Behavioural science and socio-cultural psychiatry

Question 1

Personality (definition)

Answer 1

a group of characteristics or traits that assist or ‘define’ the way we think, feel and behave

Question 2

Nomothetic approach

Answer 2

• an approach to investigating personality in terms of specified dimensions or traits
• an individual’s behaviour is the outcome of a recipe of traits/dimensions that are universally acquired but held in varying degrees by different individuals

Question 3

Trait (definition)

Answer 3

an ‘internal psychological disposition that remains largely unchanged throughout the lifespan and determines differences between individuals’

Question 4

Hans Eysenck 1916-1997 (Key theory)

Answer 4

The ‘Gigantic Three’ (dimensions of personality’

Question 5

The ‘Gigantic Three’

Answer 5

“P.E.N.”

• Psychoticism (/low psychoticism)
• Extraversion (/introversion)
• Neuroticism (/emotional stability)

each dimension is hypothesised to have a biological basis

Question 6

Psychoticism (characterisation)

Answer 6

Psychoticism - aggressiveness, interpersonal hostility, impulsivity, little respect for social norms, lack of attachment to others

Low psychoticism - caring, thoughtful, responsible, respecting social rules - not normally distributed

Question 7

Extraversion (characterisation)

Answer 7

Extraversion - energetic, sociable, lively, confident, dominant

Introversion - passive, slow, introspective, lack of confidence, antisocial - normally distributed

Question 8

Neuroticism (characterisation)

Answer 8

Neuroticism - anxious, tense, moody, low self-esteem, depressed

Emotional stability - stable, positive, calm, confident, relaxed - normally distributed

Question 9

Psychoticism (biological basis)

Answer 9

hormone levels (androgens)

Question 10

Extraversion (biological basis)

Answer 10

balance between excitatory and inhibitory processes

Question 11

Neuroticism (biological basis)

Answer 11

reactivity to the autonomic nervous system

Question 12

Raymond Cattell 1905-1998

(2 key theories)

Answer 12

16 source factors (primary traits) underlying human personality (leading to the ‘16PF Questionnaire’)

Five Factor Model aka ‘Big Five’

Question 13

Big Five model

(+ theorist)

Answer 13

Raymond Cattell (1905-1998)

“OCEAN”:

• Openness to experience
• Conscientiousness
• Extroversion
• Agreeableness
• Neuroticism

NEO decreases with age

AC increases with age

Question 14

Idiographic theory

Answer 14

• theory of personality which focuses on individuals
• proposes that personalities can be changeable, with no fixed traits defining the individual (contrary to nomothetic theory)

Question 15

Gordon Allport 1897-1967

(two types of personality traits)

Answer 15

1. Common traits - apply to all individuals and form the basis of adjustment to one’s environment e.g. levels of acceptable aggression

2. Individual traits - personal tendencies/dispositions based on unique life experiences and events. 3 forms.

Question 16

Individual traits - Allport (3 forms)

Answer 16

I. Cardinal - traits that are all pervading and dominate in directing one’s behaviour. Tend to develop later in life. e.g. sociability

II. Secondary traits - one’s attitudes and preferences e.g. political views, taste preferences. Tend to surface on particular occasions.

III. Central - traits that shape the core personality of an individual e.g. kindness, honesty

Question 17

Carl Rogers’ (1902-1987) ‘humanistic approach’

Answer 17

• Individual personalities are shaped through self-knowledge and interactions with the world
• people search for ways to obtain positive regard; self-worth is measured by how much positive regard one earns
• the concept of ‘conditions of worth’: people learn to restrict self-expression in order to gain positive regard from key people around them
• such restrictions may lead to the suppression of important feelings, causing people to ‘lose’ a sense of who they truly are

Question 18

Q-sort technique

Answer 18

• Developed by William Stephenson based on Rogers’ humanistic approach
• Involves sorting cards with statements into piles, to demonstrate how you think and how you would like to be.
• The technique may be used in therapy to monitor changes in how a client views themselves

Question 19

The ‘lexical hypothesis’

Answer 19

States that every aspect of our personality can be described by words we use

Assumed by Cattell in developing his 16 source factors and ‘Big Five

Question 20

George Kelly 1905-1967 (key theory)

Answer 20

Personal construct theory

theory of personality and cognition - the client is studied in terms of how they view and perceive the world around them, which depends on a variety of ‘constructs’ formed in our minds.

Kelly developed the REPERTOIRE GRID. a technique used in interviewing to help people uncover their own constructs

Question 21

Abraham Maslow 1908-1970 (key theory)

Answer 21

Hierarchy of needs

Question 22

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs (7)

Answer 22

Self-actualisation

Aesthetic needs (beauty)

Cognitive needs (understanding)

Esteem needs (achievement)

Belonging and love (acceptance, care)

Safety needs (security, shelter)

Physiological needs (hunger)

the lower levels need to be fulfilled first in order to reach higher levels

Question 23

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

(2 kinds)

Answer 23

Being/Growth Needs (B-needs)

• Self-actualisation

Deficiency Needs (D-needs)

• Self-esteem needs
• Belonging needs
• Safety needs
• Physiological needs

Question 24

2 major approaches to understanding personality

Answer 24

Nomothetic approach - general laws (universal dimensions/traits)

Idiographic approach - particular facts (changeable, individual personalities, no fixed traits)

Question 25

Freud’s topographical model of the mind (3)

Answer 25

Conscious

Preconscious

Unconscious

Question 26

Freud’s psychodynamic model of personality (3)

Answer 26

The Id

The Ego

The Superego

Question 27

Freud’s theory of personality development (description)

Answer 27

• Personality develops through different psychosexual developmental stages.
• The stages are based on biological drives that are hypothesised to underlie certain psychological processes
• Personality traits result from fixation at one of the stages of development, resulting in defence mechanisms characteristic of that stage

Question 28

Freud’s stages of psychosexual development (5, +years)

Answer 28

Oral (0-1.5)

Anal (1.5-3)

Phallic (3-5)

Latent (5-12)

Genital (12+)

Question 29

Jung’s three levels of the psyche

Answer 29

The ego - the conscious mind. The thoughts, memories, and emotions a person is aware of. Largely responsible for feelings of identity and continuity.

The personal unconscious

The collective unconscious - a level of the unconscious shared with other members of the human species comprising latent memories from our ancestral and evolutionary past

Question 30

Archetype (definition)

Answer 30

Patterns found in the collective unconscious that help to organise our experiences and may be the root of fantasies, myths and symbols

Central to Jungian psychology

Question 31

4 Jungian archetypes

Answer 31

Persona (‘mask’)

Anima/animus

Shadow

Self

Question 32

Persona aka ‘Mask’ (characterisation)

Answer 32

the outward face we present to the world. It conceals our real self and Jung describes it as the “conformity” archetype.

This is the public face or role a person presents to others as someone different to who we really are.

Question 33

Anima/Animus (characterisation)

Answer 33

the mirror image of our biological sex, that is, the unconscious feminine side in males and the masculine tendencies in women. Each sex manifests attitudes and behaviour of the other by virtue of centuries of living together.

The psyche of a woman contains masculine aspects (the animus archetype), and the psyche of a man contains feminine aspects (the anima archetype).

Question 34

The Shadow (characterisation)

Answer 34

the animal side of our personality (like the id in Freud). It is the source of both our creative and destructive energies.

In line with evolutionary theory, it may be that Jung’s archetypes reflect predispositions that once had survival value.

Question 35

The Self (characterisation)

Answer 35

provides a sense of unity in experience.

For Jung, the ultimate aim of every individual is to achieve a state of selfhood (similar to self-actualisation)

Question 36

Erik Erikson (key theory)

Answer 36

‘Psychosocial development’:

Argued that while Freud’s emphasis on internal impulses was not incorrect, cultural/environmental influences contribute much more to the development of personality than internal impulses.

Question 37

Erikson’s Psychosocial development

(Stages 1-4; ages)

Answer 37

Trust vs mistrust (0-1)

Autonomy vs shame (1-3)

Initiative vs guilt (3-5)

Industry vs inferiority (5-12)

Question 38

Erikson’s Psychosocial development

(Stages 5-8; ages)

Answer 38

Identity vs role confusion (12-19)

Intimacy vs isolation (19-35)

Generativity vs stagnation (35-65)

Integrity vs despair (65+)

Question 39

Defence mechanism (characterisation)

Answer 39

techniques employed by the ego to protect itself from anxiety and danger

Anna Freud defined the first nine defence mechanisms in 1936

They are unconscious and habitual.

They may be normal and adaptive, or pathological. Some are seen as more mature and others more primitive.

Question 40

George Vaillaint’s classification of defence mechansims (4)

Answer 40

Level I - Pathological (psychotic)

Level II - Immature Level

Level III - Neurotic Level

Level IV - Mature

Question 41

Psychoanalytic theories of personality (essence)

Answer 41

This approach considers the development of personality in light of

a) the structure of the mind (including the unconscious) and
b) the formation of defence mechanisms.

The key idea is that we are often unaware of the true motives behind our actions.

Key theorists: Freud, Jung, Erikson

Question 42

Cognitive approach to personality (characterisation)

Answer 42

Cognitive psychologists are interested in how cognitions influence behaviours.

Personality is considered to be strongly dependent on environment (our parents or the culture we have grown up in) and less to with life experiences.

Key ideas: -mental schemata -social perception -attribution theory -cognitive-social learning theory -imitation

Question 43

Mental schemata/schemas (definition)

Answer 43

a mental structure of preconceived ideas

a framework representing some aspect of the world, or

a system of organising and perceiving new information

Question 44

Behaviourist approach to personality (characterisation)

Answer 44

BF Skinner (1904-1990) argued that personality is just a perceived pattern with no basis within the individual.

Mental states are inaccessible to scientific study and are therefore irrelevant to understanding behaviour.

All behaviours are determined by experience and explainable through classical and operant conditioning.

Question 45

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)

Answer 45

developed by Hathaway + McKinley (1943)

Personality inventories are completed by the patients themselves. 567 self-statements, answered as ‘true’, ‘false’ or ‘cannot say’

Covers mood, physical concerns, and social attitudes

Question 46

Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) (essence)

Answer 46

Assess psychological preferences in terms of how individuals perceive the world and make decisions.

Based on Jung’s notion that individuals tend to use 4 principal psychological functions to experience the world.

Question 47

Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)

(4 dimensions)

Answer 47

Judging - Perceiving

Extraversion - Introversion

Thinking - Feeling

Intuition - Sensing

(‘JETI’)

Question 48

Projective tests of personality (essence)

Answer 48

Standard techniques used to gain information about an individual using open-ended questions.

Derive from psychodynamic views and attempt to explore intentions and desires that may be unconscious.

Useful in gaining a ‘first impression’, but considered less reliable.

Question 49

Projective tests of personality (4)

Answer 49

Rorschach Inkblot Test

Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)

Sentence Completion Test

Draw a Man Test

Question 50

Rorschach Inkblot Test (Projective test of personality)

Answer 50

The subject examines 10 inkblots on a page and is asked to identify designs and shapes.

Question 51

Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) (Projective test of personality)

Answer 51

30 black and white pictures of people in ambiguous situations are presented to the subject, who is asked to create a story around them.

Question 52

Sentence Completion Test (Projective test of personality)

Answer 52

The subject is provided with the first part of an uncompleted sentence and is asked to complete the sentence in their own words.

Question 53

Draw a Man Test

aka Draw a Person; Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test

(Projective test of personality)

Answer 53

Subject is asked to complete three separate drawings - a man, a woman, themselves.

They are then asked to draw a whole person (head to feet) without any further instructions

Question 54

Objective tests of personality (essence)

Answer 54

Self-report methods of assessment with a restricted response format, including ordinal scale ratings or True/False questions.

Question 55

Objective tests of personality (4)

Answer 55

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)

Cattell’s Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF)

NEO Personality Inventory

Eysenck Personality Questionnaire

Question 56

Cattell’s 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF)

Answer 56

measures 16 primary traits and the ‘Big Five’ secondary traits

assumes that personality is multi-levelled and hierarchical

Question 57

Eysenck Personality Questionnaire

Answer 57

A range of psychometric tests have been developed to measure the ‘Gigantic Three’:

• Maudsley Medical Questionnaire (MMQ)
• Eysenck Personality Inventory (EPI)
• Revised Eysenck Personality Inventory (EPQ-R)
• Eysenck Personality Profiler (EPP)

Question 58

International Personality Disorder Examination (IPDE)

Answer 58

2 parts:

• Self-administered screening questionnaire
• Semi-structured interview

Question 59

Behaviourism (associated learning theories, 3)

Answer 59

Classical conditioning

Operant conditioning

Social learning theory

Question 60

Classical conditioning (essence)

Answer 60

The acquisition of a new (learnt) behaviour as a result of the association of two stimuli.

Usually involves innate or autonomic responses.

Question 61

Little Albert

Answer 61

a boy used in John Watson’s experiments, demonstrating classical conditioning.

Little Albert enjoyed playing with a white rat. Whenever he saw the rat, Watson banged two metal bars behind his head, causing distress.

After a while, Albert became distressed when seeing the rat (even without the noise)

Question 62

Terms in classical conditioning:

Before conditioning:

• -food
• -salivation
• -bell

After conditioning:

• -bell
• -salivation

Answer 62

Before conditioning:

• -food (unconditioned stimulus , UCS)
• -salivation (unconditioned response, UCR)
• -bell (neutral stimulus)

After conditioning:

• -bell (conditioned stimulus, CS)
• -salivation (conditioned response, CR)

Question 63

Higher/second order conditioning

Answer 63

Once a conditioned response has been learnt, other stimuli can be added to the process e.g. shining a light before the bell

Question 64

Forward conditioning/delayed conditioning

Answer 64

The traditional model of classical conditioning.

Neutral stimulus (bell) is presented first, 0.5s before UCS (food).

Both stay together until the response develops.

Question 65

Trace conditioning

Answer 65

Neutral stimulus (bell) is presented but then removed before the UCS (food) is presented.

Thus a memory trace is conditioned to lead to the conditioned response.

Question 66

Backward conditioning

Answer 66

The UCS (food) is presented before the neutral stimulus (bell).

This model is often used in advertising.

Question 67

Simultaneous conditioning

Answer 67

Both the neutral stimulus (bell) and UCS (food) are presented at the same time.

Less effective than forward conditioning.

Question 68

Stimulus preparedness

Answer 68

Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others

e.g. we are more likely to develop a fear of insects/snakes than cars. Most likely an evolutionary remnant.

Question 69

Stimulus Generalisation

Answer 69

The extension of the conditioned response from the original conditioned stimulus to other similar stimuli.

e.g. Little Albert became afraid not only of white rats but also other white/furry objects.

Question 70

Discrimination

Answer 70

It is possible to use classical conditioning to enable a person or animal to learn to discriminate between two stimuli.

For instance, if a dog is conditioned to salivate to a black card after several trials, an experimenter may introduce white cards, which are not reinforced with food. In doing so, the dog will learn to associate the black card with food, but not the white, and hence will discriminate between the two and only salivate to the black.

Question 71

Incubation

Answer 71

A process whereby the response to the initial unconditioned stimulus and the neutral stimulus is heightened, despite the two not being paired together repeatedly.

For instance, after just one exposure to the rat and the loud bang together for Little Albert, he could have been exposed just to loud bangs repeatedly (in the absence of the rat). In incubation (unlike extinction) this could lead to a heightened fear response when exposed to the rat again.

Question 72

Extinction

Answer 72

The process whereby the conditioned response (for instance salivation) will disappear if the conditioned stimulus (bell) is repeatedly presented without the expected food. Essentially the association between the bell and the food diminishes.

Question 73

Spontaneous recovery

Answer 73

This is the return of the conditioned response, after a period of extinction.

After a period of no association between the two, apparently at random, the previously conditioned stimulus can evoke the earlier conditioned response again.

Question 74

Operant conditioning (aka)

Answer 74

Instrumental conditioning

Question 75

Thorndike’s law of effect

Answer 75

the tendency of an action to occur depends on the effect it has on the environment.

Basically this means that actions that have pleasurable responses are strengthened, whereas actions which lead to discomfort are less likely to recur.

Question 76

Operant conditioning (essence)

Answer 76

Learning is dependent on an animal learning to operate in some way to make a change that leads to a consequence.

Question 77

Reinforcement (definition)

Answer 77

A stimulus/event that increases the likelihood that a behaviour will be repeated.

Question 78

Positive reinforcement

Answer 78

The performance of an action/behaviour is strengthened by a pleasant consequence

e.g. food or money for good homework.

Question 79

Negative reinforcement

Answer 79

The performance of an action/behaviour is strengthened by the removal of an unpleasant stimulus

e.g. Skinner’s rats learnt that pressing a lever would stop an electric shock

Question 80

Distinction between primary and secondary reinforcers

Answer 80

Primary reinforcers - those that are necessary for survival e.g. warmth, water, food

Secondary reinforcers - those we have learnt to value e.g. wealth, possessions

Question 81

Punishment (definition)

Answer 81

a stimulus/event that decreases the likelihood that a behaviour will be repeated

Question 82

Positive punishment

Answer 82

A behaviour is reduced by adding an unpleasant stimulus

Question 83

Negative punishment

Answer 83

A behaviour is reduced by removing a pleasant stimulus

Question 84

Fixed ratio (schedule of reinforcement)

Answer 84

Reward is given after a behaviour is repeated a fixed number of times

Question 85

Variable ratio (schedule of reinforcement)

Answer 85

Reward is given after a varying number of actions (e.g. slot machine).

Yields highest response rates and is most resistant to extinction

Question 86

Fixed interval (schedule of reinforcement)

Answer 86

Reward is given after a fixed period of time, regardless of the number of completed responses in between

Question 87

Variable interval (schedule of reinforcement)

Answer 87

Reward is given after a variable time interval

Question 88

Aversive conditioning

Answer 88

Learning as a result of unpleasant consequences (punishment)

Question 89

Escape conditioning

Answer 89

An animal learns to perform a behaviour in order to escape or end an aversive stimulus

(essentially another way to describe negative reinforcement)

Question 90

Avoidance conditioning

Answer 90

Avoidance conditioning is similar to escape conditioning. The difference is that a CS is given before the presentation of an aversive stimulus.

For example, a light may precede the shock by a few seconds. What does the animal do under this new setup? At first, its behavior is no different than it was for escape conditioning. Namely, it jumps the barrier when the shock is delivered. Soon, however, it begins to jump before the shock. It jumps when the light comes on and thus avoids the shock.

Question 91

Shaping

(aka, characterisation)

Answer 91

aka successive approximation

a way of adding behaviours to a person’s repertoire. Some approximation of the target behaviour is reinforced, until eventually the new behaviour emerges.

e.g. playing ‘hot and cold’ to lead a person to look for an item under the couch

Question 92

Chaining

Answer 92

A series of behaviours (a behaviour chain) is reinforced.

Each link in the chain provides the cue for the next, to eventually produce a reinforcer. The reinforcer is provided only at the end of the chain.

e.g. saying the alphabet, or step by step making a cake Forward chaining - A-Z Backward chaining - Z-A

Question 93

Social learning theory (essence)

Answer 93

Classical and operant conditioning do not provide an exhaustive description of the way people learn.

Humans also learn by observing and modelling those around them (particularly as children).

Question 94

Bandura

(famous experiment demonstrating social learning theory)

Answer 94

Bobo doll experiment

Question 95

Cognitive learning theory (essence)

Answer 95

Contrary to behaviourism, cognitive learning theorists argued that learning is not simply a a passive process, but instead relies on the active acquisition of new knowledge.

New understanding drives behavioural change, not just simple association.

Question 96

Anxiety hierarachy

Answer 96

Application of learning theory to phobia.

In CBT, the patient rates the level of anxiety (termed the ‘subjective units of distress’) they would experience in relation to different encounters with a feared stimulus, e.g. touching a spider, seeing a picture of a spider. They then rank these from least to most distressing.

Question 97

Systematic desensitisation

(traditional model, Wolpe 1968)

Answer 97

Patient was gradually exposed to feared stimuli by progressing up the anxiety hierarchy, while performing relaxation techniques.

This was based on the principle of reciprocal inhibiition.

Question 98

Reciprocol inhibition

Answer 98

The notion that two contrasting feelings (e.g. relaxation and anxiety) cannot coexist.

e.g. if a child is scared of a dog but is comforted while sat on their mum’s knee, then the fear response will diminish.

Question 99

Graded exposure CBT for phobias

Answer 99

Contrary to systematic desensitisation and the principle of reciprocol inhibition, CBT does not use relaxation techniques.

The focus is simply on progressive movement up the anxiety hierarchy, assuming that maintained levels of anxiety are unlikely to last for long (habituation).

Question 100

Habituation

Answer 100

The phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time.

Question 101

Flooding

Answer 101

Rather than confront the feared stimulus in a graded way, the patient is asked to start at the top of their anxiety hierarchy e.g. holding a spider, and remaining in this situation until their subjective state of anxiety diminishes.

Relies on the process of habituation.

Question 102

Implosion

Answer 102

The situation at the top of a patient’s anxiety hierarchy is imagined by the patient, with the aid of a therapist, who will talk them through and describe the feared encounter (with potentially even more horrid scenarios added).

Question 103

Learned helplessness

(key theorist, essence, and application)

Answer 103

Seligman

Dog’s were delivered electric shocks and could not do anything to prevent this. These dogs, in another scenario, learnt to escape the shocks much more slowly than other dogs.

Seligman argued that people with depression similarly learn to become helpless. This is challenged with behavioural activation.

Question 104

The Premack principle

Answer 104

a concept in operant conditioning.

parents use this regularly - in order to engage with a more desired activity (going out to play), a child must first complete a less desired activity (tidying up).

Question 105

Token economies

Answer 105

Nominated tokens are are awarded for a desired behaviour. When a specified target is reached, the tokens can be exchanged for an agreed reward (the reinforcer).

e.g. star charts for children

Question 106

Cueing

(characterisation and application)

Answer 106

The principle that an environmental stimulus (conditioned stimulus) leads to the return of a conditioned response.

e.g. in a smoker who used to smoke with alcohol, returning to the pub with friends may increase the craving for cigarettes

Question 107

Aversion therapy

Answer 107

an undesired behaviour is coupled with an unpleasant response

e.g. drinking alcohol is coupled with flush reaction secondary to disulfiram

Question 108

Covert sensitisation

Answer 108

Aversion therapy that relies on mental imagery rather than an actual occurence.

Question 109

Memory (taxonomy)

Answer 109

Long term memory (LTM)

• Declarative (explicit)
  
  • Semantic
  • Episodic
• Non-declarative (implicit i.e. cannot be accessed consciously)
  
  • Classical conditioning
  • Priming
  • Procedural

Short term memory (STM)

• Declarative (explicit)
  
  • Working memory

Question 110

Memory process (3)

Answer 110

Registration (encoding)

Storage

Retrieval

Question 111

3 forms of memory storage

Answer 111

Sensory memory, aka ‘sensory buffer store’ or sensory storage

Short-term memory, aka ‘primary memory’ or short-term storage (STS)

Long-term memory, aka ‘secondary memory’ or long-term storage (LTS)

Question 112

Sensory memory

(characterisation)

Answer 112

The retention of sensory inputs long enough to decide if further processing is required Modality-specific

e. g.
- iconic memory system - stores visual images
- echoic memory system - stores sounds

Question 113

Iconic memory (duration)

Answer 113

0.5 seconds

Question 114

Echoic memory (duration)

Answer 114

2 seconds

Question 115

The term ‘short-term memory’ (STM) has been superseded by the term ‘…’ However, the term continues to be used to explain various concepts

Answer 115

Working memory

Question 116

Multi-component working memory model

(4 components) (Baddeley)

Answer 116

Central executive

Visuospacial sketchpad

Phonological loop

Episodic buffer

Question 117

STM capacity, and key method for expanding

Answer 117

7 +/- 2

(based on digit span experiments)

This can be expanded by ‘chunking’ - combining units of information into chunks e.g. 1-9-7-9 into the date ‘1979’

Question 118

Brown-Peterson Technique

(characterisation)

Answer 118

Experimental method used in testing short-term memory to overcome maintenance rehearsal (repetition). -subjects hear ‘trigrams’ (groups of three letters) -they are asked to repeat what they just heard. They then have to count backwards - this stops rehearsal.

Question 119

Long-term memory - range and capacity

Answer 119

Ranges from things occurring within the last few minutes to events spanning a lifetime

Unlimited capacity

Question 120

Memory retrieval - 2 forms, 3 modes

Answer 120

Forms

• voluntary (active process)
• involuntary (automatic recall)

Modes

• recognition (navigating familiar routes)
• recall (actively searching memory stores)
• reintegration/reconstruction (recollection of past experiences e.g. eye witness testimony)

Question 121

Memory encoding - 4 strategies to improve

Answer 121

Chunking

Imagery

Mnemonics

Primacy/Recency effects

‘ChIMP’

Question 122

Central executive (characterisation)

Answer 122

Component of working memory responsible for attention and higher cognitive processes

e.g. planning and problem-solving

Capacity-limited, but modality-free

‘In charge’ of slave systems e.g. phonological loop/visuospacial sketchpad

Question 123

Central executive (neurological association)

Answer 123

Dorsolateral prefrontal lobe

Question 124

Phonological loop (characterisation)

Answer 124

Component of working memory that stores speech-based information

It is a verbal rehearsal loop e.g. remembering your pin number by repeating it to yourself

Memory traces fade after about 2 seconds

Question 125

Phonological loop (neurological association)

Answer 125

Dominant parieto-occipital hemisphere

Question 126

Visuospacial sketchpad (characterisation)

Answer 126

Component of working memory that stores visual and spacial information.

e.g. map reading and navigation

Question 127

Visuospacial sketchpad (neurological association)

Answer 127

Non-dominant parieto-occipital regions

Question 128

Episodic buffer (characterisation)

Answer 128

Component of working memory, added by Baddeley in 2000 to his original model.

Thought to act as a backup store, communicating with components of the working memory and long-term memory.

It is proposed to be a multi-modal store of limited capacity that integrates information from the other systems.

Question 129

Atikinson + Shiffrin’s multi-store model of memory

Answer 129

An information processing model whereby information flows through each memory component:

• a stimulus is found by the sense organs
• it passes to the sensory memory
• if attention is paid, the information is passed to the STM
• if it is rehearsed, the information is passed to the LTM

Question 130

Serial position effect (essence)

Answer 130

Subjects tend to remember items from the beginning and end of a series when presented with a list.

Recency effect (STM) - words at the end of list are recalled first

Primacy effect (LTM) - words at the beginning of a list are recalled better than words in the middle

Provides evidence for the multi-store memory model

Question 131

Episodic memory (characterisation)

Answer 131

Autobiographical memories of our past experiences.

Operates in a spacio-temporal context, including details of time and place.

Question 132

Flashbulb memories

Answer 132

A form of episodic memory.

Clear and distinct recollections of significant personal or global events.

A high level of emotional arousal at the time the event was committed to memory.

Question 133

Episodic memory (neural associations)

Answer 133

The structures associated with — are located bilaterally in the limbic system and medial temporal lobe.

Collectively they are known as the ‘circuit of Papez’.

Question 134

Left hippocampal damage (kind of memory loss)

Answer 134

Memory loss for verbal material (neural region)

Question 135

Right hippocampal damage (kind of memory loss)

Answer 135

Memory loss for spacial (non-language) memory (neural region)

Question 136

Reminiscence bump (essence)

Answer 136

Autographical memories are not distributed equally across the lifespan - they peak between the ages of 10 and 30,

Question 137

Semantic memory (characterisation)

Answer 137

The store of general, factual knowledge about the world, including concepts, rules and language.

It is organised conceptually, without reference to the time and context in which the information was acquired.

Question 138

Priming (essence)

Answer 138

A form of non-declarative memory.

Learning without conscious recall of learning.

Exposure to a stimulus influences a response to a later stimulus

e.g. introducing the colour blue to a person to help them recognise the word ‘sea’.

Question 139

Procedural memory (essence)

Answer 139

A form of non-declarative memory.

Knowledge of how to perform skills.

Question 140

Schema theory (essence)

Answer 140

Concerns the representation of knowledge in semantic memory.

The theory argues that previous knowledge is stored as schemas, and that the schemas play a role in how we represent and organise new knowledge in memory.

Lacks experimental evidence but is generally accepted

Question 141

The Ebbinghaus Curve (essence)

Answer 141

Empirical plot of the rate of forgetting. Ebbinghaus tried to memories nonsense syllables and retested himself over a period of 31 days.

There is a sharp drop in recall over the first 9 hours, after which the rate of forgetting slows and declines little thereafter, even after a lapse of 31 days.

Question 142

Key points about forgetting

Answer 142

Forgetting is never complete

Actively recalling information during the test period will increase the likelihood of remembering the information

Continuous motor skills (gymnastic routine) are not forgotten; discrete skills (striking a golf ball) are.

Learned skills need to be refreshed over time

Question 143

Decay theory, aka trace decay (essence)

Answer 143

A theory of forgetting

Proposes that structural change (formation of an engram) occurs in the brain when something is learnt and remembered.

Breakdown of engrams by metabolic processes over time explains why we forget things.

This theory has been discredited.

Question 144

Displacement theory (essence)

Answer 144

A theory of forgetting

Once a memory has reached capacity, old information is displaced by new information.

Explains forgetting in a limited-capacity system such as STM

Question 145

Interference theory (essence)

Answer 145

A theory of forgetting

Events that occur before and after learning are thought to influence forgetting

Question 146

Motivated forgetting (aka, essence)

Answer 146

A theory of forgetting

aka Repression

Repression is the unconscious forgetting of painful memories in order to protect the psyche.

Question 147

Tulving’s encoding-specificity principle

(essence)

Answer 147

Recall is improved if the recall environment is the same as the learning environment

Question 148

Cue-dependent forgetting (retrieval failure seems to be similar)

Answer 148

A theory of forgetting

We forget things because the required cues are not available

Context-dependent forgetting - occurs when required contextual or environmental cues are not available

State-dependent forgetting - occurs when required physiological or psychological cues are not available

Question 149

Memory impairment (taxonomy, 3)

Answer 149

Age-appropriate memory impairment (AAMI)

Organic amnesias

• Delirium
• Dementia
• Amnesic syndromes
• Short-term amnesias

Psychological causes

Question 150

Age-appropriate memory impairment (key facts)

Answer 150

People aged 70-74 perform 50% worse in objective memory tasks than those aged 35-44

Non-verbal memory and delayed recall are most affected

AAMI affects 40% of individuals >65

Question 151

Amnesic syndrome (clinical features)

Answer 151

• Specific memory impairment without loss of other faculties such as speech, intelligence, reasoning.
• Intact short-term memory; unchanged implicit memory
• Anterograde amnesia - inability to create new memories
• Retrograde amnesia - inability to recall information/events from just before the event/illness causing the amnesia

Question 152

Amnesic syndrome - subtypes (2)

Answer 152

Medial temporal lobe amnesia

Diencephalic amnesia

Question 153

Medial temporal lobe amnesia

(neural associations and clinical features)

Answer 153

Bilateral damage to the medial temporal lobe and hippocampal system

Limited retrograde amnesia, no confabulation

Question 154

Diencephalic amnesia (neural associations and clinical features)

Answer 154

Bilateral damage to the medial thalamic area, mammilary bodies and hypothalamic areas.

Marked retrograde amnesia, confabulation and lack of insight.

Key example is Korsakoff’s syndrome

Question 155

Post-traumatic amnesia, PTA

(definition and grading)

Answer 155

Time between initial head injury and recovery of memory.

Used to grade severity of head injury:

• <1h - mild
• 1-24h - moderate
• >24h - severe

Question 156

Ribot’s law

Answer 156

This law states that, in retrograde amnesia occurring after brain damage, recently formed memories are more impaired that older memories

Question 157

Transient global amnesia, TGA

(essence, proposed neurological cause)

Answer 157

memory disturbance lasting several hours.

most common in middle-aged men

the cause is thought to be by temporary loss of function of the limbic-hippocampal circuits

Question 158

Transient epileptic amnesia, TEA

(essence)

Answer 158

Brief, recurring episodes of amnesia caused by underlying temporal lobe epilepsy

Question 159

Katathymic amnesia

(aka, essence)

Answer 159

aka motivated forgetting; dissociative amnesia

First described by Freud - forgetting that occurs after traumatic events, possibly by repression

Question 160

Distortion of recall

(essence)

Answer 160

Contrary to amnesia, this refers to incorrect memories, often psychogenic in origin.

Question 161

Unintentional distortion of memory that occurs due to an individual’s altered mental state

e.g. feeling low in mood can paint negative picture of past experiences

Answer 161

Retrospective falsification

Question 162

An individual remembers an event that did not happen

Answer 162

False memory

Question 163

A memory in its entirety is too painful to recall, so it is remembered part truthfully and part falsely - an individual may recollect an event with different details in order to avoid a painful fact

Answer 163

Screen memory

Question 164

Confabulation (definition)

Answer 164

falsification of memory in clear consciousness due to an organic pathology

Question 165

Pseudologia fantastica

Answer 165

Pathological lying

Occurs without brain pathology, usually in individuals with certain personality types e.g. antisocial, hysterical

Question 166

Munchausen’s syndrome

Answer 166

A type of pathological lying where an individual presents to hospital with a false illness

— by proxy occurs when an adult presents to hospital (usually their child) with a fictitious illness

Question 167

Vorbeireden

Answer 167

‘Approximate answers’

The patient may understand the question but try to avoid the correct answer

Question 168

Cryptamnesia

Answer 168

A forgotten memory returns but is not recognised as a memory.

The individual then believes it to be an original thought. e.g. a ‘new’ jokes that has in fact been heard many times before

Question 169

Retrospective delusions

Answer 169

the patient recalls as remembered an event or idea that is clearly delusional in nature

Question 170

Hyperamnesia

Answer 170

Exaggerated registration, retention and recall

Examples: - flashbulb memories - flashbacks that occur in PTSD

Question 171

Digit span test

(essence and normal range)

Answer 171

Tests for auditory, verbal working memory.

Patients are given sequences of numbers to remember (forwards and backwards).

Normal range:

• forward: 6 +/- 1
• backward: 5 +/- 1

Question 172

Tests for anterograde verbal memory

Answer 172

recall three items (from MMSE)

name/address recall (from ACE-R)

Formal tests:

• Ray Auditory Verbal Learning Test

Question 173

Test for anterograde non-verbal memory

Answer 173

Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure Test (ROCF)

the individual is shown a drawn figure. it is then covered up and they are asked to redraw it.

Question 174

Test for retrograde memory

Answer 174

Autobiographical Memory Interview (AMI)

Question 175

Attention (definition)

Answer 175

The focussing of consciousness on an experience.

Voluntary - the subject focusses themselves

Involuntary - an event attracts the subject without their conscious effort

Question 176

Concentration (definition)

Answer 176

The act of maintaining attention upon an experience.

Question 177

Alertness (definition)

Answer 177

The state of active attention by high sensory awareness.

Question 178

Arousal (definition, neural association)

Answer 178

A physiological and psychological state of active attention by high sensory awareness

Involves activation of the reticular activating system in the brain stem, the autonomic nervous system, and the endocrine system

Question 179

Yerkes-Dodson Law (1908)

Answer 179

This law states that performance increases with arousal, but only up to a point. When levels of arousal become too high, performance decreases.

This is represented graphically with an inverted U-shaped curve.

Question 180

NREM sleep

(characterisation)

Answer 180

• anabolic (building of organs/tissue)
• controlled lowering of metabolism, temperature, blood pressure, HR and RR
• predominates in the first third of the night
• quantity related to time of commencement of sleep, peaking at 23:00

Question 181

REM sleep (characterisation)

Answer 181

• autonomic instability (variability in heart rate, respiratory rate, and BP)
• muscle atonia
• fragile in the face of stresses
• majority of dreaming
• predominates in the final third of the night
• important for learning, brain development, information processing

Question 182

Technique used in sleep measurement:

The corneo-retinal potential is measured to record changes in eye movement.

Answer 182

Electrooculography (EOG)

Question 183

Technique used in sleep measurement:

Pads are placed under the chin to measure muscle electrical activity - this shows the atonia of REM sleep

Answer 183

Electromyogram (EMG)

Question 184

Technique used in sleep measurement:

Uses a motion sensor to quantify circadian sleep-wake patterns and to detect movement disorders during sleep

Answer 184

Actigraphy

Question 185

Technique used in sleep measurement:

Uses EEG, EMG, EOG, ECG, pulse oximetry, and respiratory monitor to diagnose and monitor sleep disorders

Answer 185

Polysomnography (PSG)

Question 186

First night effect (essence)

Answer 186

The alteration of the structure of sleep during the first night in the sleep lab.

Question 187

REM latency

(definition, normal time)

Answer 187

Time from sleep onset to first REM.

Should be around 90 mins.

Increased by first night effect.

<60mins suggest a major affective disorder.

Question 188

NREM latency (definition)

Answer 188

Time from sleep onset to first NREM episode.

Question 189

Sleep efficiency (equation)

Answer 189

total sleep time/total time in bed x 100

Question 190

The patient lies on a bed and tries to fall asleep.

This test is used to asses daytime somnolence and daytime REM onset.

Needs to be repeated several times and the scores averaged.

Answer 190

Multiple sleep latency test

Question 191

The patient sits in a comfortable chair and tries to resist sleep.

Answer 191

Maintenance of wakefulness test

Question 192

Subjective measure of sleepiness.

Subjects are asked to rate their level of sleepiness from 1-7

Answer 192

Stanford Sleepiness Scale

Question 193

REM sleep (also known as)

Answer 193

Paradoxical sleep

This is because the EEG in REM sleep is similar to the waking EEG (low voltage <50microvolts, high frequency >8Hz)

Question 194

Delta waves

(frequency, brain area, associated presentation)

Answer 194

1-4Hz

Frontally in adults, posteriorly in children

Slow wave sleep and in babies.

Should not be present when awake, when present if awake this strongly suggests pathology

Question 195

Theta waves

(frequency, brain area, associated presentation)

Answer 195

4-8Hz

Generalised

Young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, with certain medications, meditation.

Small amount seen in awake adults, excessive amount when awake may indicate pathology

Question 196

Alpha waves

(frequency, brain area, associated presentation)

Answer 196

8-12Hz

Posteriorly

When relaxed and when the eyes are closed (whilst awake)

Question 197

Beta waves

(frequency, brain area, associated presentation)

Answer 197

12-20Hz

Frontally

When busy or concentrating

Question 198

Sigma waves (aka)

(frequency, brain area, associated presentation)

Answer 198

(aka sleep spindles)

12-14Hz

Frontal and central regions

Bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep.

Along with k-complexes they are the defining characteristic of stage 2 sleep

Question 199

Gamma waves

(frequency, brain area, associated presentation)

Answer 199

30-100Hz

No specific areas

Meditation

Question 200

Sleep stages

Answer 200

REM sleep - 25%

NREM sleep - 75%

• I
• II
• III
• IV

(III and IV are known as ‘slow wave sleep’)

Question 201

NREM Stage 1

(% of time spent in stage, EEG findings)

Answer 201

5%

Theta waves

Question 202

NREM Stage 2

(% of time spent in stage, EEG findings)

Answer 202

45%

K complexes

Sleep spindles

Question 203

NREM Stage 3

(% of time spent in stage, EEG findings)

Answer 203

12%

<50% Delta waves

Question 204

NREM Stage 4

(% of time spent in stage, EEG findings)

Answer 204

13%

>50% Delta waves

Question 205

Brain structure that inhibits muscle tone during sleep

Answer 205

Locus coeruleus

Question 206

Brain structure that produces melatonin

Answer 206

Pineal gland

Question 207

Brain structures important for wakefulness (2)

Answer 207

Ascending reticular activating system (brainstem)

Posterior hypothalamus

Question 208

Endocrine changes associated with sleep

Answer 208

Increase testosterone, growth hormone and somatostatin at start of sleep

Reduced cortisol at start of sleep

Reduced melatonin in REM sleep

Increase prolactin in early morning sleep

Question 209

Manifest content

Answer 209

In dream interpretation (psychoanalysis) this is what is actually dreamed.

Question 210

Latent content

Answer 210

In dream interpretation (psychoanalysis) this is what the dream is said to represent.

Question 211

Circadian rhythm (key facts)

Answer 211

Any biological process that displays an endogenous, entrainable oscillation of about 24 hours.

Examples - body temperature, hormone secretion, sleep-waking.

Although circadian rhythms are endogenous (“built-in”, self-sustained), they are adjusted (entrained) to the local environment by external cues called zeitgebers (from German, “time giver”), which include light, temperature and redox cycles.

Without external influence (including light), humans ‘free run’ with a period of 24-25.5 hours.

Question 212

Zeitgeber

Answer 212

An extrinsic factor (e.g. sound from a neighbours flat) that sets the timing of a circadian rhythm

Question 213

Processes involved in regulation of the sleep-wake cycle (2)

Answer 213

Circadian rhythm

• suprachiasmatic nucleus
• pineal gland (producing melatonin)

Homeostasis

• VLPO
• arousal system (ascending reticular activating system)

Question 214

Brain structure important in the circadian rhythm.

Reset daily by light, received via the retino-hypothalamic tract.

Answer 214

Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the hypothalamus

Question 215

Brain structure known as the ‘sleep switch nucleus’

Activated by the amount of prior wakefulness.

Induces sleep by suppressing messages from the arousal system. Switched on/off by orexin/hypocretin from the hypothalamus

Answer 215

Ventrolateral preoptic nuclei (VLPO)

Question 216

Narcolepsy

Answer 216

Disorder of unknown etiology characterized by excessive sleepiness that typically is associated with cataplexy and other REM sleep phenomena, such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations.

Repeated episodes of naps or lapses into sleep of short duration (usually less than one hour). The patient typically sleeps for 10 to 20 minutes and awakens refreshed but within the next two to three hours begins to feel sleepy again, and the pattern repeats itself. There may be sudden and irresistible sleep attacks in situations where sleep normally never occurs (e.g. during an examination or while eating).

A history of cataplexy is a characteristic and unique feature: - sudden loss of bilateral muscle tone provoked by strong emotion.

most commonly begins in the second decade, with a peak incidence around 14 years of age.

Question 217

Kleine-Levin Syndrome (aka, features)

Answer 217

‘Sleeping Beauty Syndrome’

Most commonly seen in adolescent boys

• Hypersomnolence - increased need for sleep
• Hyperphagia - tendency to eat any food in sight while awake
• Emotional and behavioural problems - irritability and aggression

The symptoms often appear abruptly, remain for a few days to weeks and then disappear. This is usually followed by a period of normality followed by another episode. This pattern can repeat for years with a gradual reduction of severity over time. In between episodes, those affected appear to be in perfect health with no evidence of behavioural or physical dysfunction.

The cause is unknown.

Outcome is reported to be good with the majority of people making a full recovery.

Question 218

Somnambulism

Answer 218

Sleepwalking

• Usually occurs during N3 sleep, during the first third of the night.
• M>F, children more than adults
• More common in depressed patients
• There is a genetic component
• Association with enuresis

Question 219

Noctural enuresis

(treatment)

Answer 219

Imipramine

Question 220

Bruxism

Answer 220

Teeth grinding

Question 221

Pavor nocturnes

Answer 221

Night terrors

• usually occurs in N3 (NREM) sleep, early in the night
• sudden arousal with fright
• patient cannot recall any dream
• most common in children 3-5 yrs

Question 222

Hypnogogic hallucination

Answer 222

Hallucination occurring when going to sleep

‘-gogic’ - GOing to sleep

Question 223

Hypnopompic hallucination

Answer 223

Hallucination occurring on waking

Question 224

Ganser state

(aka, essence)

Answer 224

aka prison psychosis, described in 1898

Symptoms - approximate answers, clouding of consciousness, somatic conversion features, hallucinations

ICD-10 lists it in F44.8 - other dissociation (conversion) disorders

Question 225

Twilight state

Answer 225

Condition of disordered consciousness.

Actions may be performed without conscious volition and without recall afterwards

Occurs in epilepsy (esp temporal lobe), head injury, hysteria, schizophrenia, illicit substance intoxication

Question 226

Coined the term ‘hypnotism’

(+date)

Answer 226

James Braid

(1795-1860)

Question 227

Determinants of figure/ground differentiation (4)

Answer 227

Certain properties of an object make it easier to distinguish as a separate entity:

• Contour (having a clearly defined outline/boundary)
• Size
• Orientation
• Symmetry

Question 228

Ambiguous figure

(key example, essence)

Answer 228

Rubin’s vase

an image where the perception can change as one looks at it, without any change to the sensory stimulus

Question 229

Change blindness (essence)

Answer 229

when you look at two very similar pictures but don’t spot small changes in them

Question 230

Sensation vs Perception

Answer 230

Sensation is the process that begins with information being received by sensory receptors, which then transmit this ‘data’ (in the form of neural impulses) to the brain. The brain interprets this as sound, touch or taste.

Perception is how we make sense of – or find meaning in – the sensory information reaching our brains. It relies heavily on previous experience, memory, emotion, motivation and other psychological factors.

For example: ‘I am listening to Bach’s cello suite no.1 in G.’

Question 231

Top-down processing

(aka, essence)

Answer 231

aka conceptually-driven processing

this is the view that our perceptions are the end result of ‘higher up’ processes, making inferences about what things are like.

This means we perceive them ‘indirectly’, drawing on our existing knowledge and expectations of the world

Question 232

Bottom-up processing (essence)

Answer 232

this is the view that perception is stimulus-driven (as opposed to attention-driven), and involves processing information in a more ‘direct’ manner, essentially determined only by the information presented to our sensory receptors

Question 233

Cocktail party effect (essence)

Answer 233

the phenomenon of the brain’s ability to focus one’s auditory attention (an effect of selective attention in the brain) on a particular stimulus while filtering out a range of other stimuli

Question 234

3 Gestalt psychologists

Answer 234

Max Wertheimer

Kurt Koffka

Wolfgang Köhler.

Question 235

Gestalt psychology (essence)

Answer 235

‘The whole is other than the sum of its parts’ – Kurt Koffka

The word ‘gestalt’ roughly translates from German to ‘form’ or ‘shape’, and refers to an organised whole.

Gestaltists see the mind as active and constantly seeking meaning.

Question 236

Phi phenomenon

(description; who first described it)

Answer 236

Max Wertheimer (Gestalt psychologist)

rapid sequences of perceptual events, such as rows of flashing lights, create the illusion of motion even when there is none

Question 237

Pragnanz

Answer 237

the central law of Gestalt psychology

it that states that ‘every stimulus pattern is seen in such a way that the resulting structure is as simple as possible’.

(Etymology: ‘Pragnanz means ‘pithiness’, from the German for concise and meaningful)

Question 238

Gestalt laws of perceptual organisation (6)

Answer 238

“Some Psychiatrists Can Frighten Small Children”

• Similarity
• Proximity
• Closure
• (Common) Fate
• Symmetry
• Continuity

Gestaltists believe our abilities to perceive in these ways are inborn. They are referred to as ‘nativists’

Question 239

Processes involved in depth perception

(taxonomy)

Answer 239

Binocular

• Retinal disparity
• Stereopsis
• Convergence

Monocular

• Accommodation
• Motion parallax
• Light and shadow
• Angular declination
• Object overlap

Question 240

Retinal disparity

Answer 240

A binocular process important for depth perception

Our brain analyses the images formed in each eye and uses the differences between them to judge distance.

Question 241

Stereopsis

Answer 241

A binocular process important for depth perception

The brain merges the two images from each eye so we see a more solid image.

Question 242

Convergence

Answer 242

A binocular process important for depth perception

The eyes move inwards as the viewed object gets closer, the degree of inward movement is analysed by the brain and used to figure out how close or far something is from us.

Question 243

Accommodation

Answer 243

A monocular process important for depth perception

The lens changes shape with distance.

Question 244

Motion parallax

Answer 244

A monocular process important for depth perception

This is when objects closer to us appear to move faster than those in the distance

A good example is trees seen from a moving train, which seem to flash by when closest to the track.

Question 245

Angular declination

Answer 245

A monocular process important for depth perception

The further an object on the ground is, the higher in the field of view it looks, with an object at infinity being seen at the horizon.

The visual system uses this fact, the angular declination below the horizon, for distance judgement

Question 246

Object overlap

Answer 246

A monocular process important for depth perception

If one object in the visual field is seen to overlap another, the first object can usually be judged to be closer than the second object.

Question 247

Visual cliff test

Answer 247

Test of depth perception in children

Originally devised in the 1960s by Gibson and Walk

A baby was encouraged to crawl across a transparent surface, including over a region that looked like a ‘drop’ (i.e. there was a real change in depth of the level of the ‘ground’ below the transparent surface) about mid-way across.

Babies that hesitated at this point or did not crawl over it were presumed to have acquired depth perception

Studies have suggested babies as young as 3 months old show evidence of recognising the apparent change in depth.

Question 248

Autokinetic effect (Autokinesis)

Answer 248

a phenomenon of visual perception in which a stationary, small point of light in an otherwise dark or featureless environment appears to move.

Question 249

Key proponent of ‘top-down’ theory of perception

Answer 249

Richard Gregory - ‘Constructivist theory’

According to this theory, retinal images are sketchy and cannot explain the complex and fully formed perceptions that we experience.

Perception is best defined as a process of using information known already to formulate and test a hypothesis.

Question 250

Perceptual set

(key theorist, essence)

Answer 250

Originally described in 1955 by top-down theorist Gordon Allport

Refers to an individual’s way of interpreting a stimulus/stimuli being influenced by pre-existing cognitive biases.

For example, aspects of an individual’s personality or emotional state may influence how visual information is actively filtered or interpreted

Question 251

Cocktail party effect

(theorist, essence)

Answer 251

Edward Colin Cherry - British cognitive scientist

‘The ability of people to be able to switch their attention rapidly to a non-processed message’.

In 1953, Cherry noticed that people had the ability to focus on one conversation at a party, despite all the other stimuli, such as background noise and other conversations carrying on simultaneously. Cherry discovered that the background noise is not consciously processed, and demonstrated this using the dichotic listening task.

Question 252

Dichotic listening task (theorist, essence)

Answer 252

Different messages are sent to each ear via headphones and the person receiving them is asked to repeat one message.

This is called shadowing, where focusing on one message causes the other message to be neglected

Question 253

Shadowing (in selective attention theory) - essence

Answer 253

The phenomenon in a dichotic listening task where focusing on one message causes the other message to be neglected

Question 254

The filter model (theorist, year, essence)

Answer 254

Donald Broadbent (1958)

The model suggests that information is stored in the short-term memory before going through a filter, which selects the relevant stimulus to focus on. The relevant stimulus is then processed centrally.

Short-term memory is often referred to as the ‘sensory buffer’ in this model

Question 255

Attenuation model (theorist, essence)

Answer 255

Treisman (1964)

‘Attenuators’ are sequential cognitive processes that decide whether or not to allow the information to go through to the next attenuator to be analysed for relevance.

Each attenuator will analyse a different component of the information (e.g. source, words, pitch). Information will either not be used, and therefore lost, or will make it to the working memory to be used.

e.g. hearing your name in the background noise of the room, recognising a face in a busy street

Question 256

Controlled vs Automatic processing (essence)

Answer 256

Controlled processing is conscious

Automatic processing is unconscious

Question 257

Stroop test (essence, neuropsychological domain tested)

Answer 257

‘say the colours of the word and not what the word says’

This test demonstrates automatic processing in competition with controlled processing It is used to test executive function

Question 258

Attentional bias (essence)

Answer 258

the process of being able to attend to an important stimulus despite trying to attend to another

It is a concept in Treisman’s attenuation model of information processing, which can be seen as an extension on the Broadbent’s filter theory

Question 259

Sapir–Whorf hypothesis (essence)

Answer 259

‘language shapes thought’

Linguistic categories and usage influence thought as well as certain kinds of non-linguistic behaviour.

This was tested on people from the Dani tribe of New Guinea (whose language only has two words for colour - dark and light) and people from North America. They were tested on their speed of colour recognition.

Question 260

Concept

(definition)

Answer 260

a mental category that groups objects, relations, activities, abstractions, or qualities that have common properties.

Question 261

Prototype theory (essence)

Answer 261

a mode of graded categorization in cognitive science, where some members of a category are more central than others.

For example, when asked to give an example of the concept furniture, chair is more frequently cited than, say, stool.

Question 262

Heuristics (essence)

Answer 262

‘short cuts’

In the early 1970’s, Tversky and Kahneman argued that humans make use of cognitive heuristics (short cuts) which reduce the complexity of making probabilistic judgments

These are very useful but can lead to systematic errors.

Examples: representativeness, availability, anchoring-and-adjustment, framing

Question 263

This heuristic refers to making an uncertainty judgement on the basis of the degree to which it is

(i) similar in essential properties to its parent population and
(ii) reflects the salient features of the process by which it is generated.
e. g. if you were told that Steve is a very shy and withdrawn but helpful man with little interest in people you may assume he is a librarian rather than say for instance a doctor. This may be true most of the time.

Answer 263

Representativeness bias

Question 264

This heuristic is used to estimate frequency or probability by the ease with which instances or associations come to mind (rather than by a systematic search)

e.g. exposure to media about violent crime will tend to inflate our estimate of the overall frequency of violent crime.

Answer 264

Availability heuristic

Question 265

This heuristic involves starting from an initial value that is adjusted to yield the final answer.

e.g. in one study a mock jury was told to contemplate the harshest verdict first. The final verdict was found to be relatively harsh.

Answer 265

Anchoring-and-adjustment

Question 266

This heuristic influences how we make decisions. Choices are often made depending on how information is presented rather than for the correct reason.

Answer 266

Framing

Question 267

Basic emotions (6 + theorist)

Answer 267

Paul Ekman (1972)

• Surprise
• Happiness
• Anger
• Sadness
• Fear
• Disgust

‘Some Happy Animals Still Fear Death’

Question 268

Components of an emotional response (3)

Answer 268

a subjective experience (e.g. I feel sad, I feel happy)

a physiological state or change in state (e.g. sweating, heart racing or ‘butterflies in my stomach’)

a specific behavioural response (e.g. freezing, crying, laughing).

Much of the research and debate relating to the study of emotions concerns the inter-relationship of these three components as well as the role of cognitive evaluations in the process.

Question 269

James-Lange theory of emotion

(characterisation)

Answer 269

‘frightening stimulus -> physiological response -> subjective experience of fear’

the physiological response to perceptions is the cause of emotional experiences

‘we are afraid because we run’ - William James

Question 270

Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

(characterisation)

Answer 270

‘frightening stimulus leads, independently/simultaneously to:

• > physiological response
• > subjective experience of fear’

the physiological state is not a necessary precursor for an emotional response. Rather, the felt emotion and physiological changes occur at the same time and independently following a perception.

Question 271

Cannon-Bard theory of emotion (aka)

Answer 271

the ‘thalami theory’

• thalamus -> cortex (conscious emotional experience)
• thalamus -> hypothalamuis (physiological response)

Question 272

Schachter-Singer cognitive labelling: the ‘two factor’ theory of emotion (characterisation)

Answer 272

‘frightening stimulus -> physiological response -> cognitive evaluation of the physiological response -> subjective experience of fear’

Emotions are the product of two factors:

1. a change in our physiological state, of which we become aware
2. a cognitive evaluation of that change with respect to what is happening around us.

e.g. if your heart is racing and you’re about to have an exam you label yourself as afraid, but if your heart is racing and your about to kiss your boyfriend/girlfriend you label your emotional state as excited

Question 273

Lazarus cognitive appraisal theory of emotion (characterisation)

Answer 273

‘stimulus -> evaluation of stimulus as frightening -> subjective experience of fear -> physiological response’

our evaluation of our perceptions determines the resulting emotional response

i.e. thought and appraisal of the situation occur before the emotional response

Explains why you are not as likely to run away from a bear in a zoo as you might be if you encountered the animal in the wild – somehow you have determined that there is no danger in this situation and the emotional response associated with fear does not occur.

Question 274

Drive Reduction Theory of Motivation

(theorist, essence)

Answer 274

Clark Hull

This theory posits that basic needs, such as a need for energy or sleep, produce an internally experienced sense of tension that motivates behaviour. This physiological need state is called a ‘drive’.

Primary drives fulfil needs that are essential for survival, e.g. hunger.

Secondary drives are acquired through social learning process and in association with primary drives. For example, dominance might help to satisfy basic drives for food.

Question 275

Theories of human behaviour - classification of models (2)

Answer 275

Extrinsic models suggest that behaviour is motivated by external reward or the avoidance of punishment.

Intrinsic models suggest that some behaviours are rewarding in themselves and motivation is internally generated.

Question 276

Cognitive dissonance theory

(theorist, year, essence)

Answer 276

Festinger, 1962

People strive for their thoughts and feelings about things to be consistent with each other and with their behaviour. This is called cognitive consistency. If one thought contradicts another thought, feeling or behaviour, this is referred to as cognitive dissonance.

Cognitive dissonance theory suggests that contradiction creates an uncomfortable internal tension that motivates change.

Question 277

‘need for achievement’ theory (theorist, essence)

Answer 277

David McClelland (1917–1998)

behaviours could be reduced to realising three social objectives:

1. Need for achievement (mastery and control of skills)
2. Need for affiliation (effective relationships with people)
3. Need for power (exerting an impact on others/environment)

These are personality traits measured in the Thematic Apperception Test

Question 278

Coping (essence)

Answer 278

expending conscious effort to solve personal and interpersonal problems, and seeking to master, minimise or tolerate stress and conflict

Question 279

Coping mechanisms - subgroups (3)

Answer 279

appraisal-focused strategies

• the person deals with their distress by implementing a change of mindset and reappraises the situation
• e.g. fighting the fear of flying by comparing it to less scaring situations that yield a higher risk, such as driving

problem-focused strategies

• the individual activates strategies to deal with the cause of the problem
• e.g. gathering information on the problem, generating alternative solutions, weighing up alternatives in terms of costs and benefits, implementing the selected alternative and learning new skills to manage a particular problem

emotion-focused strategies

• these aim to deal with the negative emotions that accompany a problem/stressor, and to prevent them from overwhelming the individual. This involves releasing repressed emotions.
  
  • e.g. meditation and systematic relaxation strategies, management of emotional hostility and releasing repressed feelings

Question 280

cognitive-mediation model

• theorist + stages (3)

Answer 280

Lazarus (1999)

This model describes 3 stages in the coping process:

1. Primary appraisal
   the individual evaluates the stressor
2. Secondary appraisal
   the individual evaluates the resources and options available to manage the stressful situation
3. Coping
   the individual chooses and uses a strategy to cope with the stressor

Question 281

— is a valid test of pre-morbid intelligence.

It consists of 50 irregularly spelled words. The subject of the test only receives a correct answer if they successfully pronounce each word.

Answer 281

National Adult Reading Test (NART)

Question 282

Raven’s Progressive Matrices (RPM) test (essence)

Answer 282

a non-verbal test of general intelligence.

In each test item, one is asked to find the missing pattern in a series. Each set of items gets progressively harder, requiring greater cognitive capacity to encode and analyze.

There are 3 different tests for different abilities:-

• Coloured Progressive Matrices (younger children and special groups)
• Stanford Progressive Matrices (average 6 to 80 year olds)
  
  • Advanced Progressive Matrices (above average adolescents & adults)

Question 283

Stanford-Binet test

Answer 283

First formal IQ test introducted before WWI in 1905

Measures intelligence across 5 factors of cognitive ability: fluid reasoning, knowledge, quantitative reasoning, visual-spatial processing and working memory.

Both verbal and nonverbal responses are measured.

Question 284

Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale (WAIS) - age-range

Answer 284

(WAIS) is the most famous and commonly used intelligence test in clinical practice.

It can be used for people between the ages of 16 and 90.

Question 285

Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC) - age range

Answer 285

6-16

Question 286

Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale (WAIS-IV) - Index Scores (4)

Answer 286

• Verbal Comprehension Index
• Perceptual Reasoning Index
• Working Memory Index
• Processing Speed Index

The results are presented as two scores:-

• Full Scale IQ (based on the score of the four index scores)
• General Ability Index (based on scores from verbal comprehension and perceptual reasoning

The average score is 100 with a standard deviation of 15 (85-115). A score of 100 puts a person on the 50th centile (50% of people score above and 50% score below). It becomes less accurate at the extremes of IQ (70-130).

Question 287

Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale - subsets of which index?

• Similarities
• Vocabulary
• Information
• Comprehension

Answer 287

Verbal comprehension

Question 288

Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale - subsets of which index?

• Block Design
• Matrix reasoning
• Visual puzzles
• Picture completion
• Figure weights

Answer 288

Perceptual reasoning

Question 289

Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale - subsets of which index?

• Digit span
• Arithmetic
• Letter-number sequencing

Answer 289

Working memory

Question 290

Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale - subsets of which index?

• Symbol search
• Coding
• Cancellation

Answer 290

Processing speed

Question 291

Attitude

(definition)

Answer 291

learned predispositions to respond in a consistently favourable or unfavourable way towards a given object, person or event

they are based on beliefs and values

Question 292

Attitude scales (3)

Answer 292

Thurstone scale

Likert scale

Semantic differential scale

Question 293

Thurstone scale

(essence)

Answer 293

A measure of attitude

• a list of hundreds of statements relating to a particular issue
• each statement is assessed by a panel of judges and given a score (on an 11-point scale) regarding how negative or positive the statement is regarding the issue
• individuals are then given the statements and asked to answer whether they agree or disagree with each statement
• a person who disagrees with all the items has a score of zero.
• the advantage of this scale is that it is an interval measurement scale

Question 294

Likert scale

(essence)

Answer 294

A measure of attitude

Respondents are asked to indicate a degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a series of statements.

Each scale item has 5 response categories ranging from strongly agree to strongly disagree.

Question 295

Semantic Differential Scale

(theorist, essence)

Answer 295

Osgood

A measure of attitude

a seven point scale with the end points of the scale associated with bipolar labels.

========================

For example one might wish to compare a group of individuals by an aspect of their personality such as dominant or submissive (bipolar labels).

Each individual could have any score from 1 (submissive) to 7 (dominant) with a score of 3-4 being neutral.

Question 296

Self psychology

• basic concepts (4)

Answer 296

Self-consciousness

awareness of the self distinct from objects in the environment. Only humans are thought to possess full self-consciousness

Self-image

‘who are you?’ - one’s description of social roles (social self), personality traits and physical characters (bodily self)

Self-esteem

personal judgement of worthiness. Self-image is descriptive, self-esteem is evaluative

Ideal self

what we would like ourselves to be

Question 297

Self-recognition

(key experiment, theorist)

Answer 297

‘Touching the dot’ experiment

(Gallup)

Question 298

‘Touching the dot’ experiment

• essence
• age attained

Answer 298

A red dot is placed on a child’s face, the child is put in front of a mirror. The child touches its face to find the dot, indicating self-recognition.

• Children < 15months do not touch the dot
• 5-25% of infants touch the dot by 18 months
• 75% touch the dot by 20 months

Question 299

Autobiographical memory in humans develops from age —

Answer 299

3.5 - 4.5 years

Question 300

Attribution

(essence)

Answer 300

a mental process by which we explain the behaviour of others as well as our own behaviour.

We explain behaviour by assigning causes or ‘attributes’ to it.

Question 301

“Naive psychology”

(theorist, essence)

Answer 301

Fritz Heider (1958)

a person acts like a scientist or psychologist in a naive way, when trying to understand and explain behaviour.

People tend to see cause and effect relationships for all behaviour, even when there is none.

=================================================

For example, when we see an angry man, we think:

‘The man is angry because he is bad tempered.’

or

‘The man is angry because something bad happened.’

Question 302

Kelley’s covariation model of attribution

3 types of observations people make during the process of attributing internal or external causes for behaviour

Answer 302

consensus

(the extent to which others behave in same way)

consistency

(the extent to which a behaviour is stable)

distinctiveness

(the extent to which the same behaviour occurs in other situations).

Question 303

Weiner’s Attribution Theory

3 dimensions to consider when attributing causes of behaviour

Answer 303

Locus

• Internal - Joey failed his exam because he didn’t study
• External - Joey failed his exam because he did not have a good teacher

Stability

• Stable (permanent) - Joey is always weak in maths, so he didn’t study
• Unstable (transient) - Joey did not study because he was sick

Controllability

• Controllable - Joey went to a party before his exam, so he didn’t do well
• Uncontrollable - Joey failed the exam because it was difficult

Question 304

Attribution biases (5)

Answer 304

Fundamental attribution error (correspondence error)

Actor-observer effect

Self-serving bias

Just world hypothesis

False consensus effect

Question 305

Fundamental attribution error

(essence)

Answer 305

An attribution error that occurs when we place more emphasis on internal or personal explanations rather than taking the external circumstances into consideration.

Question 306

Just world hypothesis

(essence)

Answer 306

An attribution bias - people believe that the world is a just one, where good people deserve to have fair things happening to them.

• When something bad happens to someone, the conclusion is that they have done something bad to bring this upon themselves
• e.g. during a tsunami disaster when people died, the victims were blamed for choosing to live in a disaster-prone area.
• Basically our belief in the ‘just world hypothesis’ is to avoid fear, as it can be frightening to think that bad things can happen to good people.​​​

Question 307

Actor-observer effect

(essence)

Answer 307

the tendency for actors and observers to make different attributions to the same event

• the actor/agent attributes external causality
  (I drove badly because I am late)
• observers of the same behaviour atrribute internal causality

(He drove badly because he is reckless)

Question 308

Self-serving bias

(essence)

Answer 308

the human tendency to attribute success to internal factors but failure to external ones

• self-enhancing bias: if we are involved in something positive, we take full credit for our success without acknowledging the situational factors
  e. g. if we are on time for a meeting we appreciate our planning and organisation skills
• self-protecting bias: When we are involved in something negative, we blame our failure on something external to us
  e. g. if we arrive late at a meeting, we might blame it on a traffic jam

Question 309

False consensus effect

(essence)

Answer 309

The tendency to view another person’s behaviour as representative of a group’s behaviour

(cultural/racial stereotypes are thus formed)

Question 310

Halo effect

(essence)

Answer 310

the tendency to perceive others has wholly good or bad based on few observed traits

a cognitive bias whereby the perception of one characteristic of a person or object is influenced by the perception of another

e.g. judging a good looking person as more intelligent

=======================

reverse halo effect is known as ‘devil effect’

Question 311

a common psychological phenomenon whereby individuals give high accuracy ratings to descriptions of their personality that supposedly are tailored specifically to them, that are in fact vague and general enough to apply to a wide range of people.

This effect can provide a partial explanation for the widespread acceptance of some paranormal beliefs and practices, such as astrology, fortune telling, aura reading, and some types of personality tests

(2 names)

Answer 311

Barnum effect

aka Forer effect

Question 312

the phenomenon whereby individuals modify an aspect of their behaviour in response to their awareness of being observed

e.g. you may find yourself washing up faster if your wife or husband is watching you.

This concept is highly relevant for research as one may find the results obscured due to the fact that the subjects are being watched.

Answer 312

Hawthorne effect

Question 313

(2 names)

the phenomenon whereby others’ expectations of a target person affect the target person’s performance

a form of self-fulfilling prophecy

e.g. students with poor expectations from their teachers perform poorly

Answer 313

Pygmalion effect

aka Rosenthal effect

Question 314

Theory of mind (definition)

Answer 314

the ability to attribute mental states — beliefs, intents, desires, emotions, knowledge, etc. — to oneself, and to others, and to understand that others have beliefs, desires, intentions, and perspectives that are different from one’s own.

Question 315

By what age does a child usually develop theory of mind?

Answer 315

4 y/o

Question 316

Theory of Mind

• 1st order false belief tasks
• 2nd order false belief tasks

Answer 316

1st order false belief tasks

involved inferring one person’s mental state

e.g. what Jim thinks

2nd order false belief tasks

involve inferrring one person’s thoughts about another person’s mental state

e.g. what Jim thinks Varun thinks

Usually passed by age 6 in typically developing children

Question 317

Koro

(culture-bound illness)

• aka
• origins
• essence

Answer 317

(Genital retraction syndrome)

Origins: China, Malaysia, Indonesia

Men affected with Koro are terrified that their penis is shrinking and that eventually it will be absorbed into their body. People with Koro believe it is fatal.

Question 318

Latah

(culture-bound illness)

• origins
• description

Answer 318

Origins: Malaysia and Indonesia

Latah usually affects middle aged women. A typical attack of latah lasts 30 minutes and is characterised by an outburst of screaming, hysterical laughing and obscenities.

Question 319

Brain fag/brain fog

(culture-bound illness)

• origin
• description

Answer 319

Origin: West Africa

Brain fag is seen in stressed out West African students and is thought to be a response to a western style of education and exams. Symptoms include poor concentration, and unusual somatic sensations such as burning skin.

Question 320

Amok

(culture-bound illness)

• origin
• description

Answer 320

Origin: Malaysia

People who suffer with Amok are suddenly overcome with a violent outburst and become very aggressive to those around them. This continues until they are overpowered at which point they fall into a deep sleep and upon waking have no recall of the event. It almost always affects males.

Question 321

Dhat

(culture-bound illness)

• origin
• description

Answer 321

Origin: India

Men affected with Dhat believe they are passing semen in their urine which leads to a loss of physical and mental energy.

Question 322

Windigo

(culture-bound illness)

• origin
• description

Answer 322

Origin: Native North America

Windigo presents as an intense desire for human flesh and a strong believe that one is turning into a cannibal.

Question 323

Piblokto

(culture-bound illness)

• origin
• description

Answer 323

Origin: Eskimo societies

Piblokto is seen in Eskimo’s. Affected Eskimo’s develop hysteria and behave oddly for instance by rolling around in snow naked while muttering to themselves.

Question 324

Power theory

• theorists
• bases of power (5)

Answer 324

French and Raven (1959)

Legitimate power

Referent power

Expert power

Reward power

Coercive power

Question 325

The power held by an individual in an organisation

Answer 325

Legitimate power

Question 326

The power held by a person with charisma who people gravitate towards

Answer 326

Referent power

Question 327

The power of a person with specialist skills or knowledge

Answer 327

Expert power

Question 328

The power of a person in a position to provide rewards

Answer 328

Reward power

Question 329

The power of a person who has the ability to apply negative influences such as demotion

Answer 329

Coercive power

Question 330

the power of a person to bring about outcomes

Answer 330

Outcome power

Question 331

the power of a person to influence others so that they will bring about outcomes

Answer 331

Social power

Question 332

the power of the oppressed to counterbalance the elite

Answer 332

Counterpower

Question 333

Who coined the term ‘groupthink’?

Answer 333

Irving Janis (1972)

Question 334

Groupthink

(essence)

Answer 334

a phenomenon that occurs within a group of people, in which the desire for harmony or conformity in the group results in an incorrect or deviant decision-making outcome.

Group members try to minimise conflict and reach a consensus decision without critical evaluation of alternative ideas or viewpoints.

Question 335

Group think

• conditions (6)

Answer 335

• The group must be isolated from outside influences.
• Group loyalty prevents individuals from raising controversial issues of alternative solutions.
• There is a loss of individual creativity and independent thinking.
• The group experiences the ‘illusion of invulnerability,’ an inflated certainty that the right decision has been made.
• Typically the group is under a high level of pressure to make a decision
• The group lacks an impartial leader.

Question 336

Interventions to reduce groupthink (5)

Answer 336

• Leaders should allow each member to challenge ideas and present objections
• Members should talk about and solicit ideas with people outside the group
• Outside Experts should be invite to attend meetings
• Avoid expressing opinions about the preferred outcome
• Assign ‘Devil’s Advocate’ at all meetings to challenge any and all ideas

Question 337

the phenomenon in which the initial positions of individual members of a group are exaggerated toward a more extreme position.

e.g. when people are in groups, they assess risk differently from when they are alone. In the group, they are likely to make riskier decisions as the shared risk makes the individual risk seem to be less.

Answer 337

Groupshift

Question 338

a concept in social psychology that is generally thought of as the loss of self-awareness in groups.

Theories propose that it is a psychological state of decreased self-evaluation and a decreased evaluation of apprehension causing abnormal collective behaviour, such as violent crowds and lynch mobs. Conversely it also explains peoples tendency to donate more readily to charity when in groups.

Answer 338

Deindividuation

Question 339

Aggression - Freud

(3 concepts)

Answer 339

Freud believed that aggression arose as a result of a primary instinct called thanatos (aka the death instinct). He suggested that each person had this drive which aimed to cause total destruction and death.

He also suggested that there was an opposing instinct called eros (the life instinct).

He described catharsis, which is a process of discharging libidinal energy and making us feel calm. Catharsis occurs when we watch an aggressive act or are involved in a mildly aggressive act.

Question 340

Aggression - Lorenz

Answer 340

Following his study of birds, Lorenz suggested that aggression is instinctual, and occurs in response to biological stimuli and follows predictable rules.

He also believed that aggression was vital to ensuring a balance in the animal kingdom and that stronger genes were selected.

================
His major work (completed in 1963) is titled ‘on aggression’.

Question 341

Bystander effect

• aka
• essence

Answer 341

Genovese Effect

a theory which states that the likelihood that a person will help in a particular situation is directly related to the amount of people present in the situation.

A person is far more likely to help should they be in a small number of witnesses.

Question 342

Factors associated with bystanders being less likely to help (4)

Answer 342

There are many other people

Perpetrators are present

The costs of intervention are physical (rather than non-physical)

When the situation is perceived as dangerous

Question 343

Factors associated with bystanders being more likely to help (2)

Answer 343

They are male

When the bystanders are not strangers

Question 344

Social loafing

• aka
• essence

Answer 344

Ringelmann effect

the phenomenon whereby people exert less effort to achieve a goal when they work in a group than when they work alone

Question 345

Social status and psychiatric disorders

• disorders more common in lower social classes (4)
• disorders associated with higher social classes (1)

Answer 345

disorders more common in lower social classes

• Schizophrenia
• Personality disorder
• Alcohol dependence
• Major depression

disorders associated with higher social classes

• Anorexia nervosa

Question 346

Social and occupational classification (6)

Answer 346

Social class 0 - Unemployed or student
Social class I - Professional
Social class II - Intermediate
Social class III - Skilled, manual, or clerical
Social class IV - Semi-skilled 
Social class V - Unskilled

(Office of Population Censuses and Surveys)

Question 347

Jarman Index

(essence)

Answer 347

a scoring system developed by British GP Brian Jarman

measures the level of social deprivation in a community, using census data on:

• % of old people living alone
• single-parent families
• children younger than 5 years of age
• unskilled and unemployed persons
• ethnic minorities
• overcrowded dwellings
• changes of address in previous year

generally not accepted outside the UK

Question 348

‘Illness behaviour’

• phrase coined by —
• essence

Answer 348

Mechanic and Volkart (1961)

describes the way in which symptoms are perceived, evaluated, and acted upon by a person who recognises some pain, discomfort or other signs of organic malfunction

Question 349

‘Sick role’

• term coined by —
• essence

Answer 349

Talcott Parsons

Parsons described the sick role as a temporary, medically sanctioned form of deviant behaviour.

He suggested that a sick person has conflicting drives both to recover from the illness and to continue to enjoy the ‘secondary gains’ of attention and exemption from normal duties.

Question 350

Sick role - components (4)

Answer 350

The sick person:

• is exempt from the normal social roles that the person takes for the duration of the illness.
  This exemption is legitimised by society as represented by the physician. Normal role performance and responsibilities are suspended so that the ill person can get well. The strength of the exemption varies directly with the severity of the illness.
• is not responsible for their illnesses.
  The illness is beyond personal control. A curative process outside the person is required to restore wellness.
• has the duty to try to get well.
  Sickness is societally undesirable and thus society places the obligation to get well on the patient, with the help of the doctor, of course.
• must seek competent technical help and co-operate with the caregiver.

Question 351

Stages of change model

• theorists
• stages (5)

Answer 351

Prochaska and DiClemente

• Pre-contemplation
  The individual is not currently considering change
• Contemplation
  Ambivalent about change, ‘Sitting on the fence’
• Preparation
  Some experience with change and are trying to change, ‘Testing the waters’
• Action
  Started to introduce change
• Maintenance
  Involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change

Question 352

Stages of change model

— lack sufficient knowledge about the dimensions of the problem, or the personal impact it can have, to think change is necessary.

Answer 352

Reluctant pre-contemplators

Question 353

Stages of change model

— are afraid of losing control over their lives and have a large investment in their substance of choice

Answer 353

Rebellious pre-contemplators

Question 354

Stages of change model

— feel hopeless about change and overwhelmed by the energy required. They probably have been in treatment many times before or have tried repeatedly to quit on their own to no avail. This group must regain hope and optimism about their capacity for change

Answer 354

Resigned pre-contemplators

Question 355

Stages of change model

— have all the answers. Substance use may be a problem for others but not for them, because the odds are against their being at risk

Answer 355

Rationalizing precontemplators

Question 356

Double agentry

• essence
• key example

Answer 356

occurs when a psychiatrist has a conflict of interests that interferes with their ability to act soley in the best interests of the patient.

In fact psychiatrists often find themselves acting in the interests of several parties (e.g. patient, family, society, hospital commsisioners etc) and this is refered to as multiagency.

=====================
This is illustrated by the Tarasoff case in which two therapists failed to warn a lady that their patient expressed an intention to kill her. They chose not to do so as they wished to respect confidentiality and failed to see that they had a duty of care to the lady as well as the patient. The lady was eventually murdered by this patient.

This case occured in California and resulted in a change in the law stating that therapists have a legal duty to both patients and potential victims.

Question 357

Camberwell Family Interview

• theorists
• essence
• measures (5)

Answer 357

Brown & Rutter (1966)

developed to measure expressed emotion within families

individual members of a family (including the patient) are interviewed

5 measures:

• Critical comments
• Positive remarks
• Emotional over involvement
• Hostility
• Emotional warmth

Question 358

Melanie Klein

• key concepts (2)

Answer 358

The paranoid-schizoid position represents a state of fragmentation where the mind divides the world into good and bad. It is characterised by the defence mechanism known as ‘splitting’.

The depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterised by the ability to accept something can be both good and bad (ambivalence).

Question 359

Social origins of depression

• theorists
• 4 ‘vulnerability factors’ for depressive illness in women

Answer 359

Brown and Harris (1978)

• Three or more children under the age of 14 at home
• Lack of an intimate relationship with a husband or boyfriend
• Lack of employment outside of the home
• Loss of a mother before the age of 11 years

Question 360

Declarations:

Introduced following the crimes which had just been committed in Nazi Germany

It was intended as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath.

Answer 360

Declaration of Geneva

Question 361

Declarations:

Devised in 1964 by the World Medical Association and sets out the key ethical principles involved in biomedical research involving human subjects.

It has undergone several revisions and still serves as a basis for good medical practice today.

Answer 361

Declaration of Helsinki

Question 362

Declarations:

This states that doctors should refuse to participate in, condone, or give permission for torture, degradation, or cruel treatment of prisoners or detainees.

Answer 362

Declaration of Tokyo

Question 363

Declarations:

This offers guidelines to doctors treating people who are on hunger strike.

Answer 363

Declaration of Malta

Question 364

Declarations:

This is an international statement of the rights of patients.

Answer 364

Declaration of Lisbon

Question 365

Declarations:

This sets out the principles necessary for optimal child health

Answer 365

Declaration of Ottawa

Question 366

the first international document which advocated voluntary participation and informed consent in medical experimentation

Answer 366

The Nuremburg code

resulted from the trial of the German physicians accused of participating in war crimes and crimes against humanity (1946).

Among the charges were that German physicians conducted medical experiments on thousands of concentration camp prisoners without their consent.

Question 367

Nuremberg Code

• conditions for human experimentation (6)

Answer 367

1. Voluntary consent
2. Research is intended for common good of the society
3. Avoidance of unnecessary pain and suffering is guaranteed for the subjects
4. Subject has liberty to withdraw at any point
5. Qualified researchers undertake research
6. Scientist must terminate a study if more harm is being caused than expected to the subjects

Question 368

The Willowbrook School Study

• description
• why it was controversial

Answer 368

The Willowbrook school was a state supported institution for children with learning difficulties located in New York.

During the 1960s a study was carried out there which involved the inoculation of healthy children with hepatitis and the subsequent administration of gamma globulin to assess for its potential to treat the disorder.

Question 369

The Tuskegee syphilis experiment

• description
• why it was controversial

Answer 369

The Tuskegee syphilis experiment was a follow up study of people with syphilis. It is very controversial as a significant proportion of those in the study were not informed of their illness and did not receive available treatment even though it became available half way through the study.

A report on the study called the ‘Belmont report’ introduced many changes into US law on research ethics.

Question 370

Stanford’s prison experiment

• description
• why it was controversial

Answer 370

This study involved creating a simulated prison environment at Stanford University. 24 students were recruited who scored highly on measures of maturity and stability. Each participant was then assigned as either a prison or a guard.

Participants were given no guidelines for how to behave, with the exception of the guards who were told not to use physical abuse under any circumstances. Within only two days, the participants literally became the roles they were assigned. The guards began to act very harshly and sometimes even cruel to the prisoners.

While no one was physically hurt during the study, a few of the prisoners displayed extreme emotional reactions that warranted termination of the study after only six days.

Question 371

The Tearooms Study

• researcher
• description
• why it was controversial

Answer 371

This study (conducted by Humphreys) involved him hanging around ‘tearooms’ (public toilets where men meet to have sex) in order to study the population and learn more about the types of men that did it.

It was the method however that was controversial rather than the topic. He never disclosed his motives when he interview the men and instead pretended to be a ‘watchqueen’. This raised the issue of informed consent in research.

Question 372

Milgrams’ Study

• description
• why it was controversial

Answer 372

Study of authority and obedience

The participants were told that they were participating in research on the effects of punishment on memory. Milgram studied the extent to which they were willing to deliver fake electric shocks to someone.

Although Milgram expressed concern for the wellbeing of his participants, as some were showing extreme agitation, he decided not to terminate the study on the basis that each prior participant seemed to recover relatively well after his session ended.

Question 373

Antipsychiatry

• proponents (4)

Answer 373

Thomas Szasz

R.D.Laing

Michel Foucault

Franco Basaglia

Question 374

Holmes Rahe stress scale

(social readjustment rating scale)

• top 5 life events associated with illness

Answer 374

1. Death of spouse
2. Divorce
3. Marital separation
4. Jail term
5. Death of a close family member

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6. Personal illness
7. Marriage
8. Being fired from work
9. Marital reconcilitation
10. Retirement

Question 375

Teleological ethical theory

• aka

Answer 375

Consequentialism

Utilitarianism

Question 376

Deontological ethical theory

• aka
• essence

Answer 376

Kantianism

focused on actions themselves rather than consequences; suggest that there are moral rules and duties that should not be beached

Question 377

Virtue ethics

• essence

Answer 377

focuses on being rather than doing.

When faced with a moral dilemma, virtue ethics encourages people to do the right thing for the right reason.

The emphasis is on moral character and what the decision says about this.

Question 378

Principalism

• theorists
• ethical principles

Answer 378

Beauchamp and Childress

1 Autonomy

2 Beneficence

3 Non-maleficence

4 Justice

Question 379

History of psychiatric terms:

Dementia praecox

Manic depression

Answer 379

Kraepelin

Question 380

History of psychiatric terms

Schizophrenia

Answer 380

Bleuler

Question 381

History of psychiatric terms

Hebephrenia

Answer 381

Hecker

Question 382

History of psychiatric terms

Catatonia

Answer 382

Kahlbaum

Question 383

History of psychiatric terms

Demence precoce

Answer 383

Morel

Question 384

History of psychiatric terms

Schizoaffective

Answer 384

Kasanin

Question 385

History of psychiatric terms

Neurasthenia

Answer 385

Beard

Question 386

History of psychiatric terms

Unipolar and bipolar

Answer 386

Kleist

Question 387

History of psychiatric terms

Hypnosis

Answer 387

Braid

Question 388

History of psychiatric terms

Group dynamics

Answer 388

Lewin

Question 389

History of psychiatric terms

Group psychotherapy

Answer 389

Moreno

Question 390

History of psychiatric terms

Psychopathic inferiority

Answer 390

Koch

Question 391

Who coined the term ‘psychiatry’?

Answer 391

Reil

Question 392

History of psychiatric terms

Institutional Neurosis

Answer 392

Barton

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Apathy, lack of initiative, loss of interest and submissiveness. Factors attributed to this state include loss of contact with the outside world, enforced idleness, brutality and bossiness of staff, loss of friends and personal possessions, poor ward atmosphere and loss of prospects outside the institution.

Question 393

Bion

• 2 kinds of groups

Answer 393

Working group

one that is working well and getting the job done

Basic assumption group

acting out primitive fantasies and preventing things from getting done

Question 394

Bion

• basic assumption groups (3)

Answer 394

Dependency
Here the group turns towards a leader to protect them from anxiety.

Fight-flight
Here the group acts as if there is an enemy who must be attacked or avoided. The enemy can be either within the group or external. The group may at times pursue and defeat the perceived enemy but will soon create another one.

Pairing.
Here the group acts as if the answer lies in the pairing of two of the members. This may be in the form of a friendly pairing or an extremely hostile one.

Question 395

Total institution

• theorist
• characteristics (4)

Answer 395

Goffman

1. All aspects of life are conducted in the same premises and under the same authority
2. Members’ daily activities are carried out in the immediate proximity of a large group
3. All parts of a day’s activities are strictly scheduled
4. A enforced activities are based on a single plan with the purpose of fulfilling the aims of the institution

Question 396

Goffman - ‘moral career’ of a mentally ill patient

• 4 steps

Answer 396

Betrayal funnel
Family and friends conspire against the ill person, reporting them to mental health professionals

• *Role stripping**
  e. g. exchange of personal clothes for hospital issue

Mortification (civil death)
Personal activites go on public display; permission is required for basic activities

Privilege system
Privileges usually involve reductions in the institution’s control over the patient

Question 397

Social capital

• definition
• components (2)

Answer 397

‘features of social life - networks, norms, and trust - that enable participants to act together more effectively to pursue shared objectives’

Structural components refer to roles, rules, precedents, behaviours, networks and institutions. These may bond individuals in groups to each other, bridge divides between societal groups or vertically integrate groups with different levels of power and influence in a society, leading to social inclusion.

Cognitive social capital describes the values, attitudes and beliefs that produce cooperative behaviour.

Question 398

Acculturation

(definition)

Answer 398

the dual process of cultural and psychological change that takes place as a result of contact between two or more cultural groups and their individual members

Question 399

Acculturation - 4 paths

Answer 399

Assimilation - when individuals give up home culture and embrace the dominant culture

Integration - maintaining the home culture but also embracing the dominant culture

Separation - maintaining home culture and being isolated from the dominant culture

Marginalization - giving up the home culture and failing to relate properly to the dominant culture

Question 400

Acculturation

when individuals give up home culture and embrace the dominant culture

Answer 400

Assimilation

Question 401

Acculturation

maintaining the home culture but also embracing the dominant culture

Answer 401

Integration

Question 402

Acculturation

maintaining home culture and being isolated from the dominant culture

Answer 402

Separation

Question 403

Acculturation

giving up the home culture and failing to relate properly to the dominant culture

Answer 403

Marginalization

Question 404

Discredited and discreditable Stigma

Answer 404

In discredited stigma, an individual assumes that their difference is already known about or is evident.

In discreditable stigma, the person assumes that their stigma is neither known about by those present nor immediately perceivable by them

Question 405

Felt stigma

Answer 405

Felt stigma (internal stigma or self-stigmatisation) refers to the shame and expectation of discrimination that prevents people from talking about their experiences and stops them seeking help

Question 406

Enacted stigma

Answer 406

Enacted stigma (external stigma, discrimination) refers to the experience of unfair treatment by others

Question 407

Courtesy stigma

Answer 407

This is stigma not felt directly.

Often a carer or relative of a stigmatised individual may feel shame or be treated differently