BB3_AG Flashcards

1
Q

Mus musculus musculus: 30%, eastern Europe
M. m. domesticus: 60%, western Europe
w/ 10% M.m. castaneus (derived from M.m. molossinus)- Asia
= laboratory stock M. musculus

A

additional strains from M. m. castaneus (Thailand) and M. m. molossinus (Japan) and M. spretus (western Mediterranean region)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
Order: 
Superfamily: 
Family: 
Subfamily: 
Genus:
A
Order: Rodentia
Superfamily: Muroidea
Family: Muridae
Subfamily: Murinae
Genus: Mus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most inbred laboratory mice share

A
  • maternal mitochondrial genome derived from M.m. domesticus common
  • Y chromosome contributed by M.m. musculus through its contribution to the genome of M.m. molossinus (Nagamine et al., 1992).
  • Thus, the most inclusive name that can be assigned to the genetically mosaic laboratory mouse is M. musculus, the over-arching name for the entire commensal clade
  • C57BL/6 mice contain minor genetic elements derived from M. spretus and a number of wild aboriginal species that are not members of the M. musculus clade, including M. spretus, M. caroli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

• 20 pairs of telocentric chromosomes, Arabic numbers in order of decreasing size

A

o genes located on chromosomes through fish (fluorescent in situ hybridization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

• histocompatibility complex:

A

H loci control expression of cell surface molecules that modulate critical immune responses such as recognition of foreign tissue
o H2 chromosome 17 is strain dependent
• influences
o Minor H loci are responsible for delayed graft rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  • Mouse Genome Informatics through Jax catalogs inbred strains, natural mutants, induced mutants, transgenic lines, and targeted mutant lines
  • NIH supported Mutant Mouse Regional Centers = repositories
A
  • Mouse Genome Informatics through Jax catalogs inbred strains, natural mutants, induced mutants, transgenic lines, and targeted mutant lines
  • NIH supported Mutant Mouse Regional Centers = repositories
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

• Incross

A

cross of 2 animals of same homozygous genotype (inbred strain breeding)
o AA x AA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

• Outcross:

A

cross of 2 animals of unrelated genotypes (outbred, breeding 2 inbred strains, breeding any unrelated mice, breeding genetically different F1 mice)
o AA x BB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

• Intercross:

A

cross of 2 animals that are IDENTICALLY heterozygous at a particular locus, a cross between two siblings that are genetically different- F1 of inbred x inbred. Ex breeding siblings for inbred strain
o Aa x Aa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

• Backcross:

A

cross of 2 animals, one heterozygous at a locus and another homozygous for one of those heterozygous alleles
o Aa x aa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

• Inbred mouse lines:

A

strains
o 2- or more brother x sister generations (F)
o syngenic or isogenic to other mice of same strain and sex
o due to residual heterozygozity, not fully inbred until after 60 F generations
o branches = substrains (or even substrains of inbred substrain!)
• if separated before F40
• separated for 100 generations
• Jax said if separated for 20 generations (makes sense since est an inbred strain after 20 generations)
• or if genetic differences arise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

• substrain:

A

inbred strain that is reproductively isolated from its founder inbred strain and has any fixed genetic difference from that strain
• if two inbred strains crossed, F1 hybrids are genetically identical (isogenic) and maximally heterozygous (chromosomes of each chromosomal pair separately contributed by each parental strain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

• segregating inbred strain:

A

within an inbred strain, heterozygosity forced through backcrossing or intercorssing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

• F2 hybrids genetically diverse with chromosomes containing a mixture of contribution from each parental strain

A

• F2 hybrids genetically diverse with chromosomes containing a mixture of contribution from each parental strain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

• Recombinant inbred:

A

mate offspring from original inbred strain cross
o Each line created from random matings of F2 generation siblings is its own separate inbred strain
o Useful for mapping phenotypic or quantitative traits that differ between the two strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

• Recombinent congenic strains:

A

sets of inbred strains that breed two inbred strains but then backcross to one parental strain (now called the background strain) after the F1 generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

• Advanced intercross lines

A

RI where F2 generation of inbred strain avoids sibling matings so increased chance of recombination between tightly linked genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

• Coisogenic:

A

mutation arises spontaneously or induced within an inbred strain. Virtually identical to the parental inbred strain except for single mutant allele
o Can backcross in which F1 hybrid created by mating donor mutant strain to desired background strain with subsequent matings to background strain while retaining mutant locus
• Requires 10 backcross generations to achieve congenic
• NEVER coisogenic as locus flanked by other DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

• Outbred:

A

genetically heterogenous, minimize inbreeding
o Stocks: closed population (for at least four generations) of genetically variable mice bred to maintain maximal heterozygosity
o Most oubtred mice stocks are Swiss origin and derived from nine mice imported to US in 1926 = homogenous genetically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

• Consomic:

A

inbred mice congenic for entire chromosomes- used to study polygenic traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

• Conplastic

A

mice congenic for different mitochondrial genomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Genetically Engineered Mice

A

• Spontaneous mutants, maintained as coisogenic within inbred strain
• Create mutants through radiation mutagenesis, chemical mutagenesis, or transgenesis
o Radiation: in vivo or in vitro (embryonic stem cell)
o Chemical: in vivo male mice or in vitro (embryonic stem cell) with ethylmethanesuphonate (EMS) or N ethy N nitrosourea (ENU) = point mutations
• Transgenic mouse: any mouse in which foreign DNA has been integrated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

• Transgenic mouse: any mouse in which foreign DNA has been integrated

A

o Often DNA injected into pronucleus of fertilized egg
o Hemizygous since injected DNA not homologous to mouse genome and not an allele
o Promoter: confers widespread or tissue specific expression of the cDNA
• Tetracycline: tx with tetracycline or doxyclyine induces up or down regulation of transgene

24
Q

• Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent and develop into mice when implanted into blastocyst of developing embryo

A

o 129 commonly use
o injected into inner cell mass of recipient blastocysts then implanted into pseudopregnant surrogate mom
o pups are chimeras: mixture of cells from recipient blastocysts and transformed ES cells
o male chimeric progeny mate with background strain = F1 progeny
• most ES are XY to favor 129 male chimerism
o if backcross to desired background strain = congenic

25
Q

Nutrition

A
  • 3-5 g a day
  • standard, irradiated (virtually free of microorganisms but with risk of residual radio-resistant bacteria), autoclavable (higher in heat labile nutriend content)
  • 6-7 mL water a day
26
Q

Temp/ Water Regulation

A

• large surface area per gram of body weight
• dramatic changes to fluctuations in ambient temperature
o cold = non-shivering thermogenesis, can triple basal metabolic rate, do not have great heat sink- don’t turn temp down at night!
• High ratio of evaporative surface to body mass
o Biological half time for turnover of water (1.1 days) more rapid that for larger mammals
o Water conservation enhanced through cooling of expired air in nasal passages and highly efficient concentration of urine
o If mice sweat, would go into shock from dehydration

27
Q

temps

A

• Mice can compensate from 20-35C
o Cool off through increasing blood flow to ears or retreat into burrow
o Die at 37C
• Neonatal mice ectothermic until 20 days of age
• Thermoneutral zone 29.6-30.5
o 21-25 grow faster
o other say cold stressed w more brown fat and glucose used

28
Q

Respiratory

A

o 3.55 mL o/g/h= 22x more than an elephant
o high metabolic rate
o bohr effect: hemoglobin affinity for oxygen changes with pH

29
Q

Urinary System

A

o highly concentrated urine due to long loops of Henle and vasa recta (vascular bundles) associated with loops of Henle
o normally excrete large amounts of protein in urine- taurine always present, tryptophan absent
o creatinine is excreted in mouse urine

30
Q

o Schaedler flora:

A

aerobic bacteria and some less oxygen sensitive anaerobic organisms
o Extremely oxygen sensitive bacter not included because difficult to isolate and cultivate

31
Q

o Altered Schaedler flora: 8 strains

A

o Original: two lactobacilli, Bacteroids distasonis, EOS fusiform bacterium
o New: spiral shaped bacterium and three new fusiform EOS bacteria

32
Q

Lymphoreticular System

A

o Thymus involutes between 35-80 days of age
o Thymectomy causes decrease in circulating lymphocytes and marked impairment of cellular immune response
o MALT produces more immunoglobulins than both spleen and lymph nodes
o MALT includes all peripheral lymphoid tissue connecting to cavities communicating externally

33
Q

Musculoskeletal System

A

o C7T13L6S4C28

o Incisors and three molars (1-0-0-3)

34
Q

Reproductive System male accessory

A

o Ampullary gland, seminal vesicle, prostate, bulbourethral gland, preputial gland

35
Q

Reproduction

A

o Ovarian follicle development begins at 3 wks of age and matures by 30 days
o Estrogen dependent cornification of vaginal epithelium occurs at 24-28 days
o Males mature at 2 wks

36
Q

cycle

A

o Polyestrous and cycles every 4-5 days

37
Q

o Proestrous and estrus

A

lead to epithelial growth in genital tract and culminate in ovulation

38
Q

o Metestrus

A

degeneration

o Leukocytes!

39
Q

o Diestrous

A

slowed cell growth

o Fewer cells

40
Q

o Postpartum estrus:

A

14-24 h after parturition, fertile matings not as frequent

41
Q

o Estrus dependent on gonadal hormones (estrogen, progesterone, testosterone- all secreted by gonadal organs)

A

o Ovulation responsive to gonadotropin (FSH, LH- all secreted by anterior pituitary)

42
Q

o Whitten effect:

A

group housed females synchronize estrous cycles when exposed to male mouse urine (pheromones)

43
Q

o Bruce effect:

A

pheromones from strange male can prevent implantation or cause pseudopregnancy

44
Q

o Male MUP20 (Darcin):

A

attractive to females, intermale aggression

45
Q

Mating

A

o Vaginal plug: mixture of secretions of vesicular and coagulating glands of the male
o During physical stimulation of cervix and vagina, prolactin released from anterior pituatry to enable corpus luteum to secrete progesterone. After 13 days, placenta produces progesterone.
o Ova fertilized within 10-12 hours

46
Q

Gestation

A

o 19-21 days
o lactation and gestation can occur simultaneously due to post partum estrous
o delayed implantation possible = prolong gestation 12-13 days in inbred strains
o retired breeders after 6 months
o 1-12 pups liter size

47
Q

Weaning

A

o females lactate for 3 weeks
o colostrum- passive immunity
o lost after several months

48
Q

Behavior

A

o deme: groups of mice, breeding male, hierarchy of females, subordinate males and juveniles
o crepuscular: active during twilight hours of dawn and dusk
o territorial
o omnivorous

49
Q

o chemo-olfactory communication is mediated through pheromones

A

o release pheromones: elicit immediate behavioral response
o primary pheromones: mediate a slowly developing and longer lasting endocrine response
o signaler pheromones: convey individual or group identity, as well as mediating parent offspring recognition and mate choice

50
Q

o pheromones excreted into urine, plantar, salivary, lacrimal, preputial, and mammary glands

A

o major urine proteins, MHC 1 peptides, chemicals, and sex hormones communicate dominance, kinship, diversity, and gender
• mups: darcin, female attractant
• kairomones: chemical signals between species
o cat and rat Mups invoke fear in mice
• MUPS are allergens esp Mus m 1

51
Q

o pheromones sensed by vomeronasal organ, olfactory epithelium, organ of Masera, Gruenberg ganglion
o to olfactory bulb and then to brain

A

o pheromones sensed by vomeronasal organ, olfactory epithelium, organ of Masera, Gruenberg ganglion
o to olfactory bulb and then to brain

52
Q

o Bruce effect:

A

pregnancy block! Recently conceived fetuses resorbed in the presence of unrelated male- esp if dominant male

53
Q

o Vandenbergh effect:

A

acceleration of puberty of juvenile females in presence of male urine

54
Q

o Lee Boot effect:

A

: group housed females that are separated from male mouse- suppression of estrus cyclity

55
Q

o Whitten effect

A

synchronization of esturs among group of females in response to a male

56
Q

o Mice have strong mating and social preferences based upon MHC proteins which indicate genetic relatedness
• Maternal relatedness of young also depends on MHC
• Pups recognize MHC
• Male aggression against other males strong MHC

A

o Mice have strong mating and social preferences based upon MHC proteins which indicate genetic relatedness
• Maternal relatedness of young also depends on MHC
• Pups recognize MHC
• Male aggression against other males strong MHC