Basics to cancer Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the typical clinical features that might suggest malignant spinal cord compression (MSCC) in a patient with a known history of cancer.

A

Persistent and progressive back pain

Pain worse on lying down, coughing, or straining

Radicular pain radiating to the buttocks or legs

Motor weakness in the lower limbs

Sensory changes, including diminished pinprick sensation and paraesthesia

Bladder and bowel dysfunction

Reduced power and reflexes in the lower limbs

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2
Q

What are the immediate management steps for a patient suspected of having malignant spinal cord compression (MSCC)?

A

16mg of Dexamethasone STAT followed by 8mg TDS with PPI cover. IV prednisolone

Arrange urgent imaging, typically MRI of the whole spine, to confirm the diagnosis and identify the level of compression

Consult with oncology and neurosurgery or spinal surgery teams for further management

Provide pain relief and support for any motor or sensory deficits

Consider radiotherapy or surgical decompression depending on the tumour type, extent of disease, and patient’s overall condition

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3
Q

What are the potential long-term complications if malignant spinal cord compression (MSCC) is not treated promptly?

A

Permanent paraplegia or quadriplegia, depending on the level of compression

Chronic pain and sensory deficits

Bladder and bowel incontinence

Pressure ulcers due to immobility

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE) secondary to prolonged immobility

Psychological impact, including depression and anxiety related to loss of function and independence

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4
Q

Define and provide examples of modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors for cancer development.

A

Modifiable Risk Factors: These are risk factors that can be altered or controlled by an individual to reduce their risk of developing cancer. Examples include:

Lifestyle Factors: Smoking and diet.
Environmental Factors: Exposure to UV radiation and asbestos.
Niche Example: Chronic Inflammation: Conditions such as chronic pancreatitis and chronic inflammatory bowel diseases (e.g., Crohn’s disease) can increase cancer risk.
Niche Example: Occupational Exposures: Exposure to certain chemicals in the workplace, such as benzene or formaldehyde, can increase the risk of cancers like leukaemia.

Non-Modifiable Risk Factors: These are risk factors that cannot be changed. Examples include:

Genetic Factors: Family history of cancer and inherited genetic mutations (e.g., BRCA1 and BRCA2).
Demographic Factors: Age and sex.
Niche Example: Ethnicity: Certain ethnic groups have higher risks for specific cancers, such as Ashkenazi Jews with a higher prevalence of BRCA mutations.
Niche Example: Congenital Syndromes: Conditions like Li-Fraumeni syndrome, which predispose individuals to multiple early-onset cancers.

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5
Q

Explain the role of genetic factors in cancer development and provide examples of genetic conditions that predispose individuals to cancer.

A

Examples of Genetic Conditions:
BRCA1 and BRCA2 Mutations: These mutations are associated with an increased risk of breast and ovarian cancers.
Lynch Syndrome: Increases the risk of colorectal cancer and other cancers like endometrial and stomach cancers.
Niche Example: Retinoblastoma: Caused by mutations in the RB1 gene, leading to a high risk of developing eye cancer in early childhood.
Niche Example: Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN): Genetic mutations leading to tumours in multiple endocrine glands, such as parathyroid, pancreatic, and pituitary glands.

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6
Q

Discuss how lifestyle factors can influence the risk of developing cancer.

A

Smoking: Increases the risk of lung cancer and cancers of the mouth, throat, and oesophagus.
Diet: High consumption of processed meats and low intake of fruits and vegetables can raise the risk of colorectal cancer.
Niche Example: Shift Work: Working night shifts can disrupt circadian rhythms and has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer.
Niche Example: Human Papillomavirus (HPV) Infection: Engaging in unprotected sex can lead to HPV infection, which increases the risk of cervical and oropharyngeal cancers.

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7
Q

List the recommended cervical cancer screening tests and specify the target populations and frequencies for each.

A

A smear test is offered to all women between the ages of 25-64 years
25-49 years: 3-yearly screening
50-64 years: 5-yearly screening
cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64 (unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age)Pap Smear (Cervical Cytology):

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8
Q

Outline the management steps for a patient who has had a suspicious finding on a mammogram.

A

Further Diagnostic Imaging:
Procedure: Perform a targeted breast ultrasound to evaluate the suspicious area.
Biopsy:
Type: Core needle biopsy is typically performed to obtain a sample of the abnormal tissue for histopathological analysis.
Referral:
Specialist: Refer to a breast surgeon for a comprehensive evaluation, including potential surgical options if the biopsy confirms malignancy.
Niche Answers:

Genetic Testing:
Consideration: For patients with a strong family history of breast cancer or those who test positive for high-risk lesions, BRCA1/2 testing should be considered to assess hereditary cancer risk.

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9
Q

State the primary and secondary prevention strategies for lung cancer.

A

Primary Prevention:
Smoking Cessation:
Action: Advise cessation through behavioural therapy, pharmacotherapy (e.g., nicotine replacement therapy), and support programmes.
Occupational Safety:
Action: Implement safety measures and personal protective equipment for workers exposed to asbestos.
Secondary Prevention:
Screening:
Criteria: Annual low-dose computed tomography (LDCT) for high-risk individuals, specifically those aged 55-74 with a smoking history of 30 pack-years or more.

Niche Answers:

Primary Prevention:
Air Quality Improvements:
Action: Support initiatives to reduce ambient air pollution through environmental regulations and public health policies.
Secondary Prevention:
Risk-Based Screening:
Additional Criteria: Consider screening for individuals with a history of significant exposure to radon or those with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who meet smoking history criteria.

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10
Q

State the primary aims of cancer screening programmes.

A

Common Answers:

Early Detection: Identifies cancer before symptoms appear.
Reduction in Mortality: Aims to decrease deaths from cancer by catching it early.
Niche Answers:

Identification of Pre-cancerous Lesions: Detects and treats conditions like polyps in colorectal cancer to prevent progression.
Cost-Effective Resource Allocation: Uses resources efficiently by targeting high-risk populations to optimise healthcare delivery.

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11
Q

List the major cancer screening programmes provided by the NHS in the UK and their target populations.

A

Common Answers:

Breast Cancer Screening:

Target Population: Women aged 50-71
Frequency: Every 3 years
Cervical Cancer Screening:

Target Population: Women aged 25-64
Frequency: Every 3 years (25-49 years), every 5 years (50-64 years)
Colorectal Cancer Screening:

Target Population: Individuals aged 60-74
Frequency: Every 2 years
Niche Answers:

Breast Cancer Screening:

Additional Note: Includes digital mammography and, where available, tomosynthesis (3D mammography) for improved detection.
Cervical Cancer Screening:

Additional Note: Incorporates HPV testing, which may replace cytology in some regions to improve detection of high-risk HPV types.
Colorectal Cancer Screening:

Additional Note: Uses Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) and, in some cases, flexible sigmoidoscopy for higher-risk individuals.
Prostate Cancer Screening:

Current Status: No national screening programme, but research is ongoing in using PSA tests and imaging techniques.

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12
Q

Identify one contentious issue associated with cancer screening programmes and mention one new screening programme currently under evaluation.

A

Contentious issue: Overdiagnosis is a key contentious issue in cancer screening programmes. Screening may detect cancers that are slow-growing and would not have caused harm during the patient’s lifetime. This can lead to unnecessary treatments, anxiety, and overtreatment, including surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation therapy for cancers that may never have progressed or caused symptoms.

New screening programme under evaluation: A lung cancer screening programme using low-dose computed tomography (LDCT) is currently being evaluated in the UK. The programme aims to detect early-stage lung cancer in high-risk populations, such as long-term smokers. Trials, such as the UK Lung Cancer Screening (UKLS) trial, have shown promising results in reducing mortality from lung cancer. However, further evaluation is ongoing to assess the balance of benefits and risks, such as overdiagnosis and false positives.

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13
Q

First step after you find a lung cancer on a CXR

A

Staging CT Chest/Abdo/Pelvis

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14
Q

What is not a common site for metastasis with lung cancer?

Adrenal
Bone
Liver
Lung
Renal
Brain

A

Renal

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15
Q

After a staging CT with lung cancer, what is the next investigation?

A

CT biopsy, bronchoscopy +/- endobronchial ultrasound
Thoracoscopy if pleural effusion
Histology needed to find out the type of lung cancer

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16
Q

What do you measure in US guided aspirate with malignant pleural effusion?

A

Protein
LDH
Cytology (large volume of fluid the better)
Microbiology

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17
Q

What bloods do you do when initially investigation lung cancer?

A

FBC
U/E
CRP
INR
LFT

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18
Q

Are nodules in the lungs normal?

A

100 people from the street, some will have spots in their lungs
Yes if the nodule is <5mm= minimal risk of lung cancer

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19
Q

Screening tools for nodules?

A

One CT= BROCK
PET= HERDER
Two CT= Volume doubling time

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20
Q

How to treat patients with hypercalcemia?

A

IV Fluids and bisphosphonates (Pamidronate)

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21
Q

SVCO and types of lung cancer?

A

Biopsy- small cell?- radiotherapy and chemotherapy

Non small cell- intraluminal stenting

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22
Q

Why should you not give people Dexamethasone after 2pm?

A

Keeps you awake, hyperactive and confused

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23
Q

What medication is given to prevent seizures with brain mets?

A

Levertiracetam (Keppra)

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24
Q

What does the WHO performance status measure?

A

How active you are in the day
Lower the status, more likely you are to do well from treatment and be offered treatment.

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25
Q

Why is there a specific pathway for small cell lung cancer?

A

Spreads the quickest
Very responsive to chemotherapy
Prioritized
Diagnosed in out of hours

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26
Q

How is mesothelioma classified?

A

Pleural and peritoneal

Mesothelioma is also grouped according to how the cells look under a microscope. These are 3 main types:

epithelioid – the most common type
biphasic
sarcomatoid

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27
Q

Who is part of the MDT team vs multi-professional team in oncology?

A

MDT
Primary care
Specialist surgeons
Specialist medics
Medical Oncologists
Clinical oncologists
Histopathologists
Pathologists
Radiologists

Multi-professional team
- Clinical nurse specialists
- Dieticians
- Physiotherapists
- Occupational therapists
- Psychologists

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28
Q

What are the five pillars of cancer care?

A
  • Surgery
  • Radiotherapy
  • Traditional chemotherapy
  • Precision therapy
  • Immunotherapy
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29
Q

Give examples of acute toxicity vs late toxicity after radiotherapy (
go head to toe)

A

Acute (within 3 weeks)
- Fatigue
- Erythema
- Lymphoedema
- Low blood counts
- Hair loss
- Dysphagia

Late (after 3 weeks)

Skin
- Pigmentation, necrosis, telangiectasia, ulceration

Bone
- Necrosis, fracture, impaired growth

Mouth
- Ulceration, dry mouth

Eyes
- Cataracts

Lymphoedema

Lung
- Fibrosis

Heart
- Cardiomyopathy, pericardial fibrosis

Gonads
- Infertility, menopause

Bowel
- Strictures
- Adhesions
- Fistulas

Or… Secondary malignancy

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30
Q

Examples of late toxicities for chemotherapy

A
  • Pleuritis
  • Pericarditis
  • Cardiovascular complications
  • Neuropathy
  • Arthritis
  • Myalgia
  • Chemobrain
  • Anxiety
  • Depression
  • Insomnia
  • Dizziness
  • Fatigue
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31
Q

Examples of acute toxicities of chemotherapy

A

(Think about it in body systems)

  • Mucositis
  • Dry mouth
  • N/V
  • Dyspnoea
  • Pneumonitis
  • VTE
  • Hand-foot syndrome
  • Paronychia (infection of the nail bed)
  • Rash
  • Skin sensitivity
  • Hearing loss
  • Tinnitus
  • Renal insufficiency
  • TLS
  • Diarrhoea
  • Constipation
  • Colitis
  • Mucositis
  • Cystitis
  • Myelosuppression
  • Febrile neutropenia
  • Infection
  • Anaemia
  • Bleeding risk
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32
Q

If neutropenic sepsis is suspected, when should antibiotics be given?

A

Within one hour
IV antibiotics may be given before a full history is taken or the FBC is known

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33
Q

Action for neutropenic sepsis

A

Action:
URGENT FULL BLOOD COUNT (if suspected neutropenic sepsis DO NOT wait for results before IV antibiotics), U&E, LFT, CRP, glucose, lactate
CULTURES: Blood cultures - peripheral and central line, MRSA screen, MSSU/CSU if symptomatic, sputum if available, stool culture if diarrhoea, wound swabs
CXR if clinically indicated eg if hypoxic or clinical signs in chest

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34
Q

What is Extravasation?

A

Extravasation refers to the accidental leakage of intravenously (IV) infused drugs or fluids into the surrounding tissues, rather than into the intended vein

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35
Q

What are vesicants?

A

Certain medications (e.g., chemotherapy drugs, certain antibiotics, and vasopressors) are known as vesicants, meaning they can cause severe tissue damage if they extravasate.

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36
Q

Types of immunotherapy

A
  • Checkpoint inhibitors
  • Adoptive cell therapy
  • Cancer vaccines
  • Monoclonal antibodies
  • Immune system modulators
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37
Q

What is the difference between medical and clinical oncologists?

A

Medical oncologists give systemic anti-cancer treatments- main focus is research and trials. Work in teaching hospitals. Patients who are on a trial

Clinical- main focus is radiotherapy or combined radiotherapy with chemotherapy.

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38
Q

Explain all the stages in a clinical trial

A

Phase 0
- Early discovery and ongoing preclinical research

Phase 1
- Safety and best dosage levels are determined (12-24 participants)

Phase 2
- Response to new treatment is recorded and analysed (<100 participants)

Phase 3
- Results studied submit to regulatory agency for approval (> than 100 participants)

Phase 4
- Treatment is marketed (> than 1000 involved)

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39
Q

Explain what a bucket trial is

A

Disease Focus: Tests the same drug in patients with different types of cancer (or other diseases), but all cancers share a common mutation or biomarker.
Example: A drug is tested in patients with lung, breast, and colon cancers, but all have a specific genetic mutation that the drug targets.
Purpose: To see if a single drug works across multiple diseases with the same mutation.

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40
Q

Explain what an umbrella trial is

A

Multiple Treatments, One Disease: Focuses on one type of cancer or disease but tests different treatments based on the specific genetic mutations or characteristics of that disease in each patient.
Example: Patients with lung cancer are divided into groups based on their mutations, and each group gets a different treatment tailored to their mutation.
Purpose: To personalise treatment for patients with the same type of disease but different genetic profiles.

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41
Q

Describe the difference in endpoints between Phase II and Phase III cancer clinical trials.

A

Phase II trials primarily focus on evaluating the efficacy of the drug (e.g., tumour response rate or progression-free survival) and continue assessing safety. Phase III trials aim to compare the new treatment against the current standard of care, using endpoints like overall survival, quality of life, and large-scale efficacy.

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42
Q

What are some performance status tools?

A

WHO performance status
MRC dyspnoea scale
NYHA
Rockwood clinical frailty score

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43
Q

What is the difference between induction and neo-adjuvant therapy?

A

Induction can make un-resectable disease to resectable disease.

Neo-adjuvant= we can take it out, but taking drugs upfront can optimise the treatment.

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44
Q

What is the mechanism of action of immunotherapy in cancer treatment?

A

Immunotherapy activates the immune system to target tumour cells by blocking inhibitory immune checkpoints (e.g., PD-1, CTLA-4) on T cells, thereby promoting tumour cell destruction.

The rationale is to reverse tumour-induced immune evasion, enabling the immune system to recognise and attack cancer cells.

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45
Q

What are the most common side effects of immunotherapy

A

Skin toxicities and fatigue most common, followed by endocrinopathies (hypopituitarism) and hepatotoxicity.

46
Q

Who is immunotherapy contra-indicated in?

A

Autoimmune diseases
Already on immunosuppressive medication
Immunotherapy, especially immune checkpoint inhibitors, can trigger immune-related adverse events (irAEs) which can worsen or cause new autoimmune conditions.

Transplant patients

47
Q

Treatment for immunotherapy related hepatotoxicity

A

If the patient is quite sick- IV Methylprednisolone

Well enough- PO prednisolone

48
Q

What criteria does a patient require before they are started on combination immunotherapy?

A

Performance status 0- high side effect profile

49
Q

What are the potential immune-related adverse effects (irAEs) of immunotherapy?

A

irAEs result from immune-mediated inflammation of normal tissues, manifesting as colitis, hepatitis, pneumonitis, thyroiditis, or hypophysitis.

Common side-effects include fatigue, rash, and diarrhoea; severe irAEs include myocarditis and endocrinopathies (e.g., adrenal insufficiency).

50
Q

Common immunotherapy side effects

A

Immunotherapy related hepatitis
Immunotherapy related GI toxicity (colitis)
Immunotherapy induced Pneumonitis
Hypophysitis
Acute interstitial nephritis secondary to immunotherapy

51
Q

Neurological complications with immunotherapy

A
  • Limb weakness
  • Easy fatiguability
  • Numbness
  • Tremors
  • Aphasia
  • Delirium
  • Headaches
  • Photophobia
52
Q

What is hypophysitis?

A

Hypophysitis is a generic term that includes a variety of conditions that cause inflammation of the pituitary gland.

53
Q

What grade of toxicity would you stop treatment at?

A

Grade 4: These toxicities are life-threatening and usually require stopping treatment and/or hospitalization

54
Q

What measures do you have to take if a patient is on steroids for more than 4 weeks?

A

PJP prophylaxis
Calcium/vitamin D supplementation
Gastric protection
Glucose

55
Q

How does immunotherapy cause side effects?

A

Loss of immune tolerance: Checkpoint inhibitors disrupt normal immune regulation, leading to autoimmunity where immune cells attack healthy tissues.
Systemic immune activation: Broad immune stimulation results in inflammation of various organs (e.g., lungs, gut, endocrine glands) due to off-target immune responses.

56
Q

Definition of nociceptive pain?

A

Identifiable lesion causing tissue damage

57
Q

What is visceral pain?

A

Originating from internal organs, usually more diffuse and harder to localise.

58
Q

What is somatic pain?

A

Originating from skin, muscles, joints, and bones, typically well-localised.

59
Q

What is neuropathic pain?

A

Malfunctioning nervous system- nerve structure is damaged

60
Q

What is incident pain?

A

Incident pain is a type of breakthrough pain that occurs as a result of a specific action or movement

61
Q

How is the WHO ladder used?

A
  1. Consider regular paracetamol use
  2. Add an NSAID (PPI)
  3. Add codeine/co-codamol
  4. Stop codeine/co-codamol and trial tramadol
  5. Reassess the patient
  6. Stop tramadol and start morphine
  7. Refer to pain management specialist
62
Q

What is allodynia?

A

Allodynia refers to when pain is experienced with sensory inputs that do not normally cause pain (e.g., light touch).

63
Q

What are first line treatments for neuropathic pain?

A

Amitriptyline
Duloxetine
Gabapentin
Pregabalin

64
Q

What are the two main principles to safe opioid prescribing?

A

Background opioids (e.g., 12-hourly modified-release oral morphine)

Rescue doses for breakthrough pain (e.g., immediate-release oral morphine solution)

65
Q

How do you calculate the break through dose of morphine?

A

The rescue dose is usually 1/6 of the background 24-hour dose. For example, with a background of 30mg over 24 hours of morphine (e.g., 15mg every 12 hours), each rescue dose will be 5mg, given every 2-4 hours as required.

66
Q

What is a Buprenorphine patch equivalent to?

A

Buprenorphine patches (5 mcg/hour patches are roughly equivalent to 12 mg/24 hours of oral morphine)

67
Q

What is a fentanyl patch equivalent to?

A

Fentanyl patches (12 mcg/hour patches are roughly equivalent to 30mg/24 hours of oral morphine)

Always remember to ask patients about fentanyl patches when taking a drug history!

68
Q

What are the benefits of having oral morphine?

A
  • Ease of administration
  • Non-invasive
  • Convenience
  • Sustained pain control
  • Cost-effective
  • Dose flexibility
69
Q

What is the maximum dose of codeine?

A

240mg- codeine is 10x weaker than morphine

70
Q

In practice, what dose should you not be increasing the slow release morphine by before consulting a senior?

A

50%

71
Q

Main principle of a syringe driver?

A

Replaces the slow release morhine (Zomorph)
- You have PRN on top

Move someone onto this when they are vomiting

72
Q

What is the maximum amount of PRNs you can have in a day without a medical review?

A

6 in 24 hours
Wait 2hr max between doses

73
Q

What is the anti-emetic of choice in cancer care?

A

Metoclopramide

74
Q

Side effects of opioids

A

Constipation
Skin itching (pruritus)
Nausea
Altered mental state (sedation, cognitive impairment or confusion)
Respiratory depression (usually only with larger doses in opioid-naive patients)

Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids in life-threatening overdose (usually due to respiratory depression).

Check Us&Es- is the opioid not being renally cleared?

75
Q

What is the MASCC score?

A

MASCC Risk Index for Febrile Neutropenia
Identifies patients at low risk for poor outcome with febrile neutropenia.

Looks at

  • Hypotension
  • COPD
  • Type of cancer
76
Q

Explain the fractional cell kill hypothesis?

A

The fractional cell kill hypothesis suggests that chemotherapy kills a constant proportion (fraction) of cancer cells, rather than a fixed number, with each dose.
This means that with each treatment cycle, the same percentage of cancer cells are killed, making repeated cycles necessary to reduce the tumour cell population significantly.
It explains why multiple cycles of chemotherapy are needed to achieve effective tumour reduction, as chemotherapy cannot eradicate all cancer cells in one dose.

77
Q

Two main ways radiotherapy treats cancer cells?

A
  • Inhibiting DNA mutation
  • Destroying cancer cells with free radicals
78
Q

Possible sources of infection with neutropenic sepsis?

A
  • Lines
  • Translocation of gut bacteria
  • Avoid catheters if you can
  • UTI
  • Mucositis
  • Pneumonia
  • rashes/skin breaks
79
Q

Where should you take bloods from with neutropenic sepsis?

A

Central lines and peripherally if you can

80
Q

When can you give GCSF?

A

With solid organ tumours (prevention of febrile neutropenia in patients undergoing chemotherapy)

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML) is the primary blood cancer where G-CSF should be avoided.
In CML, the proliferation of myeloid cells is driven by the BCR-ABL fusion gene. G-CSF can potentially stimulate the leukaemic cells, worsening the disease by promoting the growth of malignant myeloid cells.

81
Q

What is Irinotecan and what is given with it?

A

Irinotecan
Irinotecan is a type of chemotherapy. You pronounce irinotecan as i-rin-o-te-can. It is also known by its brand name Campto.

It is a treatment for:

bowel cancer
Ewing sarcoma – a type of soft tissue sarcoma
rhabdomyosarcomas – a type of soft tissue sarcoma
ovarian cancer
some gastrointestinal cancers Open a glossary item such as stomach cancer and cancer of the food pipe (oesophageal cancer)

Atropine is given with it to stop stomach cramps

82
Q

Why is Goserelin (Zoladex) given in breast cancer treatment?

A

Mechanism of Action:
Goserelin (Zoladex) is a GnRH agonist that initially stimulates the release of luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), leading to a temporary increase in oestrogen levels.
Continuous administration leads to downregulation of GnRH receptors in the pituitary gland, resulting in decreased LH and FSH levels.
This suppresses ovarian oestrogen production, mimicking a menopausal state.

Helps prevent the recurrence of breast cancer (oestrogen receptor positive)

83
Q

Option instead of a mastectomy?

A

Adjuvant radiotherapy with a lumpectomy- reduce the risk of recurrence

84
Q

What surgery is done for a rectal cancer?

A

Hartmann’s procedure

85
Q

What means a cancer has a higher risk of recurrence?

A

T3/T4- tumor breaching the muscle into the meso/rectal fat

86
Q

How does a cancer cell spread to distant sites?

A
  • Haematogenous spread
  • Lymphatic vessels
  • Fluid in body spaces like pleura (transcoelemic spread)
87
Q

What are the hallmarks of cancer?

A
  • Evading apoptosis
  • Sustaining proliferative signalling
  • Insensitivity to growth suppressors
  • Inducing angiogenesis
  • Invasion and metastasis
88
Q

When do you see late effects of radiotherapy and what is the mechanism behind it?

A

Around 6 months
Strictures/scar formation

89
Q

Explain ionising radiation

A

Ionising radiation refers to high-energy particles or waves (e.g., X-rays, gamma rays, or proton beams) that have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms or molecules, thus “ionising” them.

When radiation passes through tissues, it creates free radicals, which are highly reactive molecules that cause significant cellular damage, particularly to DNA.

90
Q

Explain direct vs indirect damage with radiotherapy

A

Direct damage: Radiation directly breaks the DNA strands inside the cell. Double-strand breaks are particularly lethal.

Indirect damage: Radiation generates free radicals (especially from water molecules in cells), which in turn damage the DNA.

91
Q

What is the difference between clinical and medical oncologists?

A

Medical= mainly chemotherapy
Clinical= radiotherapy and some chemo

92
Q

What are the advantages of IMRT and how is it done?

A

Patient lays down to have a CT done in the exact position that radiotherapy will be given in

Radiotherapy is planned using computers

You can calculate the exact percentage of radiation that other organs will receive (cooler areas)

Hotter areas- where beams from different directions meet in the middle will destroy cells.

93
Q

How is treatment changing for hypercholesterolemia?

A

Being treated more like hypertension
patients will be on statin and ezetimibe.

94
Q

What is Inclisaran and PCSK?

A

Inclisiran is a cholesterol-lowering drug that inhibits the PCSK9 protein, increasing LDL receptor availability to remove “bad cholesterol” (LDL-C) from the blood. PCSK9 normally promotes the breakdown of these receptors, so blocking it helps lower LDL-C levels and reduce cardiovascular risk.

95
Q

What happens when a patient has an ejection fraction of <40%?

A

Referred onto heart failure team or cardiology consultant

96
Q

Additional measures taken when patients have neutropenic sepsis?

A
  • Reverse barrier nursing
  • Isolate the patient in a side room
97
Q

What are the aims of cancer screening?

A
  • Early detection (more treatable)
  • Improvement of survival rates
  • Awareness and education- healthy lifestyle choices
  • Cost-effectiveness- reduce long term healthcare costs by preventing advanced stage cancer
98
Q

What are the problems associated with the NHS offering such screening services?

A
  • Overdiagnosis, detect cancers that are unlikely to cause symptoms or harm (DCIS)
  • False positive
  • Health inequalities
  • Resource allocation
  • Public compliance
99
Q

Why has a national programme for PSA screening been resisted?

A
  • Overdiagnosis and overtreatment
  • Lack of test specificity- PSA
  • Uncertain impact on mortality
100
Q

Other Screening Methods Being Considered for Prostate Cancer

A
  • Multiparametric MRI
  • Genetic testing and biomarkers (BRAC1, BRAC2, PCA3)
  • Risk based screening
101
Q

What is the TRANSFORM Trial

A

Testing Radical mpMRI Screening of Men
- Trial using mpMRI instead of PSA

102
Q

What is the purpose of the site-specific cancer MDT?

A
  • Comprehensive assessment
  • Development of individualised treatment plans
  • Expertise from multiple specialties
  • Co-ordination of care (timely intervention)
  • Holistic care
  • Decision making transparency- reduces bias
103
Q

How are patients referred into the MDT?

A
  • Faster diagnosis standard
  • Screening
  • Emergency presentations
104
Q

How are MDT decisions recorded?

A
  • MDT coordinator
  • Electronic health records
  • MDT template
  • Audit and governance
105
Q

How are MDT decisions passed back to the referring clinician?

A
  • MDT coordinator creates a summary report
  • Electronic health record
  • MDT letter
  • Verbal/telephone
  • Secure messaging
106
Q

How is the MDT decision shared with the patient?

A

Normally in a follow up clinic

107
Q

List some advantages/disadvantages of a cancer MDT?

A

Advantages
- Holistic
- Access to specialists
- Timely and coordinated
- Improved diagnostic accuracy
- Shared decision making

Disadvantages
- Expensive
- Time consuming
- Resource consuming
- Potential for overload
- Could cause delay in getting the information back to the patient

108
Q

List some common causes of pneumonitis in patients undergoing treatment for lung cancer

A
  • Radiation induced
  • Chemotherapy (bleomycin, cyclophosphamide)
  • Immunotherapy
  • Targeted therapy
  • Infection
  • Aspiration
109
Q

What symptoms and clinical findings would support a diagnosis of pneumonitis?

A
  • Cough
  • Dyspnoea
  • Fever
  • Chills
  • Chest pain
  • Sputum production
  • Wheezing

Clinical findings
- Crackles
- Tachypnoea
- Hypoxia
- Fever
- CXR- infiltrates

Pulmonary function tests

110
Q

What investigations are required to diagnose pneumonitis?

A

CXR- diffuse infiltrates

CT- Ground-glass opacities (GGO)
Consolidation
Reticular patterns or interstitial thickening
Possible distribution consistent with radiation fields if radiation-induced pneumonitis is suspected.

PFTs- Restrictive

Bloods- ABG, hypoxia, bloods- leukocytosis, eisonitphilia

Microbiological

Histopathological
- Findings may include interstitial inflammation, lymphocytic infiltrates, and alveolar damage.