

responsible for removing introns
-snRNPs clustered with other proteins form spliceosome

90
Q

Translation Requires:

A

mRNA, tRNA, Ribosomes, Amino Acids

91
Q

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases

A

-an enzyme that specifically recognizes only one amino acid
-add amino acids to the acceptor stem of tRNA

92
Q

Anticodon Loop

A

-located at the opposite end of the tRNA
-contains 3 nucleotides that are complementary to mRNA codons

93
Q

Ribosomes

A

-composed of two subunits, the large and small subunits, made separately in the nucleolus and are assembled together in the cytoplasm

94
Q

Ribosome tRNA-binding sites

A

-A site (aminoacyl): binds the tRNA carrying the incoming amino acid
-P site (peptidyl): binds the tRNA attached to the growing peptide chain. This tRNA then moves to the E site.
-E Site (exit): binds the empty tRNA that had the previously growing peptide chain. The tRNA, now without an amino acid, is released and proceeds to bind another acid of the same type

95
Q

peptidyl transferase

A

-enzymatic component of the ribosome
-forms peptide bonds between amino acids

96
Q

Mutations

A

changes in the genetic information that can be passed from one generation to the next or acquired spontaneously and randomly

97
Q

Point Mutations

A

alter a single base

98
Q

base substitution

A

substitute one base for another

99
Q

Silent mutation

A

different codon but same amino acid inserted because of redundancy/degeneracy of genetic code

100
Q

Missense mutation

A

changes amino acid added to the protein chain

101
Q

Nonsense mutations

A

-changes to stop codon (stop codon occurs too early)

102
Q

Frameshift mutations

A

-addition or deletion of a base
-much more profound consequences
-alter reading frame downstream

103
Q

Triplet repeat expansion mutation

A

-Huntington disease and other neurodegenerative disorders
-repeat unit is expanded in the disease allele relative to the normal

104
Q

Genetic Variation

A

-differences in alleles of genes are found within individuals in a population
-natural populations contain much variation

105
Q

Evolution

A

-How an entity changes through time
-Development of modern concept traced to Darwin
-‘descent with modification’

106
Q

Natural Selection

A

environmental conditions determine which individuals produce the most offspring

107
Q

Gene Flow

A

Movement of alleles from one population to another due to:
-animal moves into new population
-drifting of gametes of immature plants/animals into a population
-mating of individuals from adjacent populations

108
Q

Nonrandom mating

A

occurs when likelihood of making between individuals in population is not the same for all paring of individuals

109
Q

Assortative Mating

A

-phenotypically similar individuals mate
-increases homozygous individuals
-decreases heterozygotes

110
Q

Disassortative mating

A

phenotypically different individuals mate with more frequency
-produces excess of heterozygotes
-better chance to increase fitness of a population

111
Q

Genetic Drift

A

random fluctuations of allelic frequencies from generations to generations
-caused by chance events
-associated with changes in population size

112
Q

Founder Effect

A

One or a few individuals disperse and become the founders of a new isolated population
(populations on islands)

113
Q

Bottleneck Effect

A

-extreme outcome of genetic drift
-severe reduction in population size due to drought, disease, other natural forces
-survivors are a small, random genetic sample of original population
-results in major loss of genetic variety
-greater vulnerability to extinction

114
Q

Artificial Selection

A

Breeder selects desired characteristics

115
Q

Fitness

A

Individuals with one phenotype leave more surviving offspring in the next generation than individuals with an alternative phenotype

116
Q

Parental Investment

A

Refers to the energy and time each ‘sex’ invests in producing and rearing offspring

117
Q

Frequency-dependent selection

A

Fitness of a phenotype depends on its frequency within the population

118
Q

Negative frequency-dependent selection

A

rare phenotypes favored by selection

119
Q

Positive frequency-dependent selection

A

Favors common form and tends to eliminate variation (mimicry of bright colors of venomous snakes by non-venomous snakes)

120
Q

Oscillating Selection

A

selection favors one phenotype at one time and another phenotype at another time

121
Q

Heterozygote Advantage

A

Heterozygotes are favored over homozygotes
-works to maintain both alleles in the population

122
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia

A

-hereditary disease affecting hemoglobin
-causes severe anemia
-homozygotes for sickle cell allele usually die before reproducing without medical treatment

123
Q

Disruptive Selection

A

-acts to eliminate intermediate types

124
Q

Directional Selection

A

-Acts to eliminate one extreme
-often occurs when environment changes

125
Q

Stabilizing Selection

A

-Acts to eliminate both extremes
-makes intermediate more common

126
Q

Epistasis

A

One gene can control other gene’s effects

127
Q

Homologous Structures

A

-structures with different appearances and functions that all derived from the same body part in a common ancestor-different functions, same ancestor structures

128
Q

Vestigial Structures

A

-remnants of features that once served a function in the organism’s ancestors
-have no apparent function but resembles structures that ancestors possessed

129
Q

Pseudogenes

A

Fossil genes; traces of previously functioning genes
-when a trait disappears, gene does not just vanish from the genome

130
Q

Biogeography

A

Study of the geographic distribution of species

131
Q

Convergent Evolution

A

similar forms having evolved in different, isolated areas because of similar selective pressures in similar environmental conditions

Bio 110 (2 decks)

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