Big 89 Flashcards
When is an alternate required?
- 1-2-3 Rule
- Supplemental
- Offline Charter
- RNAV only airport
- Marginal Wx
- International-single runway
- Flag Ops over 6 hrs
- Exemption 3585
Explain Captain/Dispatcher joint responsibility?
The captain and dispatcher are jointly responsible for the preflight planning of each flight. They shall determine the suitability of weather, field, traffic and airway facilities.
Both the captain and the dispatcher have the authority to delay a flight. During the course of operations, if the PIC or dispatcher determine that a flight cannot be completed safely, the PIC may not allow the flight to continue to the planned destination.
Explain Flaps optimized between 3 and 4?
This is commonly associated with enroute icing conditions where the possibility exists that the aircraft will experience ice accumulation that will affect the approach climb limit weight and require a Flaps 3 landing configuration. If the forecast enroute icing conditions are not encountered, then the weight reduction for this condition will not be required. It is also possible that the performance data will not require this weight reduction for the actual arrival. If the crew chooses to perform a FULL flaps landing, they will need to obtain landing distance and approach climb limit information.
Explain method 1 vs method 2?
- Method 1 requires the aircraft to take off at a weight that ensures that, if an engine failure occurs anywhere from V1 to the destination, the aircraft’s net altitude capability will clear all obstructions 5 SM either side of the intended route by 1,000 feet until reaching the destination.
Method 2 (driftdown) requires that, if an engine failure occurs at cruise altitude, the aircraft be able to divert to at least one suitable airport from normal cruise altitude and the aircraft’s net driftdown altitude will clear all obstructions 5 SM either side of the route of flight by 2,000 feet until reaching the diversion airport.
Standard strategy vs obstacle?
Typically, the Standard Strategy would be associated with being dispatched Method 1.
- Descent to Ceiling: M.78/300KT at MCT
- Cruise: LR ceiling at LR speed
- Descent to Landing: IDLE/M.78/300KT/250KT
Typically, the Obstacle Strategy would be associated with being dispatched Method 2.
- Descent to Ceiling: Green Dot Speed at MCT
- Cruise: Obstacle not cleared:Maintain GreenDot Speed at MCT
Obstacle cleared: Revert to standard strategy - IDLE/M.78/300KT/250KT
Where would we see Method 1 and Method 2 listed?
Dispatch Release-Performance Section
Explain Normal-Law Flight Mode?
When the airplane is fully electrically and hydraulically powered-
The normal-law flight mode is a load-factor-demand mode with automatic trim and protection throughout the flight envelope.
Following normal law, the sidestick controllers set the elevator and THS to maintain load factor proportional to stick deflection and independent of speed.
With the sidestick at neutral, wings level, the system maintains 1g in pitch (corrected for pitch attitude), and there is no need for the pilot to trim by changing speed or configuration.
Pitch trim is automatic both in manual mode and when the autopilot is engaged. In normal turns (up to 33 degrees of bank) the pilot does not have to make any pitch corrections once the turn is established.
The flight mode is active from about five seconds after takeoff to landing.
Explain Alternate Law?
Depending on the failures occurring to the flight control system, or on its peripherals, there are 3 levels of reconfiguration:
– Alternate law
There are two levels of alternate law: with and without reduced protections.
– Direct law
– Mechanical
In flight, the alternate law pitch mode follows a load-factor demand law much as the normal law pitch mode does, but it has less built-in protections
Bank-no prot Yaw-damping(sometimes) Pitch-no prot AoA-no prot(low speed stab) Load-same as normal Speed-no prot(Hi speed stab) Vmo 350-320
Explain Direct Law?
This is identical to alternate law except that it does not include the low-speed stability or the high-speed stability. It includes only the load factor limitation.
PITCH: The pitch direct law is a direct stick-to-elevator relationship (elevator deflection is proportional to stick deflection).
ROLL: The roll direct law is a direct stick-to-surface-position relationship. System gains are set automatically to correspond to slat/flap configuration.
YAW: The pilot controls yaw with the rudder pedals.The yaw damping and turn coordination functions are lost.
Explain Flare Mode?
The flight mode changes to flare mode when the aircraft passes 50 feet RA as it descends to land.The system memorizes the attitude at 50 feet, and that attitude becomes the initial reference for pitch attitude control.As the aircraft descends through 30 feet, the system begins to reduce the pitch attitude, reducing it to 2 degrees nose down over a period of 8 seconds. This means that it takes gentle nose-up action by the pilot to flare the aircraft.
Explain Pitch and Bank Protections in Normal-Law
Pitch attitude is limited to:
– 30 degrees nose up in Conf 0 to 3 (progressively reduced to 25 degrees at low speed).
– 25 degrees nose up in Conf FULL (progressively reduced to 20 degrees at low speed).
– 15 degrees nose down (indicated by green symbols “=” on the PFD’s pitch scale).
Inside the normal flight envelope, if the pilot releases the sidestick at a bank angle greater than 33 degrees, the bank angle automatically reduces to 33 degrees. Up to 33 degrees, the system holds the roll attitude constant when the sidestick is at neutral. If the pilot holds full lateral sidestick deflection, the bank angle goes to 67 degrees (indicated by a pair of green bar lines “=” on the PFD) and no further.
Explain High/Low speed and High AOA protections?
The aircraft automatically recovers following a high speed upset. Depending on the flight conditions (high acceleration, low pitch attitude), the High Speed Protection is activated at/or above VMO/MMO.When it is activated:
– The pitch trim is frozen on the A319; or
– On the A320, the THS setting is limited between the setting at the aircraft’s entry into this protection and 11 nose up.
– With the sidestick released, the aircraft always returns to a bank angle of 0.
– The bank angle limit is reduced from 67 to 40.
– As the speed increases above VMO/MMO, the sidestick nose-down authority is progressively reduced, and a permanent nose-up order is applied to aid recovery to normal flight conditions.
The autopilot disconnects when High Speed Protection goes active.
High Speed Protection is deactivated when the aircraft speed decreases below VMO/MMO, where the usual normal control laws are recovered.
Under normal law, when the angle of attack becomes greater than Aprot, the system switches elevator control from normal mode to a protection mode (Aprot) in which angle of attack is proportional to sidestick deflection. That is, in the Aprot range, from Aprot to Amax, the sidestick commands A directly. However, the angle of attack will not exceed Amax, even if the pilot gently pulls the sidestick all the way back. If the pilot releases the sidestick, the angle of attack returns to Aprot and stays there.
Explain Alpha Lock?
This function inhibits slat retraction at high angles of attack and low speeds.The SFCCs use corrected angle-of-attack (alpha) or airspeed information from the air data inertial reference units (ADIRUs) to key the inhibition of slat retraction.If alpha exceeds 8.5 degrees or the airspeed falls below 148 knots, retraction from position 1 to position 0 is inhibited. The inhibition is removed when alpha falls below 7.6 degrees or when the speed exceeds 154 knots.
This function is not active if:
– Alpha exceeds 8.5 degrees or the airspeed falls below 148 knots after the pilot has moved the lever to 0.
– The aircraft is on the ground with its speed less than 60 knots.
Explain Groundspeed Mini
During the approach, the FMGS continuously computes the speed target, using the wind experienced by the aircraft, in order to keep the ground speed at or above the “Ground Speed Mini”.
The lowest speed target is limited to VAPP, and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration in CONF 1, 2 or 3 and VFE - 5 in CONF FULL.
What is the minimum battery voltage and what does that voltage ensure?
25.5 V which ensures a charge above 50%
What indication do you get when performing an engine fire test with AC power?
• A continuous repetitive chime sounds.
• The MASTER WARN lights flash.
– ENG FIRE warning appears on ECAM.
On the FIRE panel:
– The ENG FIRE pb lights up red.
– The SQUIB lights come on white if discharge supplies are available.
– The DISCH lights come on amber.
On the ENG panel (pedestal):
– The FIRE lights come on red.
When performing an engine fire test with just DC power what indications are lost?
CRC
ECAM
If brake accumulator pressure is out of the green band, how can it be charged?
By turning on yellow electric pump with ground personnel clearance?
At the gate with engines off, you turn on the yellow electric pump. Will this action pressurize the green hydraulic system?
No, the PTU is inhibited until after one engine is started?
How do you perform an alternate brake check?
– (F/C) Y ELEC PUMP . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . CHECK OFF
– (F/C) CHOCKS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .CHECK IN PLACE
– (F/C) PARKING BRAKE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .OFF
– (F/C) BRAKE PEDALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . PRESS
Apply maximum pressure on both pedals.
– (F/C) BRAKE PRESSURE (on BRAKE press indicator). . . . . . CHECK
Pressure build-up should occur symmetrically and without delay on both sides. With full deflection of the left and right pedals, pressure must be between 2000 and 2700 psi.
– (F/C) BRAKE PEDALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . RELEASE
– (F/C) PARKING BRAKE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .ON
The parking brake must be on during the exterior inspection to allow the flight crew to check brake wear indicators.
Minimum engine oil quantity for flight?
9.5 Qts plus .5 Qts per hour of scheduled flight time
When performing an normal brake check, the FO announces “pressure zero” indicating that?
Normal braking utilizes the green hydraulic system, with no pressure in the yellow system indicator it verifies normal braking is working correctly.
During single engine taxi, the #2 engine should be started a minimum of how many minutes prior to take off and why?
2 minutes for engine idle stabilization and to ensure the engines are feeding from their respective wing tanks.
What temp and conditions must engine ice be turned on and in what phase of flight?
OAT (ground) or TAT (air) is at or below 10C
Visible moisture exists and water,slush, ice or snow is present on taxiways/runways
Always on in descent in icing conditions regardless of temp
What ways can you get a valid W&B?
- AWP
- Computer Generated W&B sheet
- Flight Crew Readback Form
What do the FACs do?
The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform four main functions: – Yaw function – Flight envelope function – Low-Energy Warning function – Windshear detection function
When is a TO Alternate required?
When weather conditions at the departure airport are below Category 1 landing minimums for that airport, a takeoff alternate airport is required.
What are the time and distance requirements for a TO Alternate?
When a takeoff alternate is required, a maximum time of 1+00 (normal cruise speed, single engine, still air) and a maximum distance of 330 nm may be used.
When is the AP required for an approach?
When the weather is less than 4000 RVR (3/4 mile) and the autopilot is available for use, the approach must be coupled.
When is an autoland required?
The approach must be briefed and flown as an autoland with the captain acting as the pilot flying when:
- the ATIS-reported RVR/visibility is at or below 2400 RVR or 1/2 sm,
- a CAT II or CAT III runway is available,
- the aircraft is autoland capable, and
- both crewmembers are trained,
In flight, when will the speedbrakes automatically retract?
If an inhibition occurs when the speedbrakes are extended, they retract automatically and stay retracted until the inhibition condition disappears and the pilots reset the lever. (The speedbrakes can be extended again 10 seconds or more after the lever is reset).
What does centering the beta target with the bank index do?
get the best climb performance.
If you lose the blue hydraulic system fluid, is the RAT available?
No
What protections are available in Normal Law, Alternate Law, Direct Law?
Normal-
Bank-67,33,45
Yaw-damping, turn coordination
Pitch-20-30 nose up, 15 nose down
AoA-Vls,Aprot,Afloor,Amax
Load-2.5g to -1g, 2g to 0g
Speed-Vmo +6/Mmo +.1M
Vmo +30/Mmo +.7M
Alternate- Yaw-daming depending on failure AoA-Lo Speed Stab Load-same as Normal Speed-Hi Speed Stab 350-320KTS
Direct-
No Prot
Is Alpha Floor available in Alternate or Direct Law?
No
What color is the NW STRG DISC?
Green with no engines started
Amber with at least one engine started
Do you have A/Skid if you lose normal braking?
Sometimes
What powers the AC ESS BUS and DC ESS BUS if both engine driven gens are lost and the airspeed is above 100KTs?
EMER ELEC GEN via the RAT
What is the max recommended thrust to be used to get the aircraft moving on the ramp?
40% N1
How do you get out of TOGA LOCK?
Disconnect the Autothrust
What flight control is left in Mechanical Back-up?
THS through trim
Rudder
If a pilot manually tunes a freq thru the RAD/NAV function, does it affect the auto tuning of the FMGC?
No
What equipment must be operating prior to entering RVSM airspace?
– Two primary altitude measuring systems;
– One automatic autopilot system;
– One altitude alerting device; and
– One altitude reporting transponder.
What are the 4 requirements to accept an RNAV departure?
1.must be retrieved by procedure name from the navigation
database.
2. Pilots must use a flight director and/or autopilot, in LNAV mode
3. must be able to engage the RNAV flight guidance no later than 500 ft above airport elevation.
4. Have at least RNP 1.0
What is the required response to SINK RATE aural warning?
Go Around
How must an approach be conducted when visibility is less than 3/4 miles or RVR 4000?
utilize autopilot if available?
How must an approach be conducted with visibility less than 1/2 mile or RVR 2400?
Briefed and flown as an autoland
What flight release paperwork is required to be onboard prior to blocking out?
• Dispatch or Flight Release
• Flight Plan
• Latest available (at the time the captain signs the release) Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR) and Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF)
• NOTAM Reports
• Performance information (via AWP or the Takeoff and Landing Report)
NOTE: When AWP is available, the TLR or data from the TLR is only required when special ACARS runway entry codes are necessary due to runway NOTAMS being in effect (shortened runway, temporary obstacle in departure path).
• Weight and Balance Manifest (via AWP or as provided by Load Planning)
What is the proper response to an autoland warning light during CAT II/III approach?
Go Around
How does a pilot initiate the call to the FAs to inform them to prepare the cabin for a possible evac?
Remain seated 3 times over PA
What is green dot, F, S speed?
Green Dot= max L/D clean
F speed= minimum Flap retraction speed to flaps 1
S speed= minimum Slat retraction speed
What is the lowest RVR authorized for F9 to depart?
500RVR
What should the settings be on RMP 3 (if installed)?
Check ON and STBY NAV lights out. Ensure HF and AM lights are extinguished.
When is a crew briefing required?
When practicable, the captain shall conduct a crew briefing with all assigned crewmembers prior to the first flight of a duty day. If crewmember changes occur during the duty day, additional briefings should be conducted with the newly assigned crewmembers.
When is a DDA required?
must be utilized when conducting an approach with a published MDA(H). DDA is derived by adding 50 feet to the published MDA(H).
While conducting an ECAM procedure what 5 things is the pilot responsible for?
PF, the pilot flying, is responsible for:
– thrust levers
– control of flight path and airspeed
– aircraft configuration (request configuration change)
– navigation
– communications
Who is the pilot flying on the ground?
The Captain
Is F9 authorized to conduct circle to land operations? If so, what are the minimums?
Yes,
To perform a circle-to-land maneuver, the pilot must:
• Have a ceiling and visibility that is the higher of either:
– A reported ceiling of at least 1,000 feet and visibility of at least 3 statute miles;
or
– The reported weather is at least equal to the charted circling minimums for the approach to be used.
• Use the higher Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) of either:
– 1,000 feet (HAA); or
– The MDA of the charted circling minimums for the approach to be used.
NOTE: Frontier Airlines does not have any aircraft listed in Ops Spec C075 to do a circle-to-land maneuver at a published MDA below 1000 feet (HAA).
Those approaches are NOT AUTHORIZED.
• Remain clear of clouds.
• If visual reference to the airport is lost, a missed approach must be executed.
How long is an airworthiness sign off good for?
3 days
Who normally performs the Engine Fire Warning test on the preliminary set up flow?
Captain, but can be performed by the FO
When do you use the flight path vector/director for approaches?
For MANAGED / SELECTED and SELECTED / SELECTED non-precision approaches, the Flight Path Director (TRK-FPA) will be utilized
If a circuit breaker pops on the ground or in flight, can we reset them?
Flight-
• WARNING: Do not re-engage any C/B that has tripped by itself unless the captain judges it necessary for the safe continuation of the flight. This procedure should be adopted only as a last resort and only one reset should be attempted.
• Do not re-engage LiveTV C/Bs.
Ground-
• Do not re-engage:
– Fuel pump C/Bs of any fuel tank
– LiveTV C/Bs
• The flight crew may re-engage any other tripped C/Bs provided the action is coordinated with Maintenance and the cause of the tripped C/B has been identified.
When is a logbook entry required for a computer reset?
All the time successful or unsuccessful
An RNAV GPS approach has LPV a well as LNAV/VNAV and VNAV minimums, which can F9 use?
Only LNAV/VNAV or LNAV
What is the proper terminology for the transition thru 18,000 ft climbing and descending?
“PULL STANDARD” and STATE ALTITUDE PASSING “STANDARD PULLED, ALTITUDE CHECKED”
“PUSH QNH (QNH setting)” and STATE ALTITUDE PASSING “QNH (QNH setting) PUSHED, ALTITUDE CHECKED”
How many wing walkers are required to park the plane at the gate?
Parking an aircraft at a gate or in close proximity to equipment or structures requires a marshaller to guide the aircraft. One or more
wingwalkers may be used at the discretion of the marshaller, or the marshaller may determine wingwalkers are unnecessary. The marshaller shall assume responsibility for the safe guidance of the aircraft once the captain begins to follow the hand signals of the marshaller. This does not preclude the captain from stopping the aircraft if he/she believes that a hazardous situation is imminent.
First flight of the day, elec system is supplied with AC power, is a Batt voltage check required?
No
Does bat 1 and 2 need to be in auto for bat start?
Yes
During cockpit preparation, when turning bat 1 and 2 off then on, what are you looking for?
Setting BAT 1+ 2 to OFF, then to ON initiates a charging cycle. Check on the ECAM ELEC page that both batteries are loaded correctly: battery currents will drop below 60 A after 10 seconds and continue to decrease.
During cockpit prep, setting QNH on the FCU, what is the max altitude difference between PFD1 and PFD2?
+/- 20 feet
During engine start with thrust levers out of the idle position, will the engines start?
Yes
After engine start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mast. What is our action?
run the engine at idle for 5 minutes. If the leak disappears during those 5 minutes, the aircraft can be dispatched without maintenance action. If the leak is still present after 5 minutes,maintenance action is required before flight.
During engine start, elec power supply is interrupted, what is our action?
In case the electrical power supply is interrupted during the start sequence(indicated by the loss of ECAM DUs), abort the start by switching OFF theMASTER switch. Then, perform a 30-second dry crank.
– ENG MODE selector. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .CRANK
– MAN START. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .ON
After landing when do you perform a residual ground speed check? What are the limits?
After every flight:
CAPT and F/O NDs display the IRS 1 and 2 residual ground speeds
respectively. IRS 3 residual ground speed can be read on either ND by
switching the ATT HDG selector to CAPT 3 or F/O 3, respectively.
• If ground speed 15 knots: A logbook write-up, MCC notification and a complete alignment is required. If the deviation is confirmed on the next flight, the IR part of the ADIRU must be considered failed.
• If ground speed 21 knots: A logbook write-up is required. The IR part ofthe ADIRU must be considered failed.
After landing when do you perform a drift check? What are the limits?
Upon flight completion, access the POSITION MONITOR page on the MCDU.
– Press the MCDU key (DATA).
– Select the POSITION MONITOR page (LSK 1L)
– Record each IRS radial position error (RPE) displayed on line 5.
– Compare these recorded values against the chart above.
– If the drift value falls into the shaded band, no logbook entry is required. However, a drift check is required on the next flight leg even if the leg would not normally require a drift check. Do not realign the IRUs to accomplish the subsequent drift check. If this subsequent check also falls within the grey band, then the IRU must be considered failed.
Which leading edge devices are ice protected? Is the tail ice protected?
Outboard 3 slats
Tail not protected
What is the definition of marginal weather?
Weather is considered “marginal” if the ceiling is within 100 feet, or the visibility is within 1/2 mile of the minimums for that airport. When the weather conditions forecast for the destination airport, based on CAT I minimums, and the first alternate airport, based on derived alternate minimums, are marginal, then at least one additional alternate must be designated.
What does RNAV 1 mean?
RNAV 1 procedures require the use of RNAV systems with GPS or DME/DME/IRU. Procedures are authorized with GPS inoperative using DME/DME/IRU provided Nav Accuracy is “High.” If any other system failures result in a loss of RNAV capability (i.e., NAV ACCURACY DOWNGRADE), the flight crew must advise ATC as soon as possible
and state intentions.
How do you verify that your EPE does not exceed your RNP do 1.0?
Either indicate GPS Primary or complete a NAV Accuracy check
When May we fly a published MDA?
never only allowed DDA
If you were preparing for a CATIIIB approach and the standby altimeter failed would it affect your CAT status or capability in any way?
Yes you would have downgraded capability
Flaps 3 is required in certain abnormal situations. Do you select config 3 on the perf page?
No
In case of a dual engine failure, what action do you apply first: ECAM or QRH?
ECAM them QRH/VOLII
For abnormal procedures during takeoff, which checklist is real first: after takeoff checklist or the abnormal checklist?
After takeoff then abnormal
When May a single engine autoland be done?
Emergency only A320-CONF FULL A319-CONFUSED 3
When do you select flaps full on a single engine approach?
Do not extend Flaps Full until established on a final descent to an assured landing.
What colors are verbalized when confirming mode changes on the FMA?
Blue and Magenta
When is it appropriate to call “continuing” on approach?
At minimums with approach lights in sight
What action is taken at minimums, when landing from a non precision approach?
Disconnect autopilot
What do you do if the aircraft starts to move with the parking brake on?
Release handle use pedals
Is it ok to leave the cockpit unattended with the parking brake released?
No
What are the restrictions for FO’s with less than 100hrs?
captain must make all takeoffs and landings in the following situations:
• The RVR for the runway to be used is at or below 4000 ft (RVR is controlling over
visibility);
• The visibility in the latest weather report is at or below 3/4 mile;
• The runway to be used is wet, slippery, or contaminated (see Chapter 20.36);
• The braking action on the runway to be used is less than “good”;
• The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 kts;
• Low-level windshear advisories or alerts are in effect, or another aircraft has
reported windshear for a particular runway;
• The airport is a special airport (see “Special Airports” on page 3 of this section);
• Any other conditions where the captain deems it prudent.
At all times It is recommended that captains perform the takeoff when the reported visibility is equal to or less than 1/2 mile or RVR 1800 (when RVR is reported).
