BCH 210 Flashcards

1
Q

Why are there two discrete vibration bands observed in the Frauenfelder B state occupied by CO upon photolysis from myoglobin at low temperatures?

A

The Frauenfelder B state is a specific location at the back of the heme pocket in van der Waals
contact with the heme. The CO is highly constrained rotationally and lies parallel to the heme
plane (90° to the heme normal), pointed toward the heme iron. There are two orientations, one
with the oxygen closer and the other with the carbon closer. These have slightly different
vibrational frequencies, hence the two B state bands

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2
Q

How was this FTIR of a photolyzed sample of Mb*CO interpreted?

A

As indicating that the angle of C-O bond relative to the heme normal changed from 0 degree to 90 degree upon photolysis

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3
Q

Describe what happens to CO upon being photolyzed from the L29F variant of myoglobin, in
which the bulky phenylalanine side chain fills the B state pocket

A

CO intitially pushes the the Phe 29 out of the way to occupy the B state, the Phe 29 pushes the distal histidine out of the way to accommodate the CO, but rapidly returns to its original position and swatts the CO out of the B state pocket. This means the CO departs the B state much faster than the wild type. Over time the CO is found further and further from the heme iron, in pockets later identified by Xe atoms in crystal structures.

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4
Q

Why does Intermediate II seen in the course of the oxidative (hydroxylating) half of the catalytic
cycle for p-hydroxybenzoate hydroxylase absorb so much more strongly than either Intermediate I or
III?

A

Intermediate II consists of the flavin-4a-hydroxide with the bound, unaromatized dieneone form
of product formed immediately upon hydroxylation. Unexpectedly, the dienone itself is rather
strongly absorbing in the same region of the near UV that the flavin-4a-peroxide of
Intermediate I and 4a-hydroxide of Intermediate III do, accounting for the greater absorbance
of Intermediate II.

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5
Q

What is involved in the breakdown of Intermediate II to III?

A

The conversion of Intermediate II to Intermediate III involves rearomatization of the product, which abolishes its absorbance, the flavin remaining as the 4a-hydroxide.

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6
Q

Why does p-hydroxybenzoate bind to and dissociate from reduced p-hydroxybenzoate
hydroxylase so much more slowly than to the oxidized enzyme?

A

In the reduced state, the flavin is found predominantly in the “in” position, where it
physically blocks substrate access to the substrate binding site. (By contrast, the flavin
exists predominantly in the “out” configuration in the oxidized enzyme, allowing much
easier access to the substrate binding site.

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7
Q

Discuss what happens when Tyr 201 in the active site of p-hydroxybenzoate hydroxylase is
mutated to a phenylalanine

A

The Y201F mutant is unable to ionize substrate, which is required for hydroxylation. As a
result, the flavin-4a-hydroxide breaks down directly to oxidized flavin and peroxide, with
little formation of hydroxylated product. While the rate of formation of Intermediate I in the
oxidative half-reaction is largely unaffected by the mutation, there is less substrate-induced
acceleration of the rate of enzyme reduction by NADPH in the reductive half-reaction with
the mutant as compared with the wild-type enzyme.

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8
Q

In the single-molecule study of cholesterol oxidase done by Lu et al., what was the evidence that
a wait time of a given duration was more likely than expected statistically to be followed by a
subsequent wait time of similar duration (implying that the two were somehow correlated)? How did
they determine the time scale on which the loss of this correlation occurred?

A

In the colored plots of likelihood that a wait time of a given duration will be succeeded by
wait times of various durations, it was found that the diagonal lit up. This means that it is
more likely than expected on statistical grounds that a wait time of a given duration is
followed by one of similar duration. (This is especially true of long wait times, which
otherwise very rare in the data trains).

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9
Q

Describe two experimental observations that indicate that at high substrate concentrations the
observed kcat for an individual immobilized molecule of b-galactosidase is not single-valued but
exhibits a distribution of values. Why is this behavior not seen at low substrate concentrations?

A
  1. the ES complex to E + P was rate-limiting, histograms of the frequency of the wait time
    between successive catalytic events as a function of wait time duration became distinctly
    nonexponential, reflecting a distribution of rate constants for decay of the E
    S complex.
  2. When sets of 50 consecutive wait times were averaged over the course of the data train,
    it was found that the averaged varied widely at high substrate concentrations, exhibiting a
    Boltzmann-like distribution. At low substrate concentrations, when substrate binding - which
    is not configuration dependent - is principally rate-limiting, the distribution of average wait
    times was much narrower.
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10
Q

Describe the experimental setup used to probe the function of E. coli topoisomerase IV. In the eventuality, what is the principal reason that the enzyme acts more effectively on positively rather than negatively supercoiled DNA?

A

Magnetic beads were tethered to a coverslip by pairs of double-stranded DNA, and distended by a magnet placed above the coverslip. One or more crossovers (plectonemes) in the DNA were introduced by twisting the magnet, which shortened the distance of the magnetic bead off the cover slip. A solution containing topoisomerase was perfused over the cover slip, and upon binding to and uncrossing the plectoneme, the bead returned to its original position. Topoisomerase IV is more effective on positively supercoiled DNA because it can act processively, uncrossing successive plectonemes without having to dissociate from the gate strand of DNA. With negatively supercoiled DNA, it must dissociate and rebind after each uncrossing.

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11
Q

What is the effect of correct dNTP binding on the open-to-closed conformational change seen with T7 DNA polymerase when bound to DNA? Of binding one of the incorrect dNTPs?

A

Binding of a correct dNTP to the enzyme:DNA complex induces closure of the polymerase. Any of the incorrect dNTPs fail to do so.

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12
Q

Explain how the clamp loader component of the replisome ensures that the DNA polymerases bound to it are positioned at the replication fork? What is the effect of the DnaG RNA primase on binding to the processivity of the replisome? How does this make sense physiologically?

A

Upon binding ATP and the clamp, the clamp loader assumes a configuration that induces a lock-washer conformation in the clamp. The gap in clamp loader (missing one subunit of an otherwise hexameric ATPase-like structure) and clamp is only wide enough to allow single-stranded DNA through to the central cavity of the complex, after which the DNA slides through until double-stranded DNA is positioned in the central cavity. The complex is thus positioned at the point where double-stranded DNA changes to single-stranded DNA, i.e., the replication fork. DnaG binding to the helicase of the replisome counterintuitively reduces replisome processivity. This slows replication of the leading strand of DNA so that replication of the lagging strand can catch up, minimizing the amount of single-stranded DNA that accumulates in the cell during DNA replication.

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13
Q

Describe the different ways that secondary structural elements (principally double-helical stem loops) of rRNA can interact.

A

Any three of the following: Minor groove/minor groove; minor groove/phosphate ridge; end-on (intercalation of the loop from a stem loop); tetraloop/tetraloop receptor

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14
Q

What is the principal function of Domain V of the rRNA of the large ribosomal subunit? Of Domain IV?

A

Domain V harbors the peptidyl transferase center (with the opening of the exit tunnel for the nascent polypeptide), along with the P and A loops that bind to the 3’ CCA ends of the peptidyl- and aminoacyl-tRNAs, orienting them properly for the transferase reaction. Domain IV includes the “shelf” over which all three tRNAs hang, their 3’ ends extending down into the peptidyl transferase center and their anticodon stem-loops oriented toward the small ribosomal subunit and (in the A site) its decoding center. Domain IV also constitutes the major portion of the interface of the large ribosomal subunit with the small.

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15
Q

What is the structural evidence that A2451 does not function as an active site base in catalyzing peptidyl transfer in the ribosome?

A

It turns out that an induced fit conformational change occurs when a correct aminoacyl-tRNA (or suitable analog with components mimicking the CCA rather than just CA 3’ end of the tRNA) binds, and both the amino group of the aminoacyl-tRNA and the carbonyl bond of the 3’ ester of the peptidyl-tRNA reorient for optimal reaction leading to peptidyl transfer. This reorientation moves the amino group too far away from A2451 to make it an effective active site base. In the eventuality, it was shown that A2451 sits on the opposite side of the carbon of the tetrahedral intermediate than would be required for it to have a role in either the formation nor breakdown of the tetrahedral intermediate.

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16
Q

What are the universal common cores of the two ribosomal subunits? Include in your answer a discussion of the structural conservation seen in the decoding and peptidyl transferase centers.

A

The universal common cores are the structurally conserved parts of the small and large rRNAs that are universally conserved among bacteria, archaea and eukarya. In particular, the structures of the decoding center of the small rRNA and peptidyl transferase center of the large rRNA are extremely highly conserved structurally

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17
Q

Describe how insertion fingerprints have been structurally identified in the expansion segments of the human large ribosomal RNA. Generally speaking, how is the universal common core thought to have been built up by the accretion of similar expansion segments? What are the most ancient parts of the small and large rRNAs?

A

The insertion fingerprints are the places where expansion segments are known to have been added in comparing the sequences of rRNAs from progressively higher eukaryotes. Invariably, these constitute structural sites where a blunt-ended stem loop has been added across a single phosphodiester bond on the surface of the more primitive rRNA, fully conserving its structure. Similar sites representing insertion fingerprints can be identified with the universal common core, suggesting specifically how blunt-ended stem loop extensions were progressively built up in the core. The most ancient portion of the small rRNA is the top of helix 44 (possessing A1492 and A1493 of the decoding center), and the peptidyl transferase center (including the P and A loops of Domain V) of the large rRNA

18
Q

What is the diameter of DNA double helix?

A

2nm = 20 angstrom

19
Q

How long is a 10-bp DNA fragment?

A

one Bbp is 0.34 nm (3.4 angstroms) so 10 would be 3.4 nm (34 angstroms)

20
Q

List five parameters to judge the quality of X-ray diffraction data.

A

-HKL values
-Resolution
-number of observations
-average observations per reflection
-% of possible reflections collected

21
Q

List five parameters to judge the quality of a structural model.

A

Reflection data
Methods of phase estimation
Refinement statistics R factor
Refinement statistics R free
Protein chemistry

22
Q

Briefly describe the mechanism for UvrD helicase to unwind dsDNA.

A

Upon AMPPPNP binding, the duplex moved with the domains 1A/1B/2B towards the 2A. The movement includes a 3.3 Angstrom translation and a 20 degree left handed rotation that untwists the double helix. The method overall is known as the Wrench and Inchworm method

23
Q

What are the domains of UvrD and their functions?

A

1A, 1B, 2A, 2B
1A and 2A Core of the helicase responsible for ATP binding and hydrolysis
1B and 2B, interact with the DNA duplex along one side

24
Q
  1. What are the three key structural motifs of GIY-YIG endonuclease family members?
A

X9-11 Motif
Four invariant residues
2 conserved residues

25
Q

What are the three chemistry entities required for endonucleases to effective catalyze the cleavage of phosphodiester bond?

A

A general base, a general acid and a lewis acid

26
Q

List the name and its function of the four functional domains in UvrC

A

GIY-YIG: responsible for the 3’-incision
UvrBC: UvrB interacting region required for 3’-incision
RNAse H: Interacts with the phosphate backbone of the minor grove
HhH: 5’-incision and 3’-insision when the lesion resides in certain sequence contexts

27
Q

Why is UvrB the central player in UvrABC pathway?

A

UvrB contains all of the structural properties of a helicase necessary to couple ATP binding and hydrolysis to domain motion

28
Q

Tyr92, Tyr93, and Tyr96 are important residues in UvrB to form the preincision complex. Why does mutation Tyr93A has severer defect than Tyr96A?

A

Mutation of the Tyr96 to Alanine results in a loss of UvrC inclusion, lack of formation of the UVRb-DNA preinscision complex and less than 6% of the wild type UVRB’s strand destabilization activity. Tyr96 forms the pi-stacking interactions with G17, occupying the position of C18 and making it unavailable for staking interaction with neighboring bases as it is flipped out of the double helix behind the b-hairpin. Tyr96 is crucial in stabilizing the separated DNA strands

29
Q

What are the two possible mechanisms proposed for UvrB to verify damaged DNA in the papers we discussed in the class?

A

The outer strand of the DNA is pushed by a tyrosine into a hydrophobic pocket, if it fits there is no damage, if it doesn’t there is damage. The inner strand is bent around the b-hairpin, if the strand cant bend properly there is damage, if it can there is none

30
Q

Briefly describe how ATP hydrolysis mediates the “handover” of damaged DNA from UvrA to UvrB?

A

this step of NER is driven by an ATP hydrolysis–dependent conformational change in the signature domain II of UvrA, a change from that seen in the AB (A2-DNA) structure to that seen in our new UvrA Δ118–419 structure. UvrA eviction would convert an AB complex bound to damaged DNA to an entity containing only UvrB and damaged DNA, setting the stage for transit of UvrB to the lesion, as discussed below.

31
Q

Why is the signature domain II of UvrA important for the “handover” of damaged DNA from UvrA to UvrB?

A

the signature domain II is in a position to mediate nucleotide-dependent conformational changes that alter the relationships among the three molecules in the damage-sensing ensemble that consists of UvrA, UvrB and DNA.

32
Q

What is the molecular mechanism for UvrA to recognize a broad spectrum of DNA damages?

A

Instead, the conformation of the double helix is probed by protein interactions on both sides of the damage site mainly through the phosphate backbone.
UvrA does not seem to probe the stability of the base interactions but rather senses unwinding and bending of the DNA and the deformability of the global conformation of the double helix.
This indirect readout mechanism allows UvrA to detect various DNA lesions and achieve broad specificity.

33
Q

Briefly describe the domains of UvrA

A

UvrA is a dimeric protein that belongs to the ATP-binding cassette (ABC) family of ATPases, together with transporters and MutS DNA repair protein.
UvrA contains two ATP-binding domains, I and II. Signature domains I and II are inserted into the corresponding ATP-binding domains. The first signature domain also contains two additional insertions, one responsible for UvrB binding and the other for DNA binding. The two composite ATPase active sites are formed between ATP-binding domain I and signature motif II (that is, the proximal site) and between ATP-binding domain II and signature motif I (that is, the distal site).
Three structural zinc-binding elements are present in the structure

34
Q

Briefly describe the steps including protein factors and their roles in bacterial nucleotide excision repair.

A

The first contacts with the DNA occur through the UvrA protein. When the damage is located, the DNA is handed over to the UvrB protein for damage verification. UvrC nuclease is then recruited and cleaves the DNA at the fourth or fifth phosphate 3′ to the lesion and at the eighth phosphate 5′ to the lesion. UvrD helicase removes the excised oligonucleotide, and polymerase I fills the gap. The repair is completed by DNA ligase I, which seals the nick.

35
Q

What DNA lesions does BER repair?

A

Repairs Uracil abasic site, SSB (single strand break)

36
Q

What DNA lesions does HR NHEJ repair?

A

Repairs DSB (Double Strange Break)

37
Q

What DNA lesions does NER repair?

A

Repairs (6-4) PP, bulky adduct, CPD

38
Q

What DNA lesions does MMR repair?

A

Repairs A-G mismatch, T-C mismatch, insertion, deletion

39
Q

What DNA lesions does FA repair?

A

Repairs DNA interstrand crosslinks (ICLs)

40
Q

What DNA lesions does DCP-PR HR NER repair?

A

Repairs DNA-Protien Crosslinks (DPCs)