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psyc211 > bilkey > Flashcards

bilkey Flashcards

1
Q

telencephalon + diencephalon

A

forebrain

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2
Q

mesencephalon

A

midbrain

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3
Q

metencephalon + myelencephalon

A

hindbrain

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4
Q

most highly developed anterior part of forebrain consisting of cerebral cortexes

A

telencephalon

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5
Q

central part of brain located around 3rd ventricle, superior to brainstem, inferior to corpus callosum

A

diencephalon

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6
Q

consists of hypothalamus and thalamus

A

diencephalon

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7
Q

most rostral part of brainstem sitting above pons, rostrally join to thalamus

A

mesencephalon

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8
Q

embryonic part of hindbrain that differentiates the pons and the cerebellum

A

metencephalon

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9
Q

develops into spinal cord so contains all the sensory and motor paths

A

myelencephalon

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10
Q

1st layer of neocortex

A

axons, dendrites, few cell bodies

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11
Q

2nd layer of neocortex

A

densely packed stellate cells, few small pyramidal cells

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12
Q

3rd layer of neocortex

A

loosely packed stellate cells, intermediate sized pyramidal cells

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13
Q

4th layer of neocortex

A

bands of densely packed stellate cells; no pyramidal cells

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14
Q

5th layer of neocortex

A

few loosely packed stellate cells, very large pyramidal cells

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15
Q

6th layer of neocortex

A

loosely packed stellate cells, pyramidal cells of various sizes

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16
Q

white matter composition

A

myelinated pyramidal cell axons, few cell bodies

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17
Q

outside of cell

A

positive charge, Na+ and Cl-

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18
Q

inside of cell

A

negative charge, K+ and A- proteins

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19
Q

hodgkin - huxley cycle

A

synaptic potential -> depolarisation -> opening of channels -> flow of Na –> depolarisation

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20
Q

disease of demyelination

A

multiple sclerosis

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21
Q

scotopic

A

rods

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22
Q

poorer acuity achromatic vision

A

rods

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23
Q

phototopic

A

cones

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24
Q

high acuity colour vision

A

cones

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25
Q

periphery more dense in cones or rods

A

rods

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26
Q

fovea more dense in cones or rods

A

cones

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27
Q

damage to rods and cones

A

could not tell what an object was in front of them but could identify night and day

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28
Q

back layer of eye, converts light into electric signals

A

retina

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29
Q

layers of retina

A

receptor cells -> bipolar cells –> ganglion cells –> optic nerve fibre

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30
Q

what shows more of a smile on the mona lisa

A

lower spatial / lower frequency

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31
Q

transmits electrical impulses from your eyes to your brain

A

optic nerve

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32
Q

intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells (ipRGC)

A

utilize the photopigment melanopsin which is maximally sensitive to blue light

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33
Q

ipRGC connect through to what

A

superchiasmatic nucleus

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34
Q

phenomenon in which a neurons response to a stimuli is inhibited by the excitation of a neighbouring neuron

A

lateral inhibition

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35
Q

where is lateral inhibition observed

A

retina and LGN

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36
Q

when two systems are competing with eachother

A

opponent processes

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37
Q

mach bands

A

dark line on the left and bright line on the right due to flow of inhibition across retina

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38
Q

opponent colours

A

blue / yellow + red / green

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39
Q

deuteranomaly

A

weak in green

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40
Q

protanopia

A

no red

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41
Q

approach-avoidance conflict

A

arises from competition between the drive to pursue reward and avoid harm

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42
Q

respond best to elongated bars or edges, orientation selective, have on or off subregions and monocular or binocular

A

simple cell response

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43
Q

are orientation selective, spatially homogeneous receptive fields (no on/off), nearly all binocular

A

complex cell response

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44
Q

retinal ganglion cells –> lateral geniculate nucleus

A

–> simple cells -> complex cells

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45
Q

electrode entering perpendicular

A

all columns same receptive field

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46
Q

electrode entering parallel

A

position of receptive fields of neurons at the tip shifts systematically

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47
Q

an ordered representation of the sensory environment where spatially adjacent surfaces are represented in adjacent positions in the brain

A

topographic organisation

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48
Q

human hearing range

A

20-20,000Hz

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49
Q

advantage of topographic/tonotopic representation

A

reduces axon volume

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50
Q

responsible for transduction of sound-evoked mechanical vibrations into electrical signals

A

hair cells

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51
Q

where are hair cells found

A

cochlea

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52
Q

what sits on top of hair cells

A

tectorial membrane

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53
Q

cell hairs moving back and forth, what kind of movement

A

mechanical

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54
Q

what happens in the cochlea

A

sound waves are transduced into electrical impulses

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55
Q

lower frequencies activate where in cochlea

A

down near the apex

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56
Q

higher frequencies activate where in cochlea

A

higher closer to base

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57
Q

tonotopic organisation

A

cells responsive to different frequencies along different parts of the central auditory system

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58
Q

scene analysis

A

(tonotopic organisation) frequency separation relates to objects in the environment

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59
Q

detection of beat promotes what

A

social cohesion

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60
Q

most connectivity into auditory cortex

A

top-down processing

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61
Q

using information from higher-level mental processes and prior experiences

A

top-down processing

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62
Q

processing that begins with the sense receptors

A

bottom up

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63
Q

the McGurk effect

A

visual systems interrupting the auditory system (mouth ma vs. ba)

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64
Q

topographic organisation

A

visual system

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65
Q

ability to remember the order of events as they occurred in time

A

sequence memory

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66
Q

cells that code a particular length of time

A

time cells

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67
Q

scalar expectancy theory

A

theory that perception can be altered by changes in neural system activity

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68
Q

pace maker increases

A

perception of time slows down

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69
Q

during saccade visual system?

A

suppresses input

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70
Q

upon fixation

A

nervous system fills in gap retrospectively

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71
Q

flash lag illusion

A

a visual illusion where in a flash, a moving object that appear to be in same location are perceived to be displaced from one another

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72
Q

active state labile –> inactive state fixed

A

consolidation after reactivation however, reconsolidation

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73
Q

inactive state fixed –> active state labile

A

reactivation

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74
Q

slower response to stress

A

release of cortisol

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75
Q

fast reaction to stress

A

adrenaline

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76
Q

pathway that processes visual information for visual perception (from primary visual cortex to temporal lobe)

A

ventral stream

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77
Q

pathway that processes visual information for purpose fo executing movement

A

dorsal stream

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78
Q

encoding a representation so it is identified regardless of size, orientation, colour

A

invariance

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79
Q

different cells respond differently to features and conjunctions of features

A

grandma cells

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80
Q

a grandmother cell mechanism provides excellent discrimination between objects

A

local encoding

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81
Q

requires separation of representations, sparse encoding, pattern separation

A

local encoding

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82
Q

issues with local coding

A

susceptible to damage, requires large number of units

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83
Q

allows for generalisation, pattern completion and generalisation, requires overlap between representations, distributed representation

A

dense coding

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84
Q

can still identify object despite only having seen it in another context

A

generalisation

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85
Q

can’t see all of object but can still identify it

A

completion

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86
Q

can distinguish different objects within one setting

A

separation

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87
Q

V4

A

colour perception

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88
Q

V5

A

motion detection - akinetopsia

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89
Q

looming

A

objects closer to you appear to move faster than those further away

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90
Q

visual illusions

A

no sensory change, yet perception change

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91
Q

visual illusions example of what

A

temporal binding

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92
Q

hallucinations

A

positive symptom of schizophrenia

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93
Q

motivation, apathy

A

negative symptom of schizophrenia

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94
Q

deficits in memory, thinking

A

cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia

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95
Q

what is reduced in schizophrenia in the brain

A

activity and size of frontal cortex and medial temporal lobes

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96
Q

what is decreased in brain in schizophrenia

A

activity GABAergic, inhibitory systems and at the NMDA subtype of glutamate receptor

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97
Q

season of birth prone to schizophrenia

A

spring

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98
Q

decreased activity GABAergic

A

a inhibitory system

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99
Q

evidence for reduced __ band energy for those with schizophrenia

A

gamma

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100
Q

what should be seen if brain is good during an ASSR

A

an oscillation in the EEG

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101
Q

who somewhat invested cell assembly biopsychology

A

donald hebb

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102
Q

associated with short term memory

A

reverberated activity

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103
Q

reverberating activity

A

reverberating neural activity in closed-loop circuitry

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104
Q

associated with long term memory

A

synapse strength

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105
Q

artificial stimulation to strengthen synapse

A

long term potentiation

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106
Q

how does LTP work

A

causes a depolarisation in membrane leading to unblocking of ion channels

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107
Q

long term depression

A

when not firing regularly, synapses are weakened

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108
Q

LTP induction depends on what

A

activation of the NMDA receptor

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109
Q

what does morris water maze test

A

long term memory

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110
Q

NMDA antagonist effect on LTP and memory

A

blocks LTP and prevents memory formation

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111
Q

what leads to LTP like changes

A

learning

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112
Q

what does reversal of LTP produce

A

forgetting

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113
Q

what does blocking of LTP do

A

prevents memory formation

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114
Q

what does producing LTP do

A

create false memories/masks existing memories

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115
Q

ability of synapse to keep strength overtime depends on

A

PKM

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116
Q

Zeta inhibitory peptide PKMZ used to what

A

interfere with the maintenance of acquired memories

117
Q

karl lashley

A

stated memory is distributed throughout the cortex

118
Q

principle of mass action

A

proportion of damaged brain, directly proportional to the decreased ability in memory function

119
Q

surgery HM underwent

A

removal of temporal pole, hippocampus and adjacent cortex

120
Q

HM post op

A

anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia 2 years prior, intact short term and remote memory, IQ improved

121
Q

what does HM show

A

hippocampus is involved in memory consolidation

122
Q

declarative memory

A

explicit + factual

123
Q

procedural memory

A

implicit + skills

124
Q

implicit memory

A

information you remember unconsciously and effortlessly

125
Q

explicit memory

A

information you have to consciously work to remember

126
Q

type of memory involved in recall of events and details

A

explicit

127
Q

rhinal cortex location

A

medial temporal lobe

128
Q

detects unknown items as novel by high processing demands and encodes them into memory OR detects known items as familiar by lower processing demands and encodes them less vigoursly

A

rhinal cortex function

129
Q

patient RB

A

ischemic episode post heart surgery led to anterograde amnesia + minor retrograde amensia

130
Q

what does patient RBs scans show

A

compressed hippocampus

131
Q

a condition where blood flow (thus oxygen) is reduced or restricted in a part of the body

A

ischemia

132
Q

rey-osterreith figure

A

patients copy diagram then later have to draw again without having copy in front

133
Q

what did patient NA damage

A

the mediodorsal thalamus and mammillary bodies

134
Q

what did patient NA get as result

A

diencephalic amnesia, anterograde amnesia for both verbal and visual material

135
Q

diencephalic amnesia

A

disorientation of time

136
Q

wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

A

damage to dorsomedial nucleus of thalamus + mamillary bodies from lack of thiamine (vitamin B1)

137
Q

egocentric space

A

depends on our own position and point of view in frame

138
Q

allocentric space

A

relies on remembering, recalling and recognising environmental stimuli like landmarks

139
Q

bus drivers egocentric or allocentric

A

egocentric due to their set route

140
Q

taxi drivers allocentric or egocentric

A

allocentric, they go all over

141
Q

hippocampal size in bus drivers

A

bigger than the taxi

142
Q

hippocampal size in taxi driver

A

increase in posterior, decrease in anterior

143
Q

place cells

A

triggered in response to animal entering certain locations within its environment (place field)

144
Q

term used when a person experiences a gradual loss of brain function due to physical changes in the structure of their brain

A

dementia

145
Q

brain changes in alzheimers

A

extreme shrinkage of temporal lobe, hippocampus and enlarged ventricles

146
Q

phonemic and semantic verbal fluency

A

test used to diagnose alzheimers

147
Q

gradual build up and accumulation of protein fragment between neurons

A

amyloid plaques

148
Q

breakdown of tau molecules

A

neurofibrillary tangles

149
Q

what does not map well onto symptoms of AD

A

amyloid plaques

150
Q

what maps well onto symptoms of AD

A

neurofibrillary tangles

151
Q

acetylcholine production in AD

A

reduced

152
Q

a treatment of AD

A

drugs that block cholinesterase

153
Q

cholinesterase

A

breaks down acetylcholine

154
Q

protein important in synaptic plasticity

A

amyloid precursor protein APP

155
Q

when APP is cut into segments which is produced

A

beta amyloid

156
Q

beta amyloid in AD

A

overproduced

157
Q

what helps prevent production of beta-amyloid

A

enzyme alpha cutting protein in middle

158
Q

three variations of APOE gene

A

E2, E3, E4

159
Q

APOE

A

produced by astrocytes and transports cholesterol to neurons - impairs beta amyloid clearance

160
Q

increased synapse formation with elevated early endosomes by APOE4

A

leads to increased AB generation

161
Q

what predicts a cognitive decline in APOE4 group

A

elevated levels of a marker for pericyte injury

162
Q

AD effects on astrocytes (3)

A

reduced APOE level, cholesterol accumulation, impaired AB clearance

163
Q

AD effects on neurons (3)

A

increased synapse formation, elevated early endosomes, increased AB generatio

164
Q

AD effects on microglia-like cells (3)

A

immune-prone, reactive, impaired AB clearance

165
Q

what does BBB allow for

A

protection and transport regulation of serum factors and neurotoxins

166
Q

what does APOE4 association with tight junction cause

A

a disruption of tight junctions and the opening of BBB

167
Q

where is there an association of higher BBB permeability with APOE4 + tight junctions

A

hippocampus and parahippocampal gyrus

168
Q

what is the higher BBB permeability in hippocampus and parahippocampal gyrus independent of

A

amyloid and tau accumulation

169
Q

longitudinal study of ageing alzheimers disease

A

nuns study

170
Q

what did the nuns study show

A

high idea density associated with intact cognition in late life despite presence of AD lesions

171
Q

the psychological processes that contribute to planning, controlling and regulating flow of information processing

A

cognitive control

172
Q

4 key components of cognitive control

A

working memory, inhibitory control, set-shifting, abstract thought

173
Q

change immediate goals to be able to get round obstacles

A

set-shifting

174
Q

denotes the appropriate usage of an object by a patient within an inappropriate situation

A

utilisation behviour

175
Q

what is the driving factor in utilisation behaviour

A

cues within the environment

176
Q

what lesions would be unable to suppress utilization behaviour

A

unilateral or bilateral frontal lesions

177
Q

where did phineas gage damage

A

ventromedial region of both frontal lobes but spared dorsolateral

178
Q

lesions where impair working memory performance

A

prefrontal lesions

179
Q

what was the delayed non-match to sample task testing

A

associative memory and working memory

180
Q

what was the associative memory task in the delayed non-match to sample test

A

cue and response, delay, cue and response

181
Q

what was the working memory task in the delayed non-match to sample test

A

cue, delay, response

182
Q

ability to learn and remember relationship between unrelated items

A

associative memory

183
Q

what do delay cells do

A

keep the presentation of the cue stimulus active for a certain amount of time

184
Q

the two periods within a delayed response task

A

delay period and cue period

185
Q

N back task

A

requires participants to decide whether a stimulus appeared n items ago

186
Q

what does the n-back task test

A

working (executive) memory

187
Q

what did the added lures increase in the n-back task

A

activity of prefrontal

188
Q

what does the tower of london task test

A

working and prefrontal memory

189
Q

participants asked to preplan mentally a sequence of moves to match a start set of discs, executing one by one

A

tower of london task

190
Q

controlling the automatic urges by pausing and then using attention and reasoning to respond appropriately

A

inhibitory control

191
Q

effect of prefrontal damage on wisconsin sorting task

A

will keep sorting how they had been doing it despite being wrong

192
Q

what increases with the wisconsin card sorting task

A

dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

193
Q

test for self control

A

mischels marshmallow test

194
Q

synaptic development of dorsolateral prefrontal cortex activation

A

increases up to 20 and then gradually reduces

195
Q

what does the go/no-go task test

A

inhibitory control

196
Q

teenagers in go/no-go task

A

found it hard to not press go for smiley faces

197
Q

trail making task

A

A-1-B-2-C-3-D-4

198
Q

what does the tail making task test

A

set shifting

199
Q

what is associated with better TMT scores

A

increased PFC thickness

200
Q

using concepts to make and understand generalisations, concepts are not tied directly to specific experiences

A

abstract thought

201
Q

what tests test the abstract rules

A

wisconsin card sorting and the delay nonmatch sample task

202
Q

what does the abstract rule imply

A

different responses can be evoked to same stimuli depending on goal and context

203
Q

describe simple spatio-temporal links between objects e.g. red light means stop

A

concrete rules

204
Q

WCST first block is example of what

A

concrete rules

205
Q

WCST second block

A

abstract rules

206
Q

where are rule responsive neurons found

A

pre frontal cortex

207
Q

wheres the activation, with the more abstraction of a task

A

further forward, anterior

208
Q

multiple errands test

A

given tasks and locations to carry out

209
Q

what did multiple errands test show for those with PFC deficits

A

disorganisation - completed tasks ineffectively / insufficiently

210
Q

what does the multiple errands test/show

A

effect fo executive function deficits on everyday activity

211
Q

define a set of responses suitable for a particular task and biasing these for slection

A

dorsolateral PFC function

212
Q

what does removal of PFC enhance

A

creativity

213
Q

what test shows creativity increase in removal / lesions of PFC

A

matchstick - making roman numerals equal.

214
Q

involves anodal and cathodal stimulation by placing wires onto head

A

transcranial direct-current stimulation

215
Q

anodal

A

depolarises - causes fire

216
Q

cathodal

A

hyperpolarises - ceases fire

217
Q

what did anodal stimulation of left PFC do

A

increase appropriateness and decrease novelty

218
Q

human brain compared to other species

A

high proportion fo neurons in cerebral cortex

219
Q

central executive theory

A

little man in brain controlling functions and choosing what to do

220
Q

homunculus

A

little man

221
Q

how many systems of decision making

A

2

222
Q

what system of decision making is slow + controlled, rule-based and rational in analytic nature

A

system 2

223
Q

what system fo decision making is rapid, undemanding of experiential-affective nature and automatic

A

system 1

224
Q

an individuals tendency to perceive a desired result in future as less valuable than one in present

A

temporal discounting

225
Q

when does a reward have greater value in terms of temporal discounting

A

has greater value when presented sooner

226
Q

exploit-explore trade-off

A

how long you should exploit a source before exploring another one

227
Q

describes the behaviour that maximises the ratio of expected foraging time in a patchy environment

A

marginal value theorem

228
Q

where does emotion processing in amygdala project to

A

ventromedial prefrontal cortex and anterior cingulate

229
Q

kluver-busy syndrome

A

damage of amygdala / anterior temporal lobes

230
Q

kluver-busy syndrome symptoms (4)

A

consumption of almost anything
increased sexual activity
investigates objects with the mouth
a lack of fear

231
Q

vmPFC

A

related with decision making and anticipated pleasantness of future and past events

232
Q

facilitate decision making by influencing potential responses via their affective value

A

somatic markers

233
Q

damasios somatic marker hypothesis

A

use emotion to influence decisions

234
Q

iowa gambling task

A

disadvantage deck of high risk, longterm loss
advantageous deck of low risk, longterm gain

235
Q

play of iowa gambling task controls

A

once start loosing, move decks

236
Q

what does iowa gambling task show

A

VMPC / amygdala damage disrupts emotional feedback

237
Q

skin conductance response

A

indirect measure of sympathetic autonomic activity that is associated with both emotion and attention

238
Q

SCR in healthy group

A

large SCR response in high risk deck compared to low

239
Q

SCR in those with vmPFC and amygdala damage

A

no difference between high risk and low risk

240
Q

alcohol on PFC

A

suppresses activity

241
Q

stimulation theory

A

our ability to understand others is somewhat based on our ability to mimic their experience

242
Q

where were mirror neurons first found

A

ventral premotor cortex

243
Q

mirror neurons

A

modulate activity when a specific motor act is executed or similar act observed

244
Q

has direct control over the movements of voluntary muscle

A

premotor cortex

245
Q

faux pas test

A

used to understand anothers mental state - often autism

246
Q

first element of faux pas test

A

detecting a faux pas - did anyone say something they shouldn’t have said

247
Q

second element of the faux pas test

A

understanding the faux pas - who said something they shouldn’t have

248
Q

third element of the faux pas test

A

understanding the recipients mental state - why should they not have said it

249
Q

fourth element of the faux pas test

A

understanding the speakers mental state - why did he or she say it

250
Q

5th element of faux pas test

A

details of story (control question)

251
Q

3 parts of social connection

A

structural, functional, quality

252
Q

social connection - structural

A

the existence of and interconnections among different social relationship and roles

253
Q

social connection - functional

A

functions provided by or perceived to be available because of social relationships

254
Q

social connection quality

A

the positive and negative aspects of social relationships

255
Q

social connection structural roles

A

marital status, social networks/isolation/integration, living alone

256
Q

social connection functional examples

A

received support, perceptions of social support, perceived loneliness

257
Q

social connection quality examples

A

martial quality, relationship strain, social inclusion or exclusion

258
Q

social hypothesis on why social connection is important for well-being

A

friends/family have impact on health behaviour through obligations and influences

259
Q

evolutionary hypothesis of social connection

A

mechanisms have evolved to make isolation feel uncomfortable

260
Q

what does isolation promote in the brain (6)

A

short term preservation, decreased impulse control, attention to negative social stimuli, hostility, anxiety, vigilance for social threats

261
Q

short term preservation

A

increased cortisol release

262
Q

increased levels of what predict alzheimers risk

A

cortisol

263
Q

environmental exposures such as stress, diet, and lifestyle can all change the expression of genes.

A

epigenetics

264
Q

three aspects of consciousness

A

sentience, self-knowledge, access to information

265
Q

sentience

A

subjective experience

266
Q

self-knowledge

A

identify problem and how it can be solved

267
Q

access to information

A

ability to report on the content of some of brain processing

268
Q

mirror self recognition test

A

touching themself instead of mirror shows self-recognition and reflects intelligence

269
Q

hampton rhesus monkeys

A

performed test better when had freedom of choice rather than being forced into a choice.

270
Q

when will rhesus monkeys take test

A

when they think they have good memory

271
Q

what does rhesus monkey experiment show

A

monkeys were self-reflecting

272
Q

levels of arousal and consciousness

A

awake, drowsy, sleep

273
Q

hypnogogic hallucinations

A

occur while falling asleep

274
Q

hypnopompic hallucinations

A

occur while waking up

275
Q

locked-in syndrome

A

fully conscious but unable to move, damage to ventral part of pons

276
Q

minimally conscious state

A

fixation, response to simple command
reduced activity in cortex

277
Q

unresponsive wakefulness syndrome

A

open eyes but only reflex behaviour, damage to cortex and/or thalamus

278
Q

results in locked in syndrome

A

damage to ventral part of pons

279
Q

results in minimally conscious state

A

reduced activity in cortex

280
Q

results in unresponsive wakefulness syndrome

A

damage to cortex and /or thalamus

281
Q

bistable percept

A

an observer perceives the same stimuli in two different ways

282
Q

rivalry

A

demonstrates fluctuating conscious experience despite fixed physical stimulation

283
Q

two dissimilar images are presented simultaneously to each eye and perception alternates between them

A

binocular rivalry

284
Q

connectivity during sleep

A

lucid activity during REM has higher connectivity than SWS

285
Q

describes the way the brain integrates information across different subprocesses into an integrated whole

A

binding

286
Q

what could changes in coherence and synchrony in schizophrenia be a reflection of

A

problem with binding

287
Q

which neurotransmitters have a role in synchrony, associated with schizophrenia

A

gaba and glutamate

288
Q

GABA

A

an amino acid that inhibits excitable transmission

289
Q

glutamate

A

an excitatory neurotransmitter

psyc211 (2 decks)

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